Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the disordered eating spectrum

A
  • goes from healthy body image to disordered eating to eating disorder
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2
Q

What is involved in healthy body image of the disordered eating spectrum

A
  • body acceptance
  • healthy normal eating habits
  • healthy weight for age, height and body type
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3
Q

What is involved in the disordered eating portion of the disordered eating spectrum

A
  • restricting
  • purging
  • weight and shape preoccupation
  • steroid use
  • striving for perfection
  • fasting
  • yo-yo dieting
  • laxative abuse
  • compulsive over eating
  • excessive exercise
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4
Q

What is involved in eating disorder

A
  • anorexia nervosa
  • bullimia nervosa
  • binge eating disorder
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5
Q

What affects the development of eating disorder

A

-genetic, social, psychological
- family (history of dieting/eating orders), ( history of depression anxiety, alcohol dependence), ( history of obesity)
-individual (female gender, genetics, premature birth, perfectionism,early puberty)
-Possible triggers and maintaining factors
(Puberty, sociocultural pressures, family factors, comments about weight)

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6
Q

Risk factors for eating disorders

A

-biological
-psychological
-social

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7
Q

What is involved with the biological risk factors of eating disorders

A
  • close relative with eating disorder or mental health condition, history of dieting, low energy availability. (Insufficient consumption, type 1 diabetes
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8
Q

Psychological factors

A
  • perfectionism, cognitive inflexibility, impulsivity, body mage dissatisfaction, personal history of mental health condition or substance use disorder
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9
Q

Social risk factors for eating disorders

A

-weight stigma, teasing/bullying, limited social networks, personal experience of trauma, acculturation (those from another culture undergoing rapid westernization)

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10
Q

Clinical diagnosis of anorexia

A
  • restriction of energy intake leading to significant low body weight
  • intense fear of gaining weight
  • disturbance in body weight
  • restricting avoidant
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11
Q

Features of anorexia

A
  • individuals with anorexia nervosa typically severely restrict their food intake and may exercise intensely
  • some turn to self induced vomiting after eating (or misuse of laxatives, diuretics or enemas)
  • family members and friends often report high levels of anxiety
  • people with anorexia are often model students or ideal children but in their personal lives may experience low self esteem, social isolation and unhappiness
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12
Q

Physical consequences of anorexia

A
  • anemia (low intake of iron, type of anemia)
  • low bone density (because of restricted calories)
  • depression
  • amenorrhea, absence of menstruation
  • impaired immune response
  • sensitivity to cold, low insulation, low cold tolerance
  • low blood pressure
  • irregular slow heart rate, loss of muscle tissue
  • soft, thick facial hair, thinning scalp hair due to deficiencies in vitamins and minerals
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13
Q

How common is anorexia

A

-approximately 1% of young women and less than 0.1% of young men have anorexia nervosa
- reported in girls as young as five and women through their forties
- begins during adolescence
- people at risk tend to be overly concerned about weight and food and many attempted weight loss/dieted early

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14
Q

Treatment of anorexia

A
  • no treatment that cures anoxia nervosa quickly
  • takes a good deal of time and professional help to treat (often years). Ongoing therapy is important for continued recovery
  • treating the disorder difficult because few with anorexia believe their weight needs to be increased
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15
Q

Treatment program focus on

A
  • normalizing eating and exercise behaviours
  • nutritional health and body weight
  • psychological counselling for self-esteem
  • attitudes about body weight and shape
  • antidepressant or other medications
  • family therapy
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16
Q

Compete success in —-% (depending on the study) and partially successful in others

A

25%-50%

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17
Q

Clinical diagnosis of bulimia nervosa and characterized by what—-

A
  • recurrent episodes of binge eating, an episode of binge eating is characterized by both eating within any 2 hour period and amount of food that is definitely larger than what most people would eat in a similar period of time under similar circumstances and a feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what or how much one is eating
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18
Q

Bulimia nervosa; recurrent inappropriate..

A

recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain such as self induced vomittng, misuse of laxatives, diuretics or other medications, fasting, or excessive exercise.

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19
Q

The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occur…

A

On average at least once a week for 3 months

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20
Q

(Bulimia nervosa) is unduly influenced by —- and ——-

A

Body shape and weight

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21
Q

Bulimia nervosa occurs in —-% of young women and ——% of young men

A

1-3% of young women and 0.5% of young men

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22
Q

Bulimia often starts with ——

A

Voluntary dieting to lose weight and at some point voluntary control over dieting is lost

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23
Q

Individuals with bulimia nervosa feel compelled to

A

Engage in binge eating and vomiting

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24
Q

The behaviours of bulimia become

A

Cyclic, food binges that are followed by guilt and or depression as well as purging and dieting

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25
Q

True or false once a food binge starts its hard to stop

A

True

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26
Q

Features of bulimia nervosa

A
  • unlike those with anorexia nervosa people with bulimia usually are not underweight or emaciated
    -tend to be normal weight or over weight
  • common among athletes
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27
Q

Treatment of bulimia

A
  • nutrition and counselling to break feast/famine cycles
  • eating regular meals
  • psychological counselling to improve self esteem and attitudes towards body weight and shape
  • antidepressants may be useful
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28
Q

Full recovery of women with bulimia is ——

A

Full recovery of women is higher than for anorexia

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29
Q

Most women with bulimia

A

Achieve partial recovery

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30
Q

What is the ratio of people that relapse to binging and purging within seven years

A

1/3

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31
Q

binge eating episodes associated with 3 or more of the following

A
  1. Eating much more rapidly than normal
  2. Eating until uncomfortably full
  3. Eating large amounts when not physically hungry
  4. Eating alone because of feeling embarrassed by how much one is eating
  5. Feeling disgusted with self, depressed or very guilty after overeating
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32
Q

How often should a binge eating episodes occur on average to be considered a binge eating disorder

A

At least once a week for 3 months

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33
Q

Individuals are likely to be ——— (binge eating disorder)

A

Overweight or obese

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34
Q

T or F people affected with binge eating disorder are 1/3 men

A

True

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35
Q

Binge eating disorder

A
  • individuals eat several thousand calories worth of food during a solitary binge (within 2 hours),
  • feel a lack of control over the binges and experience distress or depression after the binges occur
  • people with binge eating disorder do not vomit use laxatives, exercise excessively in an attempt to control weight gain basically there is no compensatory behaviour
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36
Q

———% of people in weight control programs and ——% of individuals with obesity have binge eating disorder

A

9-30% and 30-90%

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37
Q

How much of the general population have a binge eating disorder

A

2-5%

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38
Q

What prompts binge episodes

A
  • stress, depression, anger, anxiety and other negative emotions prompt episodes
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39
Q

Binge eating disorder may be related to

A

Genetic mutation that impairs normal eating behaviour
( MC4R gene mutation in 5% of individuals with the disorder)

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40
Q

Binge eating disorder treatment

A
  • focuses on disordered eating and underlying psychological issues
  • persons will be asked to record food intake and note feelings, circumstances and thoughts related to each eating event (this information identifies circumstances that prompt binge eating and alternative behaviors to prevent it “what triggers a binge”
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41
Q

Does pica come from the Latin word for magpie

A

YES

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42
Q

Pica

A
  • unusual eating habits (eating things that aren’t food)
  • clay or dirt (geophagia)
  • ice cubes (pagophagia, case study of 10kg)
  • charcoal,ash, paper, chalk,cloth, baby powder, coffee grounds and egg shells
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43
Q

What 2 populations are most affected by pica

A
  1. Children
  2. Pregnant women
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44
Q

