Midterm 3 Flashcards

1
Q

low birth weight is defined as

A
  • low birth weight is defined as less than 2500 grams ( 5 1/2 lbs)
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2
Q

nutrients required for cell/tissue development must be available during ——- and what is this period called

A
  • specific time intervals, if missing leads to developing tissue has fewer cells, forms abnormally or functions poorly ( e.g cleft palate from too much vitamin A)
  • it called the critical period
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3
Q

Developmental origin hypothesis - Dutch hunger winter (1944-1945)

A
  • 4.5 million people affected
  • if women were exposed to famine during pregnancy it led to
    1. Lower birth weight
    2. Offspring had an increased risk of diabetes and obesity as adults
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4
Q

Developmental origin hypothesis is that increased susceptibility to ———— is —— by energy or nutrient ———- during pregnancy causing fetal tissues in critical phases to make ——— to cope with ——- —- ——-
Adaptations produce changes in —- and —— of tissues (permanent or ———)

A
  • increased susceptibility to chronic disease is “programmed” by energy or nutrient imbalances during pregnancy
  • fetal tissue in critical phase make adaptation to cope with poor nutrient supply
  • adaptations produce changed in structure and function of tissues ( permanent or long lasting effect)
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5
Q

Weight gain in pregnancy

A
  • weight gain typically depends on a woman’s weight entering pregnancy
  • underweight; 28- 40 pounds
  • normal and weight 24- 35 pounds
  • overweight; 15- 25 pounds
  • obesity: 15-20 pounds
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6
Q

Women carrying twins typically gain

A

37-54 pounds

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7
Q

Weight gain in pregnancy should be

A

Gradual and consistent, form a high quality diet

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8
Q

Nutrition during pregnancy

A
  • calories
    1st trimester= no additional calories
    2nd trimester= 340 calories
    3rd trimester= 450 calories
    Other nutrients
  • choose nutrient dense foods
  • especially folate, iron, calcium
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9
Q

Folate deficiency

A
  • associated with fetal growth failure and malformations and neural tube defects
  • adequate folate early in pregnancy reduces neural tube defects
  • 600 mg folate is need daily before (neural tube forms before 30 days after conception) and during pregnancy
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10
Q

Neural tube defects

A
  • encephalocele
  • spina bifida
  • anecephaly
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11
Q

What are the neonatal risks associated with iron deficiency during pregnancy

A
  • Low birth weight
  • small for gestational age
  • fetal distress
  • preterm birth
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12
Q

What are the offspring risks associated with iron deficiency

A
  • memory/ processing disorders
  • intellectual disability
  • iron deficiency
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13
Q

What are the maternal risks associated with iron deficiency

A
  • preterm labour
  • placental abruption
  • severe postpartum hemorrhage
  • preeclampsia
  • hysterectomy
  • maternal shock
  • increased ICU admission
  • maternal death
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14
Q

Calcium is needed for —— and supplied by ——-

A
  • needed for mineralization of bones in the fetus
  • supplied by mothers diet and calcium in long bones of mothers body
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15
Q

True or false calcium is supplied by the mothers diet and the calcium in long bones of mothers body

A

True

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16
Q

Low calcium intake means

A
  • greater calcium losses from maternal bones during pregnancy
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17
Q

Is calcium regained after delivery

A

Yes

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18
Q

The babies born before 37 weeks of pregnancy

A

Pre term

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19
Q

the lowest mortality rates occur among infants weighing

A

weighing 3000 to 3500g ( 6.6 to 7.7 lbs)

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20
Q

Infant mortality rate in 2023 is

A

3.9 deaths/ 1000 live births

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21
Q

Critical period

A

Time when cells of a tissue or organ are genetically programmed to multiply and any damage can cause irreversible damage

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22
Q

During the critical period if something goes wrong such as a deficiency in cells the body cannot correct and fully compensate for this later on (true or false)

A

True

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23
Q

Nutrients requires for cell/ tissue development must be available during ——- and if missing ——-

A

Specific time intervals

The developing tissue has fewer cells and forms abnormally or functions poorly

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24
Q

How is cleft palate formed

A

When developing tissue has fewer cells, forms abnormally or functions poorly, from too much vitamin A

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25
Q

Which tissues have their critical periods of development within the first 4 weeks?

A

The central nervous system, heart, ears, eyes, and legs and arms

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26
Q

During which period does the central nervous system develop critically?

A

The central nervous system is in its critical period during the first 4 to 6 weeks of gestation.

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27
Q

What tissue develops critically at the latest stage of pregnancy?

A

The external genitalia has a critical period extending to about 12 weeks.

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28
Q

Why is early development particularly sensitive to external factors?

A

Early development is sensitive because tissues and organs are rapidly forming, making them more vulnerable to nutritional deficiencies, toxins, or other disruptions.

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29
Q

Which tissues continue to develop until term?

A

The central nervous system, ears, eyes, teeth, palate, and external genitalia continue developing until term.

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30
Q

What is the most common deficiency in pregnant women and what is the DRI per day during pregnancy

A
  • iron
  • 27 mg
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31
Q

What can be concluded about maternal antibiotic use?

A

Maternal antibiotic use during pregnancy and lactation leads to increased weight gain in offspring compared to controls and prebiotic-treated groups.

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32
Q

Too little vitamin A results in

A

Poor fetal growth

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33
Q

Too much vitamin A results in and what intake of retinol daily is too much

A
  • fetal malformations (in facial features and heart defects)
  • intake of 10 000- 15 000 IU of retinol daily is too much
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34
Q

What should you limit your vitamin A intake to when pregnant

A

5000 IU/ day and take no vitamin A containing medications

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35
Q

Is beta carotene, a precursor to vitamin A and is it harmful? Is it from plant foods?

A

Yes,
no it is not harmful
Yes

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36
Q

What does a lack of vitamin D do to pregnant women and what kind of women are at a greater risk of a vitamin D deficiency

A

Compromises fetal growth and development

Vegan women since Vit D is found naturally in animal products

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37
Q

What is the vitamin D recommendation for pregnant women and what should it not exceed

A
  • 600 IU is the official recommended
  • should not exceed 4000 IU
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38
Q

What are the only supplements recommended for all pregnant women? And how about multivitamin mineral pills?

