Midterm 3 Flashcards

1
Q

which statement accurately describes chromosomes, chromatids, and alleles?

A

chromosomes contain DNA, chromatids are replicated chromosomes, and alleles are gene variants

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2
Q

homologous chromosomes consist of what?

A

one mom and one dad chromsome

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3
Q

2 chromatids mean what

A

2 sister chromatids that come from the same parent

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4
Q

three principles of Linked Genes and Mapping

A
  1. Independent assortement of homologous chromosomes during meiosis
  2. Genes can be close to each other on a chromosome
  3. meiotic recombination between homologous chromosomes can swap alleles

AKKA independent assortment, syntenic genes, and recpmbination

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5
Q

ratio for independently assorted alleles/ chromomomes (when genes on diff chromosomes)

A

1:1:1:1

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6
Q

when do genes undergo indepenedent assortment

A

when the genes are on different chromosomes

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7
Q

Genes A, B, C are located on different autosomes. If I have a plant with the genotype AaBbCc, which resulted
from crossing ABC x abc, how many different gametes
will be formed by AaBbCc plant?

A

8

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8
Q

Each gene occurs at a specific site, or ….

A

LOCUS on a chromosomes

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9
Q

genes located on the same chromosome are called

A

syntenic

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10
Q

humans have __ pairs of homoglous chromsomes, but _______ genes

A

23; 20,000

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11
Q

describe the phenotype/genotype of the normal wild type of thomsas morgans linkage using flies

A

red eyes (pr+) and full wings (vg+)

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12
Q

describe the phenotype: genotype of the homozygous recessive genotype of thomsas morgans linkage using flies

A

purple eyes (pr), Vestigial wing (vr)

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13
Q

in the Fly gene nomenclature what does + mean

A

wild type akak vg+ = normal

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14
Q

what will be the phenotype of the flies resulted from the cross of. a pr+ vg+ and a pr vg

A

red eye, full wing

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15
Q

Thomas Morgan Crossed F1 flies to flies with
homozygous recessive phenotype (Test Cross) results?? and analysis of them ??

A

pr+ vg+= 1339
pr+ vg= 151
pr vg+= 154
pr vg= 1195
–> meaning that results confirm hypothesis that two genes DO NOT always assort independently. since there was no 1:1:1:1

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16
Q

recombination =?

A

crossing over

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17
Q

non parental chromosomes are the result of

A

recombination

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18
Q

what is recombination

A

physical exchange of segments between homologous chromosomes

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19
Q

how often does recombination occue

A

about 1-3 times/ chromosome on average

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20
Q

when does recombination occurs

A

synapsis of meiotic prophase 1 –> when synaptonemal complex is formed

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21
Q

chiasma=

A

cross-chaped configuration caused by breakage and rejoining of chromatids

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22
Q

recommbination machinery?

A

proteins catalyzed by enzymes

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23
Q

what is the result of recombination

A

greatly increases the numbers of possible genotypes BY ENABLING MORE LOCI TO ASSORT INDEPENDENTLY

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24
Q

what does recombination enable

A

genetic mapping think recombination %

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25
Q

recombination results in what types of gametes ?

A

gametes with combinations of alleles that were not present in parents

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26
Q

recombination frequency

A

is a measure of how linked are two genes

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27
Q

If I have a plant with the genotype PpLl, which resulted
from crossing PPLL x ppll, what are the recombinant
gametes formed by the PpLl plant?

A

Pl and pL

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28
Q

In the extreme case of complete genetic linkage between two genes what does it look like

A

they are so close together on the same chromosome (syntenic) that they are practically always inherited together, with almost no recombination events occurring between them

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29
Q

implications of gentic linkage

A

linkage is a real concern for many selective breeding experiments –> linked to cancer and linked to deafness

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30
Q

what happens when syntenic genes are NOT very close to each other in genetic linkage

A

incomplete genetic linkage where parental gametes are significantly more frequent and nonparental gametes significantly less frequent than predicted by independent assortment

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31
Q

explain how recombination can break apart linked apart linked alleles

A

Recombination can separate these alleles and shuffle them into new combinations. –> Recombination doesn’t inherently “sort out bad genes,” but it does create genetic diversity, which can lead to a combination of traits that may be beneficial or harmful depending on the environment.