Link between pagophagia and

A

iron deficiency anemia is a medical mystery but treating the deficiency reduces pagophagia

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45
Q

Eating disorder resources

A
  • services delievered by health care, specializing and experiences
  • primary care physician,dietician or nurse practitioner is a good start to the process
  • reliable sources for help, support groups include but not exclusive to ahs, su wellness, eating disorders support of Alberta
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46
Q

Pica can result in nutritional deficiencies and intestinal blockages T or F

A

True

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47
Q

Simple sugars complex CHO and ——— are members of what family

A

Dietary fibre are members of the CHO family

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48
Q

Sugars and starchy complex CHO supply ———

A

Fewer than half the calories of fat

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49
Q

Tooth decay and poor quality diets are related to

A

High sugar intake

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50
Q

Fiber benefits health in a number of ways True or False

A

True

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51
Q

When in an ingredient list if enriched wheat flour is it actually whole wheat

A

No it is simply enriched white flour, need to indicate whole wheat or whole grain in order to be seen as whole wheat

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52
Q

Type of carbohydrates

A
  • simple (absorbed quickly will cause an increase in blood glucose, insulin resistance and inflammation in body)
  • complex
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53
Q

What are the 2 types of simple sugars

A
  1. Monosaccharides
    - glucose (blood sugar or dextrose), fructose (fruit sugar), galactose
    - most abundant and nutritionally relevant is glucose
    - only monosaccharides are absorbed into bloodstream
  2. Disaccharides
    - two monosaccharides joined by a covalent bond
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54
Q

What is the health risk of simple sugars

A
  • rapidly absorbed into blood stream, increased insulin resistance and inflammation
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55
Q

What are examples of disaccharides

A
  • sucrose; cane sugar, beet sugar widely used as a natural sweetener (glucose + fructose)
  • maltose; formed from the partial breakdown of starch and is often used in malt beverages ( beer= malted barley= formation of maltose, bacteria ferment the maltose and make alcohol)
    Glucose + Glucose
  • lactose; milk sugar one of the only anima; sugars besides glucose (glucose + galactose)
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56
Q

Complex carbohydrates

A
  • oligosaccharides ( 3 monosaccharide unit)
    Short chains of monosaccharides joined by bonds that cannot be broken by human enzymes
    They are a fiber source
    Fructans and galacto-oligosaccharides
    Garlic, onions, wheat, artichokes, beans, lentils, chickpeas and inulin (prebiotic)
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57
Q

3 primary nutritional polysaccharides

A
  1. Starch- energy storage in plants (digestible)
  2. Glycogen- energy storage in plants (digestible)
  3. Cellulose- provide structure in plants (non digestible)
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58
Q

Starch and glycogen are —- = ———

A

Digestible since they are glucose polymers bonded with a glycosidic bonds that can be broken down by enzymes

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59
Q

Cellulose is ——— = ——

A

Non- digestible because they are connected via beta glycosidic bonds that can not be broken down by human enzymes

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60
Q

Fibre is important to our health because of what happens to ——-

A

It in the colon

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61
Q

What happens in the colon

A

Bacterial enzymes can break down fibre to form short chain fatty acids and gas as a byproduct

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62
Q

Fibre feeds our gut microbiota (true or false)

A

True

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63
Q

Gut health impacts

A

Brain- known as the brain-gut axis poor gut health linked with anxiety, depression, autism and Parkinson’s disease
Intestinal disease- poor gut health associated wth inflammatory bowel disease, crohns, ulcerative colitis and IBS
Metabolism- known as the microbiota-liver axis associated with obesity, type 2 diabetes and fatty liver disease
Pathogens- overgrowth of bacteria can cause infections like Clostridium difficile leading to diarrhea

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64
Q

High fibre whole natural foods related to gut microbiota

A
  • promote microbiota symbiosis
  • consists of fruits, vegetables, grains and food high in fiber
  • leads to improved gut health and prevents chronic diseases
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65
Q

Processed foods and low fibre related o gut microbiota

A
  • promotes microbiota dysbiosis (unhealthy gut balance)
  • sugary, fatty, processed foods dominate this diet
  • this increases the risk of chronic diseases like obesity, diabetes and heart disease
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66
Q

Can processed foods actually be good for us and what about ultraprocessed

A

Yes processed food like whole grain pasta with only a few ingredients is healthy for us but something like ultra processed food like sugary cereal that has been significantly changed from its original state with salt, sugars farm additives, preservatives and or artificial colours are added are unhealthy

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67
Q

In a grain of wheat the outer bran layer is a rich source of dietary fiber true or false

A

True

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68
Q

The germ contains ————

A

Protein, unsaturated fats, thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, iron and other nutrients

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69
Q

What is removed when making white flour and in what process

A

Bran and germ, the refining process

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70
Q

The endosperm contains ——- which is the energy—— of glucose in plants is this white flour

A

Starch, storage form of glucose in plants
This is white flour

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71
Q

Soluble fiber is good because —- and it slows down —-thereby lowering —- and reduces ——

A

It benefits health in several ways

Slows down glucose absorption thereby lowering peak blood levels of glucose and reduces fat and cholesterol absorption

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72
Q

Soluble fibre found in

A

Oats (beta glucan), barley, fruit pulp, peas, beans citrus, psyllium,

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73
Q

Does soluble fibre have lower calories than digestible carbohydrates

A

Yes

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74
Q

What are the health benefits of insoluble fibre

A
  • moves bulk through gut controls gut PH, removes toxic waste and prevents constipation
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75
Q

What are examples of insoluble fiber

A
  • fond in vegetables, wheat bran, whole grains, flax seed, popcorn, corn bran, seeds, nuts and apple peel
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76
Q

Macronutrient effects on blood glucose

A
  1. Blood glucose rises when you eat
  2. High blood glucose stimulates pancreas to release insulin
  3. Insulin stimulates uptake of glucose into cells and storage as glycogen in liver and muscle, it helps convert excess glucose into fat stores
  4. As body cells use glucose, blood levels decline
  5. Low blood glucose stimulates pancreas to release glucagon
  6. Glucagon stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into blood
  7. Blood glucose begins to rise
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77
Q

major sources of simple sugars in most diets are added during processing of food aka

A

Added sugars

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78
Q

( relating to sugars) labels contain —-

A

Information on total sugars per serving but do not distinguish between naturally occurring and added sugars yet

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79
Q

True or false added sugars add calories without adding nutrients ( fructose, sugars, dextrose)

A

True

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80
Q

What are examples of sugars % daily value for common food item

A

Less than 15% daily value of sugars include milk, plain yogurt, canned fruit in water, unsweetened frozen fruit, unsweetened oat cereal compared to over 15% daily value like chocolate milk, flavoured yogurt canned fruit in syrup, frosted oat cereal

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81
Q

Within nutritional labels do they group together the sugars

A

Yes

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82
Q

What is the bad side of sugar

A
  • tooth decay
  • empty calories (calories without nutrients)
  • often mixed with fats, limit sweet and sticky foods, replace them with vegetables and fruits , overall quality of diet decreased when sugar intake increases
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83
Q

Non nutritive sweeteners

A

Zero or low calorie sweetener that are either artificially synthesized or naturally derived

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84
Q

Anything with the claim of reduced sugar foods contains

A

Contains artificial sweeteners

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85
Q

Sugar intake recommendations

A
  • no more than 100 calories per day (about 6 teaspoons or 24 grams) for women
  • no more than 150 calories per day ( about 9 teaspoons or 36 grams) for men
  • for children ages 2-18 less than 24 grams per day and sugary beverages limited to no more than 8 ounces a week
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86
Q