A
  • iron and folate
  • Multivitamin Mineral Pills are recommended for women who do not consume an adequate diet and for high risk categories such as twins, heavy cigarette smokers and those with alcohol or drug abuse
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39
Q

What percent of pregnant women take multiple vitamins and mineral supplements

A

83%

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40
Q

Is Fetal Alcohol Syndrome a permanent condition

A

Yes

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41
Q

What amount of alcohol is absolutely safe during pregnancy

A

None

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42
Q

To prevent impairments in fetal growth and development women should not ——

A

Drink alcohol during pregnancy or when trying to get pregnant

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43
Q

What to do when someone is experiencing morning sickness/ nausea during pregnancy

A
  • get up slowly in morning
  • eat dry toast or crackers
  • chew gum or suck hard candies
  • eat small, frequent meals
  • avoid foods with offensive odours
  • when nauseated do not drink citrus juice, water, milk, coffee or tea
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44
Q

What to do when experiencing constipation and hemorrhoids

A
  • fiber, exercise and liquids
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45
Q

What to do when experiencing heartburn during pregnancy

A
  • relax and eat slowly
  • eat small and frequent meals
  • drink liquids between meals
  • avoid spicy or greasy foods
  • elevate head while sleepy
  • wait an hour after eating before lying down
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46
Q

What are the nutrition related concerns associated with pregnancy

A

A) nausea/ morning sickness
B) constipation and hemorrhoids
C) Heartburn

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47
Q

High risk pregnancy factors

A
  1. Maternal weight before pregnancy (over or under-weight)
  2. Maternal weight gain during pregnancy
  3. Maternal nutrition
  4. Socioeconomic status
  5. Lifestyle habits (smoking, alcohol, drugs)
  6. Age - geriatric pregnancy?
  7. Previous pregnancies (number, interval, outcomes, twins)
  8. Maternal health (high BP, diabetes, etc.)
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48
Q

How much does an infant’s birthweight change in the first year?

A

Infants triple their birthweight by 1 year.

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49
Q

By how much does an infant’s length increase in the first year?

A

Length increases by 50% in the first year.

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50
Q

How does growth rate change after infancy?

A

Growth rate declines after infancy.

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51
Q

What is the average heart rate for infants compared to adults?

A

• Infants: 120-140 beats/min
• Adults: 70-80 beats/min

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52
Q

What is the respiration rate for infants compared to adults?

A

• Infants: 20-40 breaths/min
• Adults: 15-20 breaths/min

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53
Q

What are the energy needs of infants compared to adults?

A

• Infants: 100 kcal/kg
• Adults: <40 kcal/kg

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54
Q

Breast milk composition compared to recommend adult diet

A

Breast milk
Protein- 6%
Fat- 55%
Carbohydrates- 39%

Recommended adult diets
Protein- 12%
Fat- 30%
Carbohydrates- 58%

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55
Q

When should you introduce cows milk and what happens when you introduce it before 6 months

A
  • 9-12 months of age
  • before 6 months associated with intestinal bleeding and iron deficiency
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56
Q

When should you introduce solid foods to babies and how

A
  • typically at 6 months
  • iron fortified cereal first
  • pureed vegetables and fruits next
  • new recommendations don’t dictate an order
  • progress to family foods by 12 mths
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57
Q

Foods to avoid in the first year (what food may cause allergic reactions)

A
  • cows milk
  • egg whites
  • fish
  • nuts
  • soy
  • wheat
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58
Q

Foods to avoid in the first year ( foods that may cause other problems)

A
  • corn (hard to digest).
  • honey (unpasteurized)
  • coffee
  • prune juice and other fruit drinks
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59
Q

Foods to avoid in the first year of life (what is the last category of food to avoid)

A

Food that may lead to choking

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60
Q

Vitamins are chemicals in food required for —- and —-

A

Normal growth and health

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61
Q

Adequate intakes do what

A

Protect people against deficiency diseases and prevent chronic diseases

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62
Q

Every vitamin has a range of intake where it functions best (true or false)

A

True

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63
Q

What is a good way to get enough vitamins in your diet

A

Eating 5 or more servings of fruits and vegetables each day is a good way to get enough vitamins in your diet.

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64
Q

What are 3 examples outlining the history of vitamin deficiencies

A
  1. Vitamin D deficiency known as rickets
  2. Thiamin Deficiency known as beri beri
  3. Niacin Deficiency known as Pellagra
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65
Q

When was Vitamin D deficiency most relevant and how did it occur and what was discovered in 1921

A

1880-1920, 90% of children in parts of Europe and in Boston had rickets (industrialization era)

  • smoke from coal-burning fires absorbed much of UV portion of sunlight which was needed to produce vitamin D in the skin
  • UV B rays absorb the rays needed to make vitamin D
  • In 1921 it was discovered that if you exposed children to UV light, symptoms of rickets disappeared.
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66
Q

What was the first medical link to Thiamin deficiency (beri beri) and what was the symptoms of Thiamin deficiency

A
  • 1st medical link to this dietary deficiency was made by a Japanese doctor who observed the symptoms in Japanese navy crew who ate only polished white rice but not in crew who got meat, beans and barley
  • Polished rice with husk, bran and germ
    removed = strips nutrients
  • Fatigue, together with complications affecting the cardiovascular, nervous, muscular, and Gl systems
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67
Q

What are the “3 D’s” associated with niacin deficiency aka pellagra and when was it the most relevant, and where? What was the staple food that caused this?

A
  • three ‘D’s: dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia
  • 1907-1940 in USA (3 million cases, 100,000 deaths) early 1900’s in the southeastern USA, cotton economy failed, and people ate corn as a staple
  • niacin in corn is tightly bound and not very available for absorption
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68
Q

Vitamin A Deficiency is the leading cause of.. and increases… and what is one of the first signs of the deficiency

A
  • Leading cause of preventable childhood blindness and increases the risk of death from common childhood illnesses such as diarrhea

-Night blindness is one of the first signs of vitamin A deficiency (Inability to see in dim light to full on blindness)

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69
Q

What foods beta-carotene found in and is there a upper tolerable limit if not what does high intake cause

A

Deep orange fruits and vegetables
• Dark green vegetables

• No upper tolerable limit but high intakes may turn skin yellow-orange

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70
Q

Retinol (pre-formed Vitamin A) Found in? And what should be taken note of?

A

Found in: Animal products with fat (meat, fish, eggs, dairy)

Note: Some acne medications contain vitamin A derivatives (retinoids). These can be harmful during pregnancy. Avoid getting pregnant for 4 weeks after use.

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71
Q

Iodine is an element needed for… and what happens if it’s deficient and what is the percentage of the worlds population remain at risk for iodine deficiency

A
  • lodine is an element that is needed for production of thyroid hormone
  • If deficient, leads to hypothyroidism = weight gain, inability to tolerate
    cold, fatigue
  • Can lead to intellectual disabilities in children if mother was deficient during pregnancy
  • Approximately 30% of the world’s population remains at risk for iodine deficiency
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72
Q

What are the water soluble vitamins, due to water solubility what happens to these vitamins and are they safe in high doses? Which vitamins can be toxic in high doses? Megadoses? Water soluble vitamins are also ——- during food storage and preparation

A

• The B vitamins and vitamin C

• Due to water solubility, they “wash out” of the body in one to several days
- Except for B12 as it can be stored up to one year in the liver

  • This does not make them safe in high doses…
    • Vitamin B6, niacin and C can be toxic in high doses
    • “Megadoses” stress the kidney

• Water soluble vitamins are easily destroyed during food storage and preparation

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73
Q

How to minimize nutrient losses

A
  1. Refrigerate fruits & vegetables
  2. To minimize oxidation, reduce contact with air
  3. Wash fruits & vegetables before cutting
  4. To minimize cooking losses, steam or stir-fry vegetables. Avoid high temperature for long time.
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74
Q

Is folate the natural form and the folic acid synthetic form

A

Yes

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75
Q

What is folate found in and what is the most common food source is enriched or fortified food products is synthetic folic acid more ———-

A
  • leafy green vegetable
  • legumes
  • lentils
  • fortified grain products
  • most common food source is enriched or fortified food products
  • synthetic folic acid is more bio available than naturally occurring food folate
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76
Q

What does folate deficiency affect

A
  1. Lack of folate reduces DNA stability
  2. Heart health
  3. Fetal health
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77
Q

Folate deficiency —- and —— carcinogenesis
How?