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32
Q

implications of recomponation in humans

A

more combinatorics–> more gentic and phenotypic diversity

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33
Q

Assume that in any person we can find ___ loci
for which they are …

A

700; heterozygous, and which assort independently

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34
Q

the # of genetically distinct gametes any
person can make is….

A

> # of atoms in the universe

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35
Q

a test cross can be used to measure …

A

recombination frequency

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36
Q

recombination frequency is equivalent to the

A

frequency of recombination alleles

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37
Q

What is the maximum recombination
frequency?
If genes are very far apart on the same
chromosome, at what frequency will they
recombine?

A

50% –> Remember, Crossovers occurs in the 4-strand stage of meiosis I, and involve only two of the four chromatids.
*Thus any single crossover event creates two recombinant (non parental)
chromatids, while leaving the other two in the parental configuration

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38
Q

crossing over occurs in the ____ and only involves

A

4- strand stage of meiosis one; only involves two if the four chromatids

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39
Q

in any single crossover event it creates –>

A

two recombinat chromatids while leaving the other two in the parental configuration

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40
Q

you can detect genetic linkage by using a

A

chi-squared test

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41
Q

independent assortment is what type of hypotheisis in chi-squared

A

null hypotheis

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42
Q

Based on the chi-square value of 19.6
can you reject your null hypothesis?

A

Yes, the genes are likely linked –> remember the null hypothesis is independent assortment so If the chi-square value is high enough to give a p-value less than 0.05, we reject the null hypothesis. A chi-square value of 19.6, with 1 degree of freedom, corresponds to a p-value well below 0.05, so you can reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the genes are likely linked.

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43
Q

A chi-squared test can be completed by
following five simple steps:

A

A. Identify hypotheses (null versus alternative)

B. Construct a table of frequencies (observed versus
expected)

C. Apply the chi-squared formula

D. Determine the degree of freedom (df)

E. Identify the p value (should be <0.05)

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44
Q

The probability of crossing over
between two genes (or loci) is

A

roughly proportional to their distance
apart on the chromosome.

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45
Q

Genetic Linkage Mapping
is based

A

on recombination
frequency between genes

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46
Q

Alfred H. STurtevant did what?

A

” the linear arrangement of sex-linked factors in Drosophilia, as shown by their mode of association” –> mapping genes by recombination frequency

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47
Q

alfred H. Stustevant worked on gene mapping when he was ..

A

an undergraduate in the T.H. Morgan’s Lab

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48
Q

describe graph relationship between distance and recombination frequency

A

positive exponential graph –> steadily increases and then kinda horizontals off–>

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49
Q

as the distance between two alleles grows the …

A

recombination frequency grows

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50
Q

1% recombination =

A

1 centiMorgan (cM)= 1 map unit. (m.u.) which is about 1 million base pair

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51
Q

lets say that the Recombination frequency
between vg and pr alleles is
10.7% this means how many centimorgans are the alleles apart

A

10.7 centiMorgans

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52
Q

Linked genes exhibit …

A

less than 50 % recombination meaing that they are less than 50 cM apart

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53
Q

how long is the human chromosome 9

A

about 200 cM

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54
Q

relate trisomy 21 to recombination

A

Reason why trisomy 21 is okay is bc chromosome 21 is VERY short so recombination isn’t that often → does not contain many genes

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55
Q

what is the recombination frequency between A and B based off of this data: AB/ab x ab/ab: 39% AB; 11% Ab; 11% aB; 39% ab

A

look fore recombinant alleles and