No more than —% total calories per day from added sugars and ideally less than -% for an average 2000 calories —% is about —grams or — teaspoons of added sugars)

A

10%

5%

10%

48

12

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87
Q

One can of soft drink has how many teaspoons of sugar

A

10

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88
Q

Is their a correlation between obesity and artificial sweeteners

A

Yes

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89
Q

When saccharine, sucralose and aspartame was given to mice

A
  • mice with the artificial sweeteners affected their microbiota causing a poor glucose response when transplanting the microbiota of the affected mouse caused a increase in glucose intolerance
  • note that this happened to the responders of artificial sweeteners not nonresponders
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90
Q

Those who received saccharine and sucralose had an elevated blood glucose true or false

A

True

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91
Q

When a mom consuming artificial sweeteners during pregnancy —

A

Affect the microbiota of baby

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92
Q

Alcohol sugars (3 kinds)

A
  • xylitol
  • mannitol
  • sorbitol
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93
Q

What are alcohol sugars used in

A

Chewing gum, other candies and foods can be used to mask the unpleasant aftertaste of some artificial sweeteners

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94
Q

Are alcohol sugars absorbed in the gut

A

Not really large amounts can cause diarrhea

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95
Q

Stevia

A

Herbal alternative, GRAS, initial studies reported that crude whole leave extract of stevia results in reproductive, renal and cardiovascular toxicity but purified stevia side show no toxic effects
In 2012 health Canada approved its use

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96
Q

Aspartame

A
  • A dipeptide (aspartic acid and phenylalanine)
  • Digestion released methanol (10%) aspartic acid (40%) and phenylalanine (50%)
  • Methanol converted to formaldehyde and then formic acid
  • 200 times sweetener than sucrose (sugar)
  • products containing it bear a “contains phenylalanine” label for people with PKU (phenylketonuria)
  • nutrasweet and equal
  • acceptable daily intake 40 mg/kg BW
  • not compatible with high temperatures
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97
Q

Sucralose

A
  • made from sugar= chlorinated sugar
  • 600x sweeter than sugar
  • safe when heated
  • Splenda
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98
Q

Acesulfame K

A
  • often used in combination with artificial sweeteners
  • stable at high temperatures
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99
Q

Saccharine

A
  • discovered in 1879 by accident by chemist working on coal tar derivatives
  • 300x sweeter than sucrose
  • banned I Canada in 1977 due to bladder cancer fears, returned to market once it was discovered the mechanism by which it caused cancer in rats is not present in humans
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100
Q

WHO suggest that non sugar sweeteners ——

A
  • Not be used as a means to achieve weight control or reduce the risk of noncommunicable diseases, with the exception of people with diabetes so children, adults, pregnant etc.
  • not a homogenous class of compounds each has a unique chemical structure
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101
Q

Mechanism of tooth decay

A
  • sugar is sole food for bacteria -> produce acid
  • bacteria form is sticky white plaque
  • acid is produces by bacteria for 20 min after sugar is eaten
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102
Q

Promoters of tooth decay

A
  • increased frequency of sticky foods
  • acidic beverages
  • excessive cleaning/polishing of tooth
  • nursing bottle syndrome
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103
Q

Protective foods

A
  • cheese (increase pH of plaque- decrease acidity)
  • protein (either calcium i strengthens enamel)
  • low calorie sweeteners (sorbitol, mannitol and xylitol all stimulate saliva)
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104
Q

What does fluoride and dental health do in aid of preventing tooth decay

A
  • promote remineralization of eroded enamel
  • water, toothpastes,dental rinses
  • excess leads to fluorosis or mottled enamel during tooth development
  • cosmetic condition that can only form in children under 8 years when permanent teeth are developing
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105
Q

Diabetes is related to

A

abnormal utilization of glucose by the body

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106
Q

What are the three main forms of diabetes are

A
  1. Type 1
  2. Type 2
  3. gestational diabetes
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107
Q

Rates of type 2 diabetes ——

A

Increase as obesity does

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108
Q

Weight loss and physical activity can

A

Prevent or delay the onset of type 2 diabetes in many people

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109
Q

Gestational diabetes

A

Only during pregnancy

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110
Q

Type 1 diabetes

A
  • typically diagnosed before 40, abruptly
  • treatment is with insulin, diet and exercise
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111
Q

Type 2 diabetes

A
  • lifestyle related
  • treatment is weight reduction and medications
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112
Q

Poorly controlled, untreated diabetes produces

A
  • blurred vision
  • frequent urination
  • weight loss
  • increased susceptibility to infection n
  • slow healing sores
  • extreme hunger and thirst
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113
Q

Long term, poorly controlled diabetes may cause

A
  • heart disease and stroke
  • kidney damage (nephropathy)
  • blindness (retinopathy)
  • nerve damage (neuropathy)
  • loss of limbs due to poor circulation
  • Alzheimer’s disease
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114
Q

Gestational diabetes

A
  • resistance to insulin that develops during pregnancy
  • 5-6% of women develop gestational diabetes
  • certain people have greater risk including women over 35 years, women with obesity and women from a high risk group (African, Arab, Asian, Hispanic, Indigenous or South Asian)
  • control blood glucose levels with an individualized diet and exercise plan
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115
Q

Gestational Diabetes leads to high blood glucose levels in mother lead to extra glucose to baby, baby gains extra weight known as

A

Macrosomia (large baby more than 4kg)

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116
Q

infants of women with diabetes may have increased

A

body fat at birth and have blood glucose problems after delivery
- such as a reader risk for diabetes later in life
- 6-20% will have a physical abnormality that may threaten survival or a high quality of life ( exp, heart defects, cleft palate or club foot)

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117
Q

True or false some women require daily insulin injections for blood glucose control for pregnant women

A

True

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118
Q

Gestational diabetes disappears after delivery but type 2 diabetes may appear later in life in the mom TRUE or FALSE

A

true

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119
Q

Exercise, maintenance if normal weight and a healthy diet reduce the risk the diabetes will return true or false

A

True

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120
Q

Type 1 diabetes

A

Deficiency of insulin, autoimmune disease that destroys pancreatic beta cells that produce insulin

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121
Q

Type 1 diabetes accounts

A

Accounts for about 5-10% of all diabetes and is increasing yearly

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122
Q

Diagnosis of type 1 peaks around what ages and usually occurs before

A

11-12 and usually occurs before 40

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123
Q

Breastfeeding for —-

A

The first 4 months may protect infants against type 1 diabetes

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124
Q

Environmental factors play a

A

Role in triggering type 1 diabetes, candidates have included early exposure to cow milk proteins, vitamin D deficiency, early exposure to gluten, certain viruses (rubella, rotavirus, gut microbiota)

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125
Q

Managing type 1 diabetes

A
  • insulin (injections, pump,Islet transplant)
  • diet
  • exercise
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126
Q

Glycemic index

A
  • foods that elevate blood glucose require more insulin to move glucose into cells
  • foods that affect blood glucose are given a glycemic index value
    (Blood glucose elevation caused by 50 grams of a food, compared to the elevation caused by eating 50 grams of glucose)
  • low glycemic index foods decrease blood triglyceride levels and insulin requirements in type 2 diabetes
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127
Q

Potato and glucose have a high GI true or false

A

True

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128
Q

What has the highest GI

A

French bread at 95 which is almost equivalent to pure glucose 100

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129
Q

What is Rice Krispies GI

A

82

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130
Q

Al bran glycemic index

A

42

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131
Q

What is sticky rice GI

A

86

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132
Q

Yogurts GI

A

31

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133
Q

Milks GI

A

25

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134
Q

Hummus GI

A

6

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135
Q

Elevated fasting blood glucose levels before the cut off point used to diagnose type 2 diabetes is and a sign of what