A

Induces and accelerates

  • structure of cells genetic material become disrupted and accumulate resulting in cancer
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78
Q

Lack of folate causes —— to accumulate

A
  • lack of folate causes homocysteine to accumulate in blood
  • high homocysteine results in heart attacks and strokes
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79
Q

There is almost a complete absence of spinal cord and brain deformities in babies born to mothers consuming ———- ——- what are the two most common neural tube defects and what are the recommended intakes for folate

A
  • Almost complete absence of spinal cord and brain deformities (neural tube defects) in babies born to mothers consuming adequate folate.
  • The two most common neural tube defects are spina bifida (treatable) and anencephaly (fatal - portion of brain and skull missing).
  • Intakes should be: 400 unigrams all females
    600 unigrams pregnant
    4 mg previous neural tube defect
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80
Q

Vitamin C is a ——- and it ———- tissues from oxidative stress, what is oxidative stress caused by and over time lead to increased risk of

A
  • antioxidant
  • protects tissues from oxidative stress
  • oxidative stress is caused by free radicals that are produced in response to normal metabolism using oxygen; UV radiation; air pollution; tobacco smoke
  • over time lead to increased risk of cancer, heart disease and arthritis
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81
Q

Vitamin C along with vitamin E and other phytochemical found in fruits and vegetables…

A

neutralize free radicals

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82
Q

What are free radicals

A
  • free radicals are like robbers which are deficient in energy
  • free radicals attack and snatch an electron from other cells to satisfy themselves which damages cells membrane
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83
Q

What is vitamin Cs roles

A
  1. Antioxidant
  2. Cofactor in collagen formation
  3. In stress
  4. Role in the common cold
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84
Q

What does vitamin C being a cofactor in collagen formation mean and with vitamin C deficiency what is a major symptom

A
  • help form collagen ( fibrous structural protein of connective tissue)
  • assist in preventing bruising with vitamin C deficiency, tissue hemorrhage or bleeding is a major symptom
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85
Q

Vitamin C role in stress; what gland contains more vitamin C than any other organ and when is vitamin C released. what are examples of stresses what is the recommended intakes of vitamin C

A
  • adrenal glands contain more vitamin C than any other organ, released with stress hormones during stress reaction
  • stresses: infections, burns, toxic heavy metals, chronic aspirin, barbiturates (sedatives), oral contraceptives (also B6, B12, folate ) cigarette smoking *There is a higher recommendation

Males = 90 mg/d
Females = 75 mg/d
Smoker = +35 mg/d

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86
Q

1 g/day of vitamin C led to.. vitamin c reduces ….. what is vitamin c the body needs to prevent scurvy and what does excess vitamin c do

A
  • 1 day shorter cold and reduced severity of symptoms by 23%
  • vitamin c reduces blood histamine but at a dose of 2 g daily for 2 weeks
  • body needs 10 mg prevent scurvy
  • excess; nausea, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, excessive gas
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87
Q

What is vitamin D different roles

A
  1. Bone growth
  2. Cancer
  3. Multiple sclerosis; rheumatoid arthritis
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88
Q

What does vitamin D do for bone growth

A

raises blood concentrations of Ca & phosphorus
1) increase absorption from intestine
2) increase reabsorption from kidneys
3) mobilization from bones into blood

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89
Q

What is the link of vitamin D and cancer

A
  • recent research: breast, prostate, colon decreases with increased vitamin D intake
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90
Q

Multiple sclerosis; rheumatoid arthritis and latitude what level supplement decreases the risk of MS and what is the percentage

A
  • living higher than 37° latitude increases MS risk >100%
  • 400 U supplement decreases risk by 40%
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91
Q

What amount of sunlight is needed to produce sufficient vitamin D

A
  • 9 min of daily sunlight in the summer,
    with forearms and lower legs exposed
    light from produces sufficient vitamin D
    the sun
    (25 min suggested for dark pigment)
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92
Q

What is the food sources of vitamin D and what is the most reliable source

A

Food Sources:
• Fortified dairy foods
• Fortified margarine
• Fish oils
• Egg yolk
* fluid milk is most reliable source

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93
Q

Vitamin D Production

A
  • Vitamin D production depends on:
    • Sun angle
    • Latitude
    • Season
  • Limited production:
    • Northern latitudes (above 50° N): 6 months
    • Middle latitudes (40° N - 50° N): 4 months

Note: Consider supplementation if needed. With latitude

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94
Q

Reduced production of vitamin D results in and what amounts of sun is required for a day

A

1) 70 years and older - vitamin D production falls to
30% of younger adults
2) institutionalized individuals at high risk
3) sunscreen - reduce or block vit. D synthesis, but not completely
* 15 min exposure early morning or late afternoon without sunscreen produces all that is required for a day

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95
Q

DRI for vitamin D

A
  • 600 IU for those >70 years it is 800 IU
  • tough to get from food, fish best source supplement is recommended
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96
Q

What are phytochemicals and what do they protect against

A

• Biologically active compounds of plants (protect them from bacteria, animals, etc. and give pigmentation and flavor) believed to reduce risk of chronic disease in humans

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97
Q

What phytochemical are essential what properties must they have to make them useful to our tissues are some phytochemical toxic to us

A
  • None of the phytochemicals are essential
  • Many have protective and antioxidant properties that make them useful to our tissues
  • Others are toxic to us - Too much is not better!
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98
Q

What diseases can phytochemicals protect us from?

A
  • Cancer
  • Heart disease
  • High blood pressure
  • Other chronic diseases
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99
Q

The correct balance of phytochemicals is unknown, but to get adequate levels, we need to:

A
  • Follow the advice in Canada’s Food Guide and
  • Eat a variety: don’t eat the exact same foods every day
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100
Q

Free radicals and sources of free radicals, antioxidants help neutralize…

A
  • Free radicals are highly reactive molecules that can damage DNA, leading to cellular dysfunction and aging.
  • Sources of free radicals:
    • UV light
    • Air pollution
    • Smoking
    • Ionizing radiation
    • Normal metabolism
  • DNA damage can contribute to the development of chronic diseases and cancer.
  • Antioxidants help neutralize free radicals and protect cells from damage.
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101
Q

What do antioxidant do

A

• protect cells against oxidative damage and reduce the risk of developing certain types of cancer. Phytochemicals with antioxidant activity: allyl sulfides (garlic, onions), carotenoids (carrots, tomatoes), flavonoids (berries), polyphenols (grapes, tea).

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102
Q

Oxidative Stress

A
  • Free radicals steal electrons from stable molecules, causing damage.
  • Antioxidants donate electrons to stabilize free radicals.
  • Damage can lead to cell death and contribute to aging and disease.
103
Q

• Hormonal action

A

Isoflavones, found in soy, imitate human estrogens and help to reduce menopausal symptoms and osteoporosis.