A

6.1-6.9
Prediabetes

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136
Q

Prediabetes is a

A

Major risk factor for type 2 diabetes

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137
Q

What are the common risk factors for insulin resistance

A
  1. Obesity
  2. Low levels of PA
  3. Genetics
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138
Q

When blood glucose levels become high ——-

A

The pancreas secretes more insulin to keep glucose levels under control

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139
Q

Pancreas becomes exhausted from over work and

A

And insulin production slows or stops

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140
Q

When fasting blood glucose levels reach ——— type 2 diabetes is developed

A

7 mol/l or higher type 2 diabetes has developed

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141
Q

Type 2 diabetes occurs in and is most common in it also has a

A
  • Individuals with over weight or obese and a sedentary lifestyle
  • most common in people over 40 but increasingly seen in young children and obesity
  • strong genetic component
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142
Q

Type 2 diabetes runs in

A
  • run in families (black, Hispanic, indigenous and Asian)
  • associated with apple obesity
  • individuals with type 2 diabetes are insulin resistant
  • type 2 diabetes can be managed with diet and exercise most of the time
  • if not there are 8 different classes of diabetes medications that can be prescribed to manage diabetes
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143
Q

Managing type 2 diabetes

A
  • weight loss alone significantly improves blood glucose control
  • proper diets are crucial (complex carbs whole grains high fibre, vegetables and fats low glycemic foods)
  • healthy fats
  • regular meals and snacks
  • protein every meal, particularly at bedtime
144
Q

Alcohol is both a food and a drug and can have positive and negative effects on health true or false

A

True

145
Q

Alcohol is produced from

A

Carbohydrates

146
Q

Alcohol abuse is harmful and is also associated

A

with violence and accidents

147
Q

Why is alcohol a food

A

Because it is made from carbohydrates

148
Q

Why is alcohol seen as a drug

A

Because it modifies various body functions

149
Q

Alcohol forms when —-

A

Yeast ferments sugars in different foods

150
Q

What are the examples of alcohol

A
  • wine; sugar in grapes
  • beer; sugar in malted barley
  • cider; sugar in apples
  • vodka; sugar in potato’s
151
Q

At a low dose alcohol acts as a

A

Stimulant, increased talkatiaveness

152
Q

Alcohol At a high dose

A

Depresses the central nervous system (drowsiness and respiratory depression)

153
Q

What is the percentage of different kinds of alcohol

A
  • beer (4-6%) in a 355 ml can
  • wine (8-14%) over half a cup 148ml
  • distilled liquor (around 40%) in a 44ml shot
154
Q

Alcohol in the body

A
  • requires no digestion
  • 10% absorbed directly across empty stomach wall
  • reach brain in 1 minute
155
Q

What is the standard drinks per day that could be healthy

A

(1 in women and 2 in men)

156
Q

Positive effects of alcohol

A
  • moderate consumption may protect from heart disease in men over 45 and women over 55
  • increases the high density of lipoprotein, the good cholesterol
  • may protect against type 2 diabetes (in non diabetics) and ischemic stoke; blockage on the blood vessel of the brain, cutting off blood supply resulting in a stroke (but not hemorrhagic, brain bleeding)
  • red wines pigments act as an antioxidant and inhibit blood clot formation (purple grape juice has the same pigments
  • may decrease the ability of LDL cholesterol to stick to plaques in the arteries
157
Q

Negative effects of heavy drinking

A
  • heavy drinking; consuming over 5 drinks a day, threatens drinkers health and those of others
  • alcoholism; chronic and progressive disease
  • alcohol poisoning; passing out, semi conscious, cold, pale or bluish skin, vomiting while sleeping, slow or irregular breathing, seizures
  • breast cancer risk; increases with increased alcohol consumption
  • high blood pressure, stroke, heart attack, cirrhosis, throat and stomach cancer, breast and bladder cancer, vitamin and mineral deficiencies, fetal alcohol syndrome, accidents, drowning and violent behaviour
158
Q

Alcohol is classified as a

A

Group 1 human carcinogen by IARC casually linked to 7 types of cancer, oral, throat, esophagus, liver breast, laryngeal, colorectal

159
Q

What does WHO say about alcohol consumption

A

There are no safe levels risk of breast cancer increases with each unit of alcohol consumer per day

160
Q

Taking risks when you have been drinking results in

A
  • Getting hurt or even death, alcohol related injury ( major cause of death in teens and young adults)
  • sexual risk taking, unwanted sex, unplanned pregnancy, sti
  • suicide and self harm; higher risk in teens and young adults who drink heavily or often
161
Q

FASD

A
  • children born to women who drink during pregnancy can develop FAS
  • children face impaired growth and mental development
  • may have distinct facial features only present in 10% of individuals
162
Q

FASD prevalence

A
  • 4% of Canadians
  • 2.5 x more prevalent than autism
  • 11% of Canadian mothers report consuming alcohol during pregnancy (3% report alcohol binges)
  • mental health disorders are seen in less than 90% of individuals with FASD, compared to 20% of general population (depression and anxiety most common)
163
Q

There is no cure for FASD but research shows that

A

Early intervention can improve a child’s improvement

164
Q

What is the calories per gram in pure alcohol

A

7 calories/ gram

165
Q

For adult who drink, —% of calories come from —— and —% of calories come from —- in ——-

A

3-9% of calories come from alcohol and 50% of calories come from alcohol in heavy drinkers

166
Q

As alcohol consumption from alcohol containing beverages increases and alcohol is known as

A

The quality of the diet generally decreases

Empty calories- calories with no nutrients

167
Q

Alcohol is —— and —— absorbed in the ——— and ———

A

Easily and rapidly absorbed in the stomach and small intestine

168
Q

Once alcohol is in the body ———

A

Alcohol remains in the blood and body tissue until its broken down by the liver and used for energy or is converted into fat and stored

169
Q

Blood levels of alcohol build up

A

As drinking continues

170
Q

Unlike carbohydrates

A

Glycogen in liver and muscle and fat (triglycerides in adipose tissue and liver) alcohol is not stored and remains in the body until eliminated

171
Q

Body treats alcohol as a —- and begins —— immediately up to —- % eliminated directly without ———- and the rest ——

A

Toxin and begins elimination immediately up to 10% eliminated directly without being metabolized- exhaled via lungs and the rest via sweat, saliva and urine that’s why we use a breathalyzer

172
Q

At least —% of alcohol that enters body is eventually completed oxidized

A

90%

173
Q

Because the stomach has ———- a very small amount of alcohol is —— but the majority remains the job of the liver

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase a very small amount of alcohol is metabolized there but the majority remains the job of the liver

174
Q

What is the key enzyme to metabolize alcohol

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase

175
Q

Why do women have lower alcohol tolerance

A
  1. Stomach alcohol dehydrogenase begins breakdown (women have lower amounts of the enzyme, therefore less first pass metabolism and more alcohol can reach the bloodstream
  2. Alcohol is dispersed among body tissues but very little alcohol enters adipose tissue due to poor fat solubility, women have more body fat and less body water because alcohol is dispersed in body water women reach higher peak blood alcohol concentrations than men
  3. Women also have lower blood volume
176
Q

Blood Alcohol Concentration is determined by

A
  1. The amount of alcohol consumed
  2. Presence or absence of food
  3. Rate of alcohol metabolism
177
Q

blood alcohol levels increase more rapidly if ——- and what are factors that will increase the absorption of alcohol

A

more rapidly if the absorption rate is higher

  1. Drinking on an empty stomach speeds up alcohol absorption
  2. The higher the concentration of alcohol in the beverage the faster the absorption (peak at 20%)
  3. Carbonated beverages tend to speed up absorption; champagne, alcohol mixed with soft drinks
178
Q

Absorption can be slowed down by

Would we rather have slower or faster absorption of alcohol

A
  1. Eating before or while drinking (slows down absorption of alcohol into bloodstream)
  2. Diluting drinks with water or fruit juice

Slower absorption

179
Q

A drink or two in an hour raises ———-

A

Raises blood levels to 0.03% in a person of about 140 lbs (mild intoxication)

180
Q

Impaired driving limit is

A

0.08%

181
Q

0.08-0.10% BAC associated with

A

Impairment in all driving skills, coordination, balance and speech

182
Q

0.13% BAC associated with

A

More severe slurred speech double vision, dulled reflexes, unsteadiness, dangerously impaired decisions making, vomitting

183
Q

Greater than 0.35 % BAC

A

Loss of consciousness, alcohol poisoning can cause death

184
Q

Liver can process —— , alcohol circulates ——-, therefore we must not consume more than ——-

A

1 drink per hour

Alcohol circulates in body until liver can process it

1 drink an hour

185
Q

Amount of alcohol dehydrogenase present depends on

A

Genetics and how recently you have eaten (alcohol metabolism higher in fed versus fasted state)

186
Q

How does alcohol damage the liver

A
  1. Fatty liver- fat accumulates
  2. Fibrosis- liver cells die and form scar tissue
  3. Cirrhosis- damage least reversible
187
Q

Why do people act differently when they are drunk

A
  1. Depresses the behavioural inhibitory centres, the person becomes more talkative more self confident and less socially inhibited
  2. Slows down the processing of information from the senses; person has trouble seeing, hearing, smelling, touching and tasting also the threshold for pain is raised
  3. Inhibits thought process- the person does not use good judgement or think clearly
188
Q

Is it a myth or truth that you can sober up from; walking around the block
And drinking a cup of coffee

A

No- “muscle can’t metabolize alcohol, only alcohol”

No- “wide awake drunk” won’t speed up metabolism

189
Q

Alcohol with sleeping pills, antidepressants and pain killers interact..

A

Harmfully, dangerous due to competition in the liver with detoxifying waste/ meds

190
Q

Alcohol interaction with other drugs results in alcoholism metabolism competing

A

For detoxification system in liver and drug builds up

191
Q

Aspirin or ibuprofen interaction with alcohol

A

Causes stomach ulcers and bleeding, the irritation of the stomach lining

192
Q

Tylenol and alcohol

A

liver damage

193
Q

Sedatives/narcotics with alcohol results in

A

Severe sedation

194
Q

Red bull and vodka

A
  • red bull is a stimulant containing caffeine and taurine ( can alter locomotor stimulatory, sedating and motivational effects of ethanol in a strongly dose-dependent manner)
  • alcohol is a depressant
195
Q

Why is the combination of red bull and vodka dangerous

A
  • you feel fine but still intoxicated alcohol is still destroying your body
196
Q

Type 1 alcoholism

A

Occur after the age of 25 and is generally environmental and genetic in origin (drink to relieve anxiety) in men and women, alcohol to cope with stress

197
Q

Type 2 alcoholism

A

Typically genetic and occurs due to early exposure (teen drinking) (drink to induce euphoria) affects men more

198
Q

The younger the age when alcohol is first consumed ——-

A

Generally the greater the chances of developing a drinking problem

199
Q

Binge drinking classifies as

A

Greater than 5 drinks for males or over 4 drinks in women during one occasion

200
Q

—% of 8th graders, —% of 10 th graders and —% of 12 graders have a binge drinking problem

A

15%, 26% and 31%

201
Q

Does binge drinking cancel any health confit from moderate drinking and cause social problems

A

Yes

202
Q

When youths binge drink they are more likely to

A

Develop a dependence on alcohol

203
Q

Don’t drink

A
  • drive
  • operate machinery
  • on an empty stomach
  • if you are pregnant or trying to be
204
Q

Proteins are made of ——-, some ——- are —— and some are ——-

A

Amino acids, some amino acids are essential and some are nonessential

205
Q

Proteins can be used for —- and what is its major functions

A

For energy but it’s major functions in the body involve construction, maintenance and repair of protein tissues

206
Q

Protein synthesis proceeds only —-

A

When all amino acids are available

207
Q

Appropriate combinations of plant foods can supply

A

Can supply sufficient quantities of all the essential amino acids

208
Q

Proteins are

A

Chains of amino acids

209
Q

The body cannot produce

A

Sufficient essential amino acids

210
Q

The body can produce

A

Non-essential amino acids

211
Q

If a cell is building a protein and cannot find a needed ————

A

Amino acid, the synthesis stops

212
Q

Humans need

A

all 20 amino acids to be able to make proteins

213
Q

There are —- NEAA

A

11

214
Q

There are — EAA

A

9

215
Q

All proteins have and only some have

A

Primary structure ( chain of amino acids) , secondary structure ( 2d sheets of amino acids) and tertiary structures ( 3d structure amino acids)

Some have quaternary structures (hemoglobin, dna)

216
Q

Denaturation of proteins can occur due to

A

Exposure to heat, acids bases, alcohol and heavy metals

217
Q

What are good examples of desaturation of proteins

A
  • cooking denatures food proteins
  • stomach acid opens protein structure for digestion
218
Q

What are examples of bad denaturation of proteins

A
  • fever can denature body proteins
  • heavy metals (mercury) can destroy body proteins; produces toxic effects by protein precipitation, enzyme inhibition and generalized corrosive action
219
Q

Protein digestion in the GI tract

A
  • Starts in the stomach, HCl denatures and unfolds proteins and converts pepsinogen into pepsin
  • pepsin cleaves large polypeptides into smaller polypeptides
  • continues in small intestine pancreatic proteases break polypeptides into di and tri peptides and some amino acids
  • intestinal di and tri peptidases complete the break down of peptides into amino acids
  • once in the enterocyte, di and tri peptides are broken down to free amino acids which are absorbed into the blood stream
220
Q

Protein function within our body

A
  1. Building materials ( muscle, fetus, scar tissue, red blood cells and intestinal cells)
  2. Maintenance of osmotic pressure
  3. Synthesis of substances like hemoglobin, antibodies, enzymes, hormones, plasma proteins and coagulation factors
221
Q

Protein kcal/ gram and it contains what is it used for

A

4kcal/gram and it contains nitrogen and free nitrogen is used for protein formation or if there is an excess, excreted as urea by kidney

222
Q

Glucose stored as ——, fat stored as —— but protein

A

Glycogen

Triglycerides

But protein consumed in excess cannot be stored there is no storage form of protein

223
Q

Amino acids can be —— fat ——

A

Converted to glucose and fat can’t

224
Q

If blood glucose levels drop and there is no glucose available from food and muscle and liver glycogen are used up and the body ————

A

The body will break down protein stores (muscle) to replenish blood glucose called gluconeogenic amino acids

225
Q

Dietary protein digestibility in animal protein, legume protein and grains and other plants

A

Over 90% digestible in animal proteins
80% digestible in legume proteins
60-90% digestible in grains and other plants

226
Q

Protein quality refers to

A

How well a protein source source provides all the essential amino acids yr body needs, if it has a poor quality the missing EAA can limit the body’s ability to make new proteins