104
Q

Indoles which are found in which —— enzymes that make

A
  • broccoli and cabbage, stimulate enzymes that make estrogen less effective and could reduce the risk for breast cancer.
105
Q

What do phytochemicals do… pronanthocyanidins are …..

A
  • Protect DNA - Capsaicin, found in hot peppers, protects DNA from carcinogens.

• Physical action - Some phytochemicals bind physically to cell walls thereby preventing the adhesion of pathogens to human cell walls.
Proanthocyanidins are responsible for the anti-adhesion properties of cranberry. Consumption of cranberries will reduce the risk of urinary tract infections.

106
Q

Phytochemical pill

A
  1. In large doses, phytochemicals may be toxic.
  2. Up to 10,000 phytochemicals identified. Cannot all be isolated and put into supplement.
  3. Health benefits are associated with foods and often not supplements.
  4. Many supplements are untested and some phytochemical supplements may actually harm health (e.g. beta-carotene).
    Beta-carotene and lung cancer?
107
Q

Solanine

A
  • when potatoes are exposed to light, they turn
    green = natural defense against insects eating them (bitter)
  • diarrhea, vomiting, headache, paralysis
108
Q

Aflatoxins

A

• from Aspergillus fungi growing on nuts/peanuts, dried foods, grains, and spices, which can cause liver cancer with chronic exposure. Testing done by CFIA. Discard nuts/peanuts that look moldy, discolored or shriveled.

109
Q

Oxalic acid

A

• Oxalic acid from spinach, turnip greens, rhubarb, and other foods can bind to calcium and irritate the stomach; cause kidney stones

110
Q

Phytates

A

• Phytates - found in whole grains and legumes - bind minerals (iron and zinc); cooking, baking, sprouting, fermentation can reduce phytates

111
Q

What anti nutrients

A
  • oxalic acid
  • phylates
112
Q

Food biotechnology

A
  • selective breeding; * selectively breeding crops & animals for centuries * examples: wild corn = 5 kernels/stalk super-sweet corn leaner animals
    chickens lay more eggs
  • genetic engineering ; * modifying genetic material of living cells so they produce new substances or perform new functions * insert gene from one organism into another
113
Q

Benefits of food technology

A
  1. Extended shelf life
  2. efficient food processing
  3. Biopharming
  4. Improved nutrient composition
  5. Genetically assisted agriculture
114
Q

Extended shelf life

A
  • tomatoes stay firm & ripe longer
  • “antisense” (mirror image) gene
  • binds to native gene and prevents synthesis of softening protein
  • harvested at more flavorful, nutritious vine-ripe stage
115
Q

Efficient food processing

A
  • rennin - coagulate milk in cheese production
  • traditionally from calf stomach
  • today mass produced in bacteria
  • save time, money & space
  • in the future: lactose free milk?
    : decaf coffee bean?
116
Q

Biopharming

A
  • use animals & plants to produce drugs:
  • cow produce vaccine in milk
  • use bananas to make edible vaccine
  • hydroponically grow tomato plants to secrete desired protein through roots into water
117
Q

Improved nutrient composition

A
  • soybeans: upgrade protein quality
  • canola: increase monounsaturated fatty acids
  • “golden rice”: genes from daffodil & bacteria to make beta-carotene
118
Q

How many deaths per year are due to vitamin A deficiency

A

• 1.15 million child deaths are precipitated by vitamin A deficiency each year.
• One cup could supply
50% of the
RDA of vitamin A for an adult

119
Q

Genetically assisted agriculture

A
  • 90-95% of canola crops in Canada are GM to withstand herbicides (not just for food also lip gloss, soap, others)
  • farmer can spray whole field, kill weeds & not harm canola
  • Canada = soy, corn, canola, sugar beets, alfalfa
    (imports = USA squash and 80% of Hawaiian papayas)
  • hypoallergenic peanuts are being researched
120
Q
  • Genetically Modified (GM) Foods Concerns:
A
  • Allergenicity: Transfer of genes from allergenic to non-allergenic organisms.
    • Gene transfer: Transfer of genes from GM foods to human cells or gut bacteria.
    • Outcrossing: Migration of genes from GM plants to conventional crops.
121
Q

GM Foods and Human Health

A
  • No evidence of allergic reactions or adverse health effects from current GM foods.
  • Focus: Preventing gene transfer of harmful genes (e.g., antibiotic resistance).
  • Outcrossing: Strategies like field separation reduce risk of gene transfer to conventional crops.
122
Q

What is the leading cause of death in Canada and what are the types found in men and women that is more common lead of death

A
  • cancer
  • in men lung cancer kills 32 a year, colon and rectum kills 9 and prostate kills 14
  • in women lung kills 25 a year, then breast 16 and lastly colon and rectum at 10
123
Q

What are the steps to cancer development

A
  1. Initiation - carcinogen → permanent genetic change in a cell (carries mutation until it’s death)
  2. Promotion - compounds cause the initiated cells to divide and accumulate - large number of daughter cells with the mutation
  3. Progression - transformation from benign tumor to neoplasm, cells can undergo further mutations with metastatic potential
  4. Metastasis - invade surrounding tissues and/or spread
124
Q

Factors affecting cancer development

A

A. Genetic factors: affects risk
B. Immune factors: ineffective immune system may not recognize tumor as foreign
- aging decreases immune function
- immunosuppressive drugs & viral infections also decrease immune system
C. Environmental factors, like cigarettes or pollution or UV rad
D) Dietary factors - initiators:
E) Dietary factors- promoters
F) Dietary factors- anti promoters

125
Q

What are initiators

A
  • carcinogens which initiate cancer
  • some pesticides at high doses are carcinogenic
  • nitrosamines - strong carcinogens
  • naturally occurring or formed during processing
  • alcohol (beer & scotch)
  • processed meats (ham, bacon, deli meats, hot dogs)
  • in the stomach, nitrates (a preservative), can combine with amines to form nitrosamines
  • linked to stomach, esophagus, liver and bladder cancer
126
Q

Class one carcinogens

A

Group 1: Carcinogenic to humans
• Group 2A: Probably carcinogenic to humans
• Group 2B: Possibly carcinogenic to humans
• Group 3: Unclassifiable as to carcinogenicity in humans
• Group 4: Probably not carcinogenic to humans International Agency for Research on Cancer
Group 1: Carcinogenic to humans

Processed meat (Group 1) refers to meat that has been transformed through salting, curing, fermentation, smoking, or other processes

Red meat (Group 2) refers to beef, veal, pork, lamb, mutton, horse, and goat

127
Q

. Dietary factors - promoters:

A
  • there can be a lag time of 10-30 years from initiation; promoters accelerate tumor development
  • excess dietary fat by contributing to obesity
  • omega-6 fatty acids (inflammation is tumor promoter)
  • fat used to deep-fry foods for too long
  • if a fat/oil/food smells off, throw it out
128
Q

Dietary factors - antipromoters:

A
  • high fruits & vegetables and cancer risk
  • fiber protective against colon cancer
  • phytochemicals - cruciferous vegetables
129
Q

Recommendation for reducing cancer risk

A
  • Select foods low in fat and salt
  • limit fatty foods especially of animal origin
  • limit red meat to 3 portions per week
  • modest amount of vegetable oil
  • limit salted foods & table salt (salt-preserved foods damage stomach lining)
  • Prepare foods safely
  • do not eat charred food
  • consume meat/fish grilled in direct flame only occasionally
130
Q
  • HCAs & PAHs
A
  • HCAs & PAHs are chemicals formed when meat, poultry, and fish are cooked at high temperatures (grilling, frying).
  • HCAs are formed when amino acids, sugars, and creatine react.
  • PAHs are formed when fat or juices drip onto a hot surface and cause flames and smoke.
  • Increased cancer risk is associated with high consumption of well-done or overcooked meat.
131
Q

Reducing Carcinogen Formation and why do these tips matter?