227
Q

Complete protein

A

Contains all the essential amino acids in amounts to sustain protein formation in the body

228
Q

Incomplete proteins

A
  • lack some of the essential amino acids
229
Q

Examples of complete proteins and is quinoa one

A
  • meat, fish, poultry, cheese, eggs, milk and soy bean products quinoa by some standards fall short of lysine so no
230
Q

Examples of incomplete proteins

A
  • plants cereals, beans, nuts, seeds)
231
Q

Describe incomplete protein

A

Lower nutritional quality due to low levels of select EAA and presence of anti nutritional factors such as protease inhibitors that decrease protein digestibility as well as grains that do not contain sufficient lysine,legumes do not contain enough methionine

232
Q

Complementary proteins

A
  • grains and legumes together
  • all essential amino acids are present
  • this is a subsection in complete protein
233
Q

How much protein do people really need

A

Sedentary people need 0.8 g/kg of BW
Strength trained (maintenance) 1.2-1.4 g/kg of BW
Strength trained (gaining) 1.6-1.8 g/kg of BW
Endurance trained 1.2-1.4 g/kg of BW
Weight restricted 1.4-1.8 g/kg of BW
Infant (up to 6 month) 2.2 g/kg of BW
Child (1-6 years) 1.2 g/kg BW

234
Q

Who has a positive nitrogen balance

A

Growing children, pregnant women and people building muscle

235
Q

Who has nitrogen equilibrium

A

Normal healthy individuals

236
Q

Who has negative nitrogen balance

A
  • trauma patients
  • astronaut
237
Q

Within protein supplements (individual amino acids not naturally found in foods) what are the risks involved

A
  • can be contaminated
  • interfere with absorption of other essential amino acids
  • excess consumption of methionine worsens symptoms of schizophrenia, promotes hardening of arteries, impairs fetal and infant development and leads to vomiting, nausea bad breath and constipation
238
Q

True or false glutamine and branched chain amino acids have performance benefits

A

True

239
Q

Milk protein consists of 20% —— and 80% ——

A

Whey and casein

240
Q

Whey protein

A
  • immune enhancing properties
  • low in fat and nutrient dense
  • can improve body composition
241
Q

Whey protein and gut health

A
  • can support beneficial gut bacteria but excessive intake may result in bloating
242
Q

Whey protein and acne

A

-may increase acne

243
Q

Whey protein and bone health

A
  • supports bone health through calcium content but excessive protein intake might cause calcium loss in urine
244
Q

Whey protein with liver and kidney function

A
  • safe for both in moderation excessive may strain both with pre existing conditions
245
Q

Can eating extra protein make muscles grow larger

A

False, sufficient protein is necessary but extra strength training is what leads to muscle growth, body can’t store protein, so once sufficient level reached its stored as fat

246
Q

Adding excess protein or amino acids to a adequate diet leads to —-

A

Putting on pounds of body fat not muscle

247
Q

Kwashiokor

A

Protein deficiency, children severe form of protein deficiency experience swelling in arms, legs and stomach masking internal muscle wasting
- moon face (edema)
- swollen belly and patch dermatitis (from zinc deficiency)

248
Q

Marasmus

A

Protein and calorie deficiency
- extreme emaciation
- more protein and calories

249
Q

Disadvantages of excess protein

A
  • High-protein foods often high in fat (especially red meat linked to colon cancer).
  • Ideal calcium-to-protein ratio is 20:1; actual is 9:1.
  • Excess protein increases calcium loss in urine.
  • Can cause dehydration; kidneys excrete excess nitrogen, requiring more water.
  • Generally safe for healthy kidneys, but risky for those with kidney disease or diabetes.
250
Q

Vegetarianism is more than a diet, part of

A

A value system that influences attitudes and behaviours

251
Q

True or false appropriately planned vegetarian diets are health promoting

A

True

252
Q

Vegetarian diets that lead to caloric and nutrient deficiencies generally include

A

Too narrow a range of foods

253
Q

Types of vegetarian diets

A
  • vegan
  • lactovegetarian
  • lacto-ovo-vegetarian
  • partial vegetarian
  • pesco-vegetarian
254
Q

Vegan

A

Exclude all animal derived foods

255
Q

Lactovegetarian

A

Include milk

256
Q

Lacto- ova- vegetarian

A

Include milk and eggs

257
Q

Partial vegetarian

A

Excludes red meat

258
Q

Pesco vegetarian

A

Excludes poultry and red meat

259
Q

Health benefits of vegetarian diets

A
  1. Lower body weight
  2. Lower blood pressure
  3. Less heart disease
  4. Lower mortality from cancer especially colon
260
Q

Protein as a at risk nutrient in vegetarian diets

A
  1. Protein ( complete proteins from animal sources) and ( incomplete proteins from plant protein; grains; note enough lysine, legumes note enough methionine)
  2. Complementary proteins ( grains, legumes, milk and grains and milk and legumes
261
Q

What are the at risk nutrients

A
  1. Protein
  2. Iron
  3. Zinc
  4. Calcium
  5. Vitamin D
  6. vitamin b12
262
Q

Iron as a at risk nutrient

A
  • iron in plants are in legumes, dark leafy vegetables, iron fortified cereals, whole grains but its absorbed less efficiently than iron from animals (absorption rate of 5-12%), vitamin c can enhance this absorption
  • best source of iron is in lean red meat, and iron absorption with meat and fish and poultry (14-18%)
263
Q

Zinc as a at risk nutrient in vegetarian diets

A
  • meat is a rich source as well as seafood
  • whole grains, nuts and legumes can also be
  • critical for immune function growth
264
Q

In developing countries, zinc
deficiency is caused by high
cereal protein intake, rich in
phytates (anti-nutrition factor),
which makes zinc unavailable
for absorption true or false

A

True

265
Q

Populations at a greater risk of deficiencies from a vegetarian diet

A
  1. Pregnant and lactating
  2. Infants
  3. Childhood and adolescence
266
Q

Calcium as a at risk nutrient

A
  • calcium fortified juices or soy milk
  • calcium set tofu
  • some legumes (navy and white beans)
  • almonds
  • tahini and chia seeds
  • lower oxalate vegetables like turnip greens, broccoli and kale considered better sources than higher oxalate vegetables such as spinach, Swiss chard and boiling reduces oxalate levels 30-87% more effective than steaming or baking
267
Q

True or false food sources of calcium contain dairy, green leafy vegetables, salmon and sardines and tuna

A

False food sources of calcium contain dairy, green leafy vegetables, salmon and sardines

268
Q

Vitamin D as a at risk nutrient

A
  • vitamin d fortified milk
  • exposure to sunlight
  • supplement necessary

( cheese, butter margarine, fortified ilk, fish and fortified cereal are food sources of vitamin D)

269
Q

Vitamin b12 as a at risk nutrient

A
  • only in animal foods ( egg, meat, shellfish, milk and milk products)
  • fortified soy milk, breakfast cereals
  • supplements
270
Q

True allergies involve

A

A response by the body’s immune system

271
Q

Food allergies may be caused by

A

Hundreds of different foods

272
Q

Food intolerances cover

A

An array of adverse reactions tht do to involve the body’s immune system

273
Q

What is the most accurate method of identifying food allergies and intolerances

A

Double-blind placebo controlled food challenge

274
Q

Food allergy symptoms can range from

A

Mild to serious

275
Q

What do food allergies involve and when does it begin and also is the incidence on the rise

A

Involves the immune system allergy begins when person eats a food containing allergen ( usually a protein but not always)

Yes affects a lot of people

276
Q

Peanut allergy steps

A

First Exposure:

Allergen: Peanut protein enters the body.
Immune System: Antigen-presenting cells process the allergen.
T Cells and B Cells: Activated to produce antibodies.
Mast Cells: Remain sensitized.
Subsequent Exposure:

Allergen: Re-enters the body.
Antibodies: Bind to the allergen.
Mast Cells: Release histamine.
Histamine: Causes allergic symptoms (e.g., hives, difficulty breathing).
New Treatment Approaches:

Target key steps in the allergic reaction to block symptoms.
Potential for more effective treatments for food allergies.

277
Q

After one or more exposures to an allergen—-

A

Person forms antibodies to the allergen

278
Q

After antibodies to allergen is formed Antibodies attach to

A

Various cells including mucous membranes of the mouth, gut, lungs, nose and eyes

279
Q

Upon re- exposure to the allergen, allergen binds to

A

Allergen binds to the antibodies and triggers histamine release and other immune responses

280
Q

What is reaction time of food allergy

A
  • reaction time seconds to 2 hours
281
Q

Three major forms of food allergen immunotherapy

A
  1. Oral immunotherapy ( US FDA approved it for peanut allergy 4-17 year olds, capsule with specific amount of peanut flour mixed with food, daily maintenance doses to train immune system not approved in Canada but some allergists practice it)
  2. Sublingual immunotherapy, allergen placed under tongue
  3. Epicutaneous immunotherapy, Allergen patch applied to skin
282
Q

Top 8 foods that cause allergies

A
  1. Nuts
  2. Eggs
  3. Peanuts
  4. Soy
  5. Wheat
  6. Milk
  7. Seafood
  8. Fish
283
Q

Incidence of allergy in children are ——

A

Higher (6-8%) in children three years of age or less

284
Q

True or false children can grow out of cows milk egg and soy allergies but not peanut, fish or shell fish

A

True

285
Q

If an allergy (milk,egg, soy) appears before 3 years of age ——

A

80% out grow it

286
Q

If an allergy (soy, milk, eggs) appear after 3 years of age ——

A

33% out grow it

287
Q

Incidence of documented allergy in adults is —% and how much of the general public believe they have allergies

A

3%

20-30%

288
Q

Allergic reaction symptoms and their percentages

A
  • skin eruptions, skin rash and hives (84%)
  • upset stomach, intestinal tract, vomiting, cramps, nausea and diarrhea ( 52%)
  • respiratory problems, congestion, runny nose, cough, wheezing, asthma (32%)
  • anaphylactic shock (rare)
289
Q

What is anaphylactic shock and peanuts are responsible for ——% of food anaphylactic deaths, tree nuts responsible for and the rest

A
  • all system reaction
  • low blood pressure
  • respiratory and GI distress
  • can be fatal
  • most commonly with eggs, wheat,milk, soy, nuts, peanuts, seafood and fish

62%, 30% of deaths and the rest is due to shellfish, fish , milk, eggs and fruit

290
Q

Diagnosing food allergies in clinic what are the tests

A
  1. Skin tests (suggest allergies not definitive)
  2. Blood tests ( look for antibodies for antigens not definitive finishing antibody doesn’t always mean allergic)
  3. Medically supervised oral food challenge ( most definitive way to confirm food allergens)
291
Q

Purpose of elimination diets, process

A

Determine food allergies, used when there are chronic symptoms (dermatitis)
2 processes
1. Elimination phase; avoid suspected foods for 1-2 weeks or until symptoms disappear, keep food and symptom diary
2. Reintroduction phase; (challenge phase) reintroduce suspected food at a time waiting at least 3 days between additions, monitor symptoms

292
Q

Limitation to allergy treatments

A

No reliable treatments exist for food allergies
Research is exploring new approaches such as allergen immunotherapy to build tolerance

293
Q

Most allergy treatments —— and many childhood allergies disappear by ages ——— resulting in

A

Carry the risk of allergy symptoms so the best thing to do is eliminate the food from your diet

2-3

Food could be added later in life

294
Q

Precautions to food allergy and blue to what orange to what

A
  • careful and should have a plan ready if they develop a serious reaction
  • read food ingredient labels
  • preloaded epi-pen for anaphylactic shock

Blue to sky orange to thigh

295
Q

Why do we have more allergies today

A
  1. Hygiene hypothesis (over sanitization may lead to weakened immune system)
  2. Unhealthy fats (low omega-3)
  3. Obesity (inflammatory state)
  4. Vitamin D deficiency (increased allergies in NA)
  5. Timing of exposure to foods (introduce potential allergens early to induce oral
    tolerance)
  6. Use of topical ointments or lotions containing peanut
    oil in infants (bypasses oral route for tolerance)
  7. Use of soy formula (cross-reactivity to peanuts)
296
Q

Food intolerances

A
  • involve the digestive system not the immune system
  • typically dysfunctions where an enzyme is missing
  • true intolerances produce predictable reactions
297
Q

Triggers to food intolerances

A

1.constituents of certain foods ( example red wine and aged cheese separately)
- histamine in wine blamed for headaches
- tyramine in aged cheese and soy sauce linked to migraines in sensitive people

  1. Synthetic compounds added to food, msg, sulfites and food colouring
    - sulphites (antimicrobial) but affect tissue, don’t cause allergic reaction but sulfite sensitive people experience similar reactions
    -msg intolerance linked to dizziness, sweating, rapid heart beat and ringing in ears, flushed

3.deficiencies in digestive enzymes ( lactose intolerance) lactase enzyme highest at birth
- symptoms; bloating, abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, gas
- cause; lactase declines with age, intestinal villli damage from medicines, malnutrition, prolonged diarrhea
- prevalence; greater than 80% in south East Asians and less than 10% in Northern Europeans

298
Q

Lactose intolerance

A
  • total elimination not necessary
  • 1/2 cup tolerated, and increase intake gradually, spread intake throughout the day and take with other foods ( yogurt and hard cheese the best)
  • Greek yogurt less lactose then regular yogurt and aged cheese has less lactose since bacteria uses lactose
  • lactaid is milk tablets or enzymes drops before consuming milk/milk products
299
Q

True or false fat is our most concentrated source of food energy what is its cal/g

A

True 9 cal/g

300
Q

Dietary fats carry the

A

Essential fatty acids, fat soluble vitamins and healthful phytochemicals along with them in food

301
Q

Some fats have —- effects while others have —— effects

A

Positive and negative

302
Q

True or false saturated and trans fat raise blood cholesterol levels more than dietary cholesterol or other types of fats

A

True

303
Q

3 lipid classes

A
  1. Triglycerides ( glycerol + fatty acids )
  2. Phospholipids (lipids bilayer)
  3. Sterols (cholesterol and vitamin d)
304
Q

Triglycerides

A
  • 98% of dietary fat intake and majority of body fat stores
  • used by cells for energy and tissue maintenance
  • fatty acids in fats determine the type of triglyceride (major ones are unsaturated or saturated)
305
Q

Saturated fatty acids monounsaturated, polyunsaturated

A

No double bonds, solid at room temp
Monounsaturated- one double bond liquid at room temp
Poly- multiple double bonds liquid at room temp

306
Q

Fatty acids split into

A

Saturated- animal fats, butter lard as well as coconut oil and palm oil
Unsaturated- poly saturated fats (divided into omega 3 fatty acids; very good for us and omega 6 fatty acids; too much leads to inflammation) and mono saturated farts (omega 9; healthy)