A
  • Cooking Tips:
    • Avoid burning food. Remove charred portions.
    • Marinate meats before cooking.
    • Cook meat over high heat, flipping frequently.
    • Trim excess fat before cooking.
    • Use lower temperatures and indirect heat methods (stewing, steaming, poaching).
  • High-temperature cooking (grilling, frying) can produce harmful chemicals like HCAs and PAHs.
  • These chemicals increase the risk of cancer.
  • Following these tips can help reduce your exposure to these harmful chemicals.
132
Q

• Deficiency diseases occur

A

when too little of 1 or more of the 15 essential minerals is provided; overdoses occur when too much is provided

133
Q

Inadequate intakes are associated with

A

chronic disorders like osteoporosis, iron deficiency, and hypertension

134
Q

Key points about minerals

A
  • part of bones teeth and cartilage
  • helps maintain an adequate amount of water in the body
  • Source of electrical power to stimulate muscles to contract and nerves
    • Minerals are components of proteins and enzymes
135
Q

Calcium found in

A

• Milk & milk products
• Fish bones
• Tofu
• Greens (Kale, Bok choy)
• Legumes

136
Q

Calcium is stored in

A

~99% is stored in our bones and teeth
~ 1% is in our blood, muscle and other body fluids

137
Q

Bioavailability of calcium is found in

A
  • Oxalic acid, found in spinach, beets, celery, pecans, peanuts, tea and cocoa, can bind to calcium and form an insoluble complex that is excreted in the feces.
  • Phytates, found in whole grains, legumes, and nuts, can bind to calcium to form an insoluble complex, thereby decreasing the absorption of calcium
138
Q

Yogurt has the highest absorbed % os calcium and the most bioavailable then milk then cheese then broccoli true or false

A

True

139
Q

DRi’s are based on calcium found in

A

the food (e.g. 1000 mg/d for 19-50 year old). Greater consideration needed if all from plant foods.

140
Q

24 cups of spinach is equivalent to — cups of broccoli

A

6 cups

141
Q

What is the calcium needed per day ( age 1-3, 4-8, 9-18, 19-50 and 51+)

A

1-3: 500 mg
4-8: 800 mg
9-18: 1300 mg
19-50: 1000 mg
51 + : 1200 mg

142
Q

What is the refined sugar level in silk vanilla an what is the nutritional value in silk almond and cashew

A
  • 15 g of refined sugar
  • 8 G protein (pea protein) and 6 g sunflower oil
143
Q

Almond milk has the lowest calories then coconut then soy and lastly rice T or F

A

T

144
Q

If insufficient Calcium, Phosphorus or Vitamin D is available, what can develop when does peak bone mass occur and what about menopause

A

osteoporosis can develop
Peak bone mass occurs at approximately 30 yrs of age.
Afterwards, bone loss starts to outpace bone deposition.
At menopause there is a surge of calcium out of the bones.

145
Q

What is the most common type of fracture in women

A

Bone loss and most common types of bone fractures in women
- spinal vertebrae, hip, and wrist or forearm fractures.

146
Q

Risk Factors for Osteoporosis

A

• Female
• Menopause
• Low Ca intake
• White or Asian
• Thinness
• Smoking
• Excessive alcohol
• Inactivity
• Genetic
• Low vitamin D

147
Q

What foods are iron found in

A

• Liver
• Beef
• Prune juice
• Dried fruit
• Beans & lentils
• Cereal
•Cream of wheat
•Oatmeal
•Dry cereal

148
Q

Where is most iron stored and what requires iron to function? Are high amounts of iron toxic?

A

• Most is stored in hemoglobin (oxygen transport protein in red blood cells), small amount in myoglobin (storage/transport of oxygen in muscle cells)
- many enzymes require iron to function
- yes

149
Q

What is enough iron for males and females and how much calories do women have right consume to obtain 15 mg of iron and what is needed so that women get enough iron

A

• Enough iron is 8 mg for males and 18 mg for females per day
• Females have to consume ~2500 calories per day to obtain 15 mg of iron
• Selection of good sources of iron is needed if women are to get enough

150
Q

What is heme vs non heme iron and heme acccounts for about _% of the average daily iron intake but _% of iron absorbed

A

Heme= iron from animal products
Non heme= plant iron

  • 10%
  • 35%
151
Q

Most iron in plants are ——
How to decrease iron absorption
And what does vitamin C do to non heme iron absorption? Is heme iron affected by foods eaten in the same meal?

A

• Most iron in plants is poorly absorbed due to tight binding to oxalate, phytate, tannins…

• Decrease iron absorption:
1. Tea
2. Coffee
3. Calcium & phosphorus
4. Phytates, tannins, & fiber

• Vitamin C can increase non-heme iron absorption and even reverse the inhibiting effect of substances such as tea and calcium/phosphate.
• Heme iron not affected much by other foods/compounds eaten in the same meal

152
Q

What percent of Canadians and worldwide have iron deficiency and what are causes of iron deficiency

A

• About 5% of Canadians but 20-25% worldwide have iron deficiency

• Low intake
• Blood loss through:
- Menstruation
- Injury
- Surgery
- Ulcers
- Blood donation

153
Q

Symptoms of iron deficiency

A

• Exhaustion
• Paleness
• Short attention span
• Irritability
• Susceptibility to infection
• Rapid heart rate

154
Q

In infants and children, iron deficiency anemia may cause

A

irreversible impairments in mental development

155
Q

How many people die of iron overdose and the leading cause of overdose in young children what can increase iron absorption and what does iron toxicity cause (3 things)

A

• 10,000 people overdose per year
• Overdoses of iron supplements are a leading cause of accidental poisoning in young children
• Keep out of reach of children
• Alcohol can increase iron absorption
• Iron toxicity causes liver damage, diabetes and heart failure

156
Q

When foods become more processed what happens to sodium and potassium levels

A
  • potassium is lost and sodium is gained
157
Q

Hypertension leads to ….
What is normal by and what is hypertension known as? People who are overweight have a _x greater risk of having hypertension and lastly the higher the bp the higher your…

A

•Hypertension leads to heart disease, kidney disease, strokes & declines in brain function, poor circulation in legs, sudden death
* Normal BP <120/80
* “Silent killer”
* People with overweight 6x greater risk of having hypertension
* The higher your blood pressure, the higher your risk of health problems. Someone with a blood pressure level of 135/85 is twice as likely to have a heart attack or stroke as someone with a BP of 115/75

158
Q

What are waters functions

A

Functions include
- Maintenance of body hydration and temperature
- Removal of waste products
- Participation in energy formation
- Major source of fluoride

159
Q

What % of adult body is water

A

55-60% is water

160
Q

Daily fluid recommendations

A

• Varies depending on diet, activity, temperature, and humidity
• Adult who expends 2000 kcal/d needs about 7-11 cups/day of fluid

161
Q

Factors that increase water needs

A
  1. Diseases that disturb water balance, such as diabetes
  2. Exercise
  3. Forced air environments, such as airplanes or sealed buildings
  4. Hot weather
  5. Increased dietary fiber, protein, salt or sugar
  6. Drugs & medications (diuretics - alcohol, caffeine)
  7. Pregnancy or breastfeeding
  8. Prolonged diarrhea, vomiting or fever
  9. Surgery, blood loss, or burns
  10. Very young or old age (smaller body mass makes minor changes in hydration more serious; elderly sense of thirst reduced)
162
Q

Fluid losses in heat vs cold and dehydration reduces ability to of what… and what is the relationship between dehydration and exercise

A

Heat = sweat losses of 1-2 L/hr exercising in heat.
Cold = cold induced diuresis (cold-weather-induced need to
urinate) increases fluid loss.
Dehydration reduces ability to dissipate heat causing increased body temperature.

  • Dehydration of 2% or more body weight significantly reduces endurance exercise performance.
163
Q

-5 temperature drop causes how much litres of water lost per hour

A

0.6-1.4 litres

164
Q

+10 degree increase cause how much litres of eater to be lost

A

1.2-1.5

165
Q

How much litres of water is lost with a 20 degree increase in temperature

A

1.6-2.5

166
Q

How much litres of water is lost with a 30 degree increase in temperature

A

2.0-2.8

167
Q

Is Water Toxicity rare and what does high intake lead to…

A

• yes
• High intake leads to:
- Hyponatremia (low blood sodium)
- Swelling of body tissues
- Excessive water accumulation in the brain and lungs
- Confusion, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, seizure, coma, and death

168
Q

Water intoxication has occurred in:

A
  • Endurance athletes who consume too much water
  • Infants given too much water or over-diluted formula
  • Patients with psychiatric disorders taking medications that produce cravings for water
169
Q

Fluid replacement

A

• 500 ml- 2 hours before exercise
• 150-300 ml - every 20 minutes during exercise
• exercise ‹ 60 min water is best replacement
• exercise > 60 min- dilute glucose & electrolyte solutions

170
Q

Fluid Replacement

A
  • Volume: Small, regular intervals to prevent bloating.
  • Temperature: Cool (5-10°C) for better absorption.
  • Composition: 6-10% glucose or sucrose for energy during prolonged exercise.
  • Avoid: High CHO drinks (>10%) as they can cause digestive issues.
171
Q

Mineral water

A

• taken from underground reservoirs between layers of rock. Contains dissolved minerals from the rock.

172
Q

Spring water:

A

• taken from springs that form pools or streams.

173
Q

• Sparkling water:

A

carbonated water (true seltzers are naturally carbonated but sparkling is usually commercial addition of pressurized CO2)

174
Q

True or false Estimated that ~45% of bottled water is (purified) bottled tap water.

A

True

175
Q

What are dietary supplements?

A
  • A: Dietary supplements include vitamins, minerals, herbal remedies, proteins, amino acids, fish oils, probiotics, prebiotics, homeopathic medicines, and traditional medicines. They are referred to as Natural Health Products by Health Canada.
176
Q

Are dietary supplements tested for safety and effectiveness before they are sold?

A
  • A: No, dietary supplements do not have to be proven safe or effective before being sold. Health Canada and the FDA do not conduct vigorous testing.
177
Q

How are dietary supplements regulated?

A
  • A: Natural health products are required to have a Natural Product Number (NPN). Companies must submit documentation for safety, effectiveness, and quality. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Dietary Supplement Verification Program is a voluntary program for manufacturers. Manufacturers can choose to follow a pharmacopoeial standard or their own standard.
178
Q

What should a consumer look for in a supplement?

A
  • A: Supplements should contain the ingredients listed on the label, in the declared potency and amounts. They should not contain harmful levels of contaminants like lead, mercury, microbes, or pesticides. Supplements must break down and release in the body within a specified time and should be manufactured according to FDA’s Good Manufacturing Practices.
179
Q

Who is responsible for making sure supplements are safe?

A
  • A: The responsibility lies with the consumer to be informed.
180
Q

Is it better to get vitamins and minerals from supplements or food?

A
  • A: Food is the preferred source of vitamins and minerals.
181
Q

When might someone benefit from taking vitamins and mineral supplements?

A
  • A: Some individuals may benefit from supplements due to their health status, such as if they are unable to consume, digest, absorb, or make use of some vitamins or minerals. Also, supplements may be helpful in special circumstances, such as pregnancy or excess bleeding when one may need more vitamins and minerals. Lastly, if a person does not receive enough of a specific nutrient through their diet, supplements may be helpful.
182
Q

Are all forms of vitamins equally absorbed by the body?

A
  • A: Natural Vitamin E is more rapidly absorbed and maintained in tissue compared to synthetic forms. However, natural and synthetic Vitamin C have equal potency.
183
Q

How should supplements be taken for optimal absorption?

A
  • A: Multivitamins should be taken with meals. Iron should be taken with a meal or juice and not with tea or coffee; and if anemic, should be taken at a different time than calcium. Calcium carbonate should be taken with a meal, and large doses should be divided.
184
Q

What are some of the benefits of whey protein?

A
  • A: Whey protein may improve sports performance and have antibacterial, antiviral, and antifungal propertie
185
Q

How can creatine benefit athletes?

A
  • A: Creatine can increase the bioavailability of phosphocreatine in muscle cells, leading to faster resynthesis of ATP, which provides fuel for cellular processes, and may be helpful for brief high intensity exercise. Vegetarians may benefit more from creatine supplementation.
186
Q

Is creatine supplementation safe?

A
  • A: Creatine supplementation is considered safe at recommended doses. There’s no compelling scientific evidence that the short or long-term use of creatine has detrimental effects in healthy individuals or clinical populations, according to the International Society of Sports Nutrition (ISSN).
187
Q

What are the benefits of taking Omega-3 supplements?

A
  • A: Omega-3 supplements can be beneficial for heart health, autoimmune diseases, depression, and brain development.
188
Q

Are there any risks with taking Omega-3 supplements?

A
  • A: Yes, very high doses of Omega-3 supplements can cause side effects such as high blood sugar, bleeding, low blood pressure, diarrhea, or acid reflux.
189
Q

Are herbal supplements always safe?

A
  • A: No, many herbal supplements lack well-controlled studies on safety and effectiveness. Some herbs are known to cause liver or kidney damage, or other serious health problems.
190
Q

What are some of the risks with kombucha?

A
  • A: Unpasteurized kombucha can pose risks due to live microbes continuing to ferment, which could cause excess acid and ethanol. It may be particularly risky for toddlers, infants and persons with underlying health conditions.
191
Q

How should herbal supplements be used?