307
Q

Example of omega 3 fatty acids

A

Fish oils
Flaxseed oils
Seed oils

308
Q

Example of omega 6 fatty acids

A

Corn oil
Sunflower oil

309
Q

Examples of omega 9 fatty acids

A
  • olive oil
  • canola oil
  • avocado
  • peanut
    -almonds
310
Q

When saying a oil is distinguished as saturated, or unsaturated (either poly or monounsaturated) what do we recognize

A

All of them have a mixture
( and we distinguish based on highest amount of whichever type of oil in them mixture)

311
Q

Many vegetable oils are rich in monounsaturated fat true or false

A

False rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (exercise more caution associated with more inflammation)

312
Q

Some vegetable oil olive and canola rich in monounsaturated fatty acids true or false

A

True

313
Q

Healthier fats lower —- and raise —-types of healthier fats

A

LDL (bad cholesterol) and raise HDL good cholesterol
- monounsaturated
- polyunsaturated fats

314
Q

What are the 2 essential fats (both polyunsaturated)

A
  • alpha linoleic acid ( omega 6 fatty acids)
  • alpha linolenic acid (omega 3 fatty acids)
315
Q

Omega 6 linoleic acids

A

Essential fatty acid
- sunflower oil, corn and safflower oils

316
Q

Linolenic amino acids

A

Essential fatty acid, found in large amounts in brain and other nervous system tissue
- good plant sources of short chain omega 3 are walnuts, flaxseeds, canola oil, soybeans, dark leafy green vegetables

317
Q

Long chain omega 3

A
  • fish oil
    1. EPA
    2. DHA
    Reduce heart disease risk
    Reduce tendency for blood to clot
    High consumers can have impaired blood clotting
    Risk for uncontrolled bleeding and hemorrhagic stroke
    Recommended fish 2x a week
318
Q

DHA

A

Structural component of the brain found in large amounts in the retina
- promotes intellectual and visual development during last 3 months of pregnancy and during infancy
- DHA added to infant formulas

319
Q

Ratio of omega 6 and omega 3

A

Important
- functions of one are adversely modified by high amounts of the other
- people should consume omega 6:omega 3 and a 4:1 ratio or less since high omega 6 intake increases inflammation
- Canadians ratio is 9:1 we need to increase intake of omega 3 fatty acids

320
Q

Less healthy fats and examples

A
  • elevate LDL cholesterol levels
  • trans fat
  • saturated fat
    Solid at room temperature,meat, lard, block margarine
321
Q

Why were Modified fats made and what was the solution

A
  • Unsaturated fats are Unstable
  • turn rancid with time oxygen and heat
  • sold fats last longer than oil during frying

Solution- hydrogenation

322
Q

Hydrogenation and its 2 drawbacks

A
  • adding hydrogen to liquid saturated fats to make them ore saturated and solid
  • shelf life and cooking properties improve
  1. Hydrogenated vegetable oils have more saturated fat corn oil (6%) corn margarine ( 17%)
  2. Hydrogenation changes structure of the unsaturated fatty acids ( converts some fats into trans fats)
323
Q

Trans fat

A

Comes from hydrogenated vegetable oils
- raise blood cholesterol more than other types of fat
- increase LDL and lower HDL
- not made by body and a small amount found in beef
-increase risk of heart disease, stroke, sudden death from heat disease and type 2 diabetes

324
Q

In the past common food sources of trans fat and what happened on September 2017

A
  • margarine shortening peanut butter
  • deer fried fast foods
  • salad dressing mayo
  • cookies, cakes, donuts chips
  • health Canada partially prohibit and 2020 full prohibition
325
Q

Cholesterol

A
  • found only in animal products
  • tasteless,odourless, clear
  • plants do not contain because they can’t produce it and don’t need it
  • blood cholesterol reflects 2 sources
    1. Endogenous- 2/3 produced by the liver
    2. Exogenous 1/3 comes from diet
326
Q

Cholesterol is not an essential nutrient true or false

A

True

327
Q

Dietary cholesterol does not

A

Increase LDL to the same effect as saturated fat does

328
Q

Cholesterol cannot be —-, found in ——- and serves as a ——- as well as a major component of —-

A

Used as energy 0 cal
Found in all cells
Serves as a building block for estrogen, vitamin D and testosterone
Major component of nerves and the brain

329
Q

Functions of cholesterol in the body

A
  • bile
  • vitamin D
  • testosterone
  • estrogen
330
Q

Food sources of cholesterol

A

Highest is meat
Then eggs s
Milk and milk product
Other
Fats

331
Q

Highest cholesterol (mg)

A

Liver (408) and egg (213)

332
Q

What is recommended intake of cholesterol

A

300 mg/d

333
Q

What are important contributors to heart disease

A
  • disease, dietary and lifestyle factors
334
Q
  • moderate fat diets provide healthy fats and ———-
A

decrease heart disease risk more low fat high carb diets

335
Q

Lowering HDL and raising HDL reduces

A

The risk of heart disease

336
Q

Heart disease accounts for —% of deaths in Canada

A

5% men and women equal

337
Q

Factors contributing to CVD

A
  • smoking (most impactful)
  • hypertension
  • high ldl low HDL
  • obesity especially apple
  • Glucose intolerance (diabetes)
  • lack of exercise
  • gender men more likely to develop earlier
  • menopause in women
338
Q

Women on average die 10 years later than men from CVD why

A
  • protective effects of estrogen
339
Q

What causes CVD

A
  • conditions that increase plaque formation in arteries
  • elevated cholesterol and TGs
  • chronic inflammation
    ( the above two are interrelated and work to increase artheroscleroisis)
340
Q

How fats are made and transported

A
  1. Fat gets absorbed
  2. Chylomicron- full of fat that we’ve eaten and its a transport molecule that distributes fats throughout the body
  3. Any tissue that needs fat, chylomicron gives up triglycerides( gets smaller and smaller)
    4.remnants of chylomicron goes to liver
341
Q

Liver can also produce fat

A
  1. VLDL; does the same thing as chylomicron but comes from liver instead of diet
    2.VLDL gets smaller and becomes LDL
  2. LDL carries fat, cholesterol and travels through blood vessels
342
Q

How does HDL compare to how fat is absorbed

A

Takes cholesterol out of body cells and removes from blood vessels brings t back to the liver

343
Q

What is the volume of chylomicron

A

80% triglycerides

344
Q

What is the volume of VLDL

A

50% triglyceride

345
Q

What is the volume of LDL

A

50% of cholesterol (high cholesterol that why bad)

346
Q

What is teh volume of HDL

A

50% protein

347
Q

HDL helps

A

Remove cholesterol from the blood and escorts it to the liver for excretion, high HDL protects against heart disease

348
Q

LDL cholesterol gets

A

Incorporated into plaque narrows blood vessels

349
Q

Elevated LDL increases the

A

chances of heart disease

350
Q

Triglycerides are transported

A

Transported attached to VLDL cholesterol

351
Q

High blood levels of triglycerides increase

A

Heart disease risk

352
Q

The effort to prevent and treat heart disease should

A

Include a focus on blood triglyceride levels

353
Q

How to change your value for total cholesterol and LDL

A
  • decrease intake of saturated fat (<10% of calories) and trans fat to 0
  • increase intake of fiber
  • lose weight if necessary
  • decrease intake of cholesterol
354
Q

How to change HDL cholesterol value

A
  • increase activity
  • quit smoking
  • lose weight if necessary
355
Q

How to change value for triglycerides

A
  • decrease intake of sugar, alcohol, total fat ( less tan 30% of calories)
  • lose weight if necessary
  • increase activity