A
  • A: It’s important to advise doctors of all herb use, take herbs only for short periods, follow label instructions, stop use if unusual side effects occur, and not use herbs as a replacement for conventional medicine.
192
Q

Q: Are Probiotics and prebiotics safe?

A
  • A: They are generally safe but might cause digestive symptoms, allergic reactions, or other issues in some individuals.
193
Q

Do experts recommend routine use of supplements?

A
  • A: No expert body recommends routine use of supplements.
194
Q

What are some of the risks associated with supplement use?

A
  • A: Supplements vary substantially in quality, and focusing on them can take attention away from improving lifestyle. Supplements of single nutrients in large doses can be detrimental to health. Taking supplements without professional guidance may be risky.
195
Q

What is a safe dose to take?

A
  • A: It’s important to adhere to the ≤RDA (Recommended Daily Allowance), which is considered safe.
196
Q

What are some problems found in supplement testing?

A
  • A: Some supplements do not contain the ingredients or the potency stated on the label, and others have contained high levels of contaminants.
197
Q

Nutrients interact with ——- and affect —— —— nutrients can turn genes — or —- and ——- —— can compensate for ——- ——

A

• Nutrients interact with gene functions and affect health status. Nutrients can turn genes on or off and nutrient intake can compensate for abnormally functioning genes.

198
Q

• Health problems related to nutrient-gene interactions originate with…

A

Originate with cells

199
Q

• Advances in knowledge of nutrient-gene interactions are

A

dramatically changing nutritional approaches to disease prevention and treatment.

200
Q

What are diseases related to single cell defects - but most diseases are a …

A

Single gene defects
- hundreds of diseases related to single gene defects
* PKU (phenylketonuria)
* cystic fibrosis
* sickle cell anemia
* hemochromatosis

  • combination of multiple genes and environment
201
Q

Polygenic defects

A
  1. Heart disease
    - high cholesterol diets → plaque in some people
    - diets low in folate & vegetables 1 risk
  2. Cancer
    - differs by site
    - endometrial [environment = 90%]
    - stomach [72% environment]
    - prostate [42% environment]
  3. Hypertension
    - salt sensitivity = eating too much salt usually increases
    BP but not in everyone
    - salt sensitive or salt resistant
  4. Obesity
    - Over >250 genes associated with development
202
Q

Celiac disease is what kind of disease and what does it damage what kind of reaction do they have and to what

A

• An autoimmune disease that damages the small intestine
• People with celiac disease have an immune reaction to a protein called gluten
• Gluten is in wheat, barley, and rye
• When people with celiac disease consume gluten, the immune system attacks and destroys the villi

203
Q

Celiac disease occurs in what gene is responsible for how the immune system distinguishes between body proteins and foreign proteins and what about DQ2 or DQ8 and true or false Other factors, beyond genetics, contribute to disease development.

A

• Celiac disease occurs in genetically predisposed people
• HLA genes (human leukocyte antigen)
• Responsible for how the immune system distinguishes between the body’s proteins and foreign proteins
- 99% of people with celiac disease have DQ2 or DQ8 HLA genes.
- 60% of people with non-celiac gluten sensitivity have DQ2 or DQ8 HLA genes.
- However, 30% of the general population also has these genes.

  • TRUE
204
Q

Symptoms of celiac

A
  • headache
  • fatigue
  • abdominal pain and bloating after consuming gluten
  • diarrhea
  • constipation
205
Q

What percent of the population is affected with celiac disease and what is the chances yo will develop the disease if a family member has it

A

In Canada, about 1% of population is affected
- Genetic component: if a 1st degree relative has celiac disease, 1 in 10 chance family member will develop it

206
Q

Do many people go undiagnosed with celiac and what does testing involve and what is it misdiagnosed as

A

Yes
- Blood test: TG-IgA (tissue transglutaminase antibodies)
**must be on gluten-containing diet
- Small intestine biopsy
- Genetic screening

• Commonly misdiagnosed as:
- IBS (irritable bowel syndrome)
- Crohn’s disease

207
Q

Non celiac gluten sensitivity develop symptoms when.. are they considered to have celiac disease are there biomarkers for diagnosis and what about the autoantibodies and villous atrophy?

A

Develop symptoms when they consume gluten-containing foods and feel better on a gluten-free diet but do NOT have celiac disease.

  • There are no biomarkers for diagnosis
  • Autoantibodies (TTG, EMA, DGP) are absent
  • There is no villous atrophy (although newer work suggests there may be intestinal damage)
208
Q

Non celiac gluten sensitivity

A

Other compounds in wheat, barley and rye may trigger symptoms (e.g. proteins called amylase/trypsin inhibitors or fermentable carbohydrates).

209
Q
  • Accurate Celiac Disease Diagnosis importance and cautions
A
  • Importance of Diagnosis:
    • Ensures proper treatment and dietary management.
    • Prevents long-term complications of undiagnosed celiac disease.
  • Caution:
    • Self-diagnosis and gluten-free diets without medical guidance can be risky.
    • Consult a healthcare professional for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
210
Q

Nutrigenetics what is it the study of and what does it play a role in

A

• The study of how genes and diet interact to increase or decrease someone’s risk for disease
• Gene x Environment interactions
• Play a role in “personalized nutrition”

211
Q

III. Food selection

A
  • food preferences largely learned
  • 80 genes that help taste bitter foods
  • some are highly sensitive
  • vegetables taste bitter → eat less
212
Q

The future of diet

A

Tailored dietary plans based on individual genetic makeup, gut microbiome, and other factors.
Improved health outcomes and disease prevention.

213
Q

Fitness depends primarily on

A

muscular strength, endurance, and flexibility

214
Q

Physical fitness can be achieved by

A

• resistance training, aerobic exercises, and stretching

215
Q

• The fitness level of most Canadians and Americans is poor (True or False)

A

True

216
Q

• Endurance is affected by

A

genetics, training, and nutrition

217
Q

• Intense physical activity is primarily fueled by

A

glucose, and fats are the main energy source of energy for low- to moderate-intensity exercise

218
Q

A few ergogenic aids that claim to improve performance work to some extent, but

A

most do not

219
Q

Physical activity guidelines

A

ADULTS:
150 min. of moderate to vigorous physical activity per week
(bouts of 10 min. or more)
2 sessions of strength-training per week
CHILDREN:
60 min. of moderate to vigorous physical activity everyday
-vigorous at least 3 days per week
-activities that strengthen muscle and bone 3 days per week

220
Q

Fuel sources at rest and during exercise

A

At rest
- 85% fat
- 10% CHO
- 5% from protein

During Exercise
1. Muscle glycogen
2. Blood glucose
3. Plasma fatty acids
4. intramuscular triglycerides

221
Q

Extent of contribution of fuel sources when in exercise depends on:

A
  1. Intensity & duration of exercise
  2. Level of exercise training
  3. Initial muscle glycogen stores
  4. Supplementation with CHO during exercise
222
Q
  • Energy Systems
A
  • ATP-Phosphocreatine System: Immediate energy for short, explosive activities (up to 10 seconds).
  • Lactic Acid System: Anaerobic energy for intense activities lasting up to 2 minutes.
  • Oxygen System: Aerobic energy for low to moderate intensity exercise lasting longer than 2 minutes. Glycogen is the primary fuel source for the first 20 minutes, then fat becomes increasingly important.
223
Q

Fatigue “ hitting the wall” `
Causes, symptoms and carb intake

A
  • Causes:
    • Depletion of muscle and liver glycogen stores
  • Symptoms:
    • Extreme fatigue
    • Inability to maintain current activity level
    • Increased perception of effort
  • Carbohydrate Intake:
    • Some carbohydrate is needed for fat metabolism.
    • Water and glucose ingestion can prolong exercise, but severe limitations exist.
224
Q
  • Carbohydrate Needs for Exercise
A
  • Daily Carbohydrate Intake:
    • Light: 3-5 g/kg body weight
    • Moderate: 5-7 g/kg body weight
    • High: 6-10 g/kg body weight
    • Very High: 8-12 g/kg body weight
  • Note: Adjust intake based on individual needs, training intensity, and duration.
225
Q

When is the best timing for protein intake for increase in strength and muscle mass

A

immediate post exercise

226
Q
  • Protein Intake and Muscle Gain
A
  • Consuming more than 1.62 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day does not significantly increase muscle mass or strength.
    • However, the exact optimal intake range is uncertain and may vary between individuals.
227
Q
  • Pre-Competition Nutrition goals and strategies and the meal itself
A
  • Goals:
    • Maximize muscle and liver glycogen stores.
    • Avoid GI distress, hunger, and fatigue.
    • Ensure adequate blood glucose and hydration.
  • Strategy:
    • Consume a pre-competition meal that is easily digestible and provides sufficient carbohydrates.
    • Time the meal to allow for adequate digestion before the event.

Pre-Competition Meal:
* 3-4 hours before:
* Solid meal rich in carbohydrates, low in fiber, fat, and protein
* Avoid gas-producing foods
* <1 hour before:
* Small meal or liquid with 25-30g of carbohydrates
* Even with potential “rebound hypoglycemia,” performance is not significantly impacted.

228
Q

Pre exercise nutrition 1-4 hours before exercise

A

•Peanut butter and honey on crackers
•Fruit and yogurt smoothie
• Low-fat cottage cheese
• Yogurt + granola + fruit
•Chicken on a whole-wheat bun

229
Q

Foods to consume 30-60 mins before exercise

A

•A piece of fruit
•Whole grain crackers
•Sports gel, sports bar
•Fruit puree pouch like applesauce

230
Q
  • Sports Bars
A
  • Can be energy-rich or protein-rich
  • No magical qualities, but convenient
  • Can be used as a substitute for a pre-competition meal, but not long-term to replace healthy eating patterns.
231
Q

Is eating during comp needed and what is the functions of cho and water

A
  • nah but depends on the event
  • CHO is additional energy supply
  • water serves for temperature regulation
232
Q
  • Eating During Competition within
    Endurance Sports:
A
  • <30 minutes: Not needed
  • 30-75 minutes: Small amounts, including mouth rinse
  • 1-2 hours: Up to 30g/hour
  • 2-3 hours: Up to 60g/hour
  • >2.5 hours: Up to 90g/hour (multiple transportable CHO)

Team Sports:

  • >1 hour: 30-60g/hour
233
Q

True or false endurance sport need complex CHO in daily diet

A

True

234
Q

How does post exercise simple sugars help post competition ,,,,,In general, balanced diet will

A

-Immediately post-exercise simple sugars help restore muscle glycogen and adding some protein may enhance storage (ratio of 3:1)
• In general, balanced diet will restore nutritional status after hard physical training

235
Q

Resistance training focuses on protein true or false

A

True

236
Q

Children can and should regulate how much they eat True or false

A

True

237
Q

Children growth and weight are a marker of their … poor growth often due to —- or ——- and childhood obesity is associated with ———

A

• Marker of their general nutrition and physical health
• Poor growth often due to undernutrition or prolonged disease.
• Childhood obesity associated with a higher chance of obesity, premature death, and disability in adulthood.

238
Q
  • Satiety responsiveness
A

responsiveness to internal satiety cues haw well do you listen to your hunger que!

239
Q
  • Food responsiveness
A
  • responsiveness towards external food cues, including the smell and taste of foods
240
Q

Parents decide what —— of food their child is offered and its child’s decision on ——-

A

Types

How much to eat

241
Q

We are already born with mechanisms to regulate how much a child should eat what is it called

A

Satiation/satiety

242
Q

Often children are trained to —- -the internal satiety cues and soon they become ——- and less likely to ———- ———- ———

A
  • override
  • Dampened
  • regulate body weight appropriately
243
Q

Should you reward or punish children with foods

A

No

244
Q

Food likes and dislikes are ———- and shaped by ———- humans are born with ——- children usually do not initially like ——-

A
  • learned
  • shaped by the environment
  • caution toward new foods
  • strong flavoured vegetables, spicy foods or mixed foods
245
Q

• Parents have to offer new food many times - sometimes child will like it and other times the food has to be re-introduced multiple times true or false

A

True

246
Q

• Prohibiting intake of foods strengthens interest in

A

the banned food and boosts consumption later bans cause overconsumption of fast food

247
Q

What to do with picky eaters

A

• Make one family meal
- Do not offer your child other options or their favorite foods if he/she refuses the family meal.
• Make sure your child comes to the table hungry
• Avoid distractions like toys and television
• Eat meals at the table as a family.
- Do not offer food while your child is playing, watching television, or walking around.

248
Q

• Frequent fast food may lead to chronic diseases due to excess fat & salt, and lack of fruits, vegetables & whole grains. true or false
• Feeding your child fast food influences
And what should you teach children abt fast food

A

True

  • lifelong food preferences.
  • Teach moderation
249
Q

WHO growth chart shows what

A

For girls and boys from 2 to 19 years of age to compare with norms
[Answer]
• Growth charts consist of graphs of:
- Weight for age
- Height for age

250
Q
  • BMI Percentiles
A
  • BMI Percentiles:
    • Below 5th percentile: Underweight
    • Above 85th percentile: Overweight
    • Above 95th percentile: Obese
251
Q
  • Adolescent Growth Spurt
A
  • Characteristics:
    • Increased hunger and food intake
    • Rapid increase in height and body fat
    • Followed by a period of decreased hunger and food intake
    • This pattern repeats at the start of the next growth spurt
  • Timing:
    • Girls: 10-15 years
    • Boys: 12-17 years
    • Age of onset varies
252
Q

Timing of growth spurt guys vs girls, peak growth, overall gain and factors affecting height

A
  • timing
    • Girls: 10-15 years
    • Boys: 12-17 years
  • Peak Growth:
    • Girls: 8 kg/year
    • Boys: 9 kg/year
  • Overall Gain:
    • 50% of adult weight
    • 25% of adult height
    • 45% of adult bone mass
  • Factors Affecting Height:
    • Genetics
    • Nutrition (strongest non-genetic factor)
    • Health status
    • Environmental factors
253
Q

What is the strongest non genetic factor influencing height so do people grow taller in developed countries and what supports growth in height

A

• Nutrition is the strongest non-genetic factor influencing height
• yes
• Good nutrition during pregnancy, and child diet during the growing years, exercise, and freedom from illness support growth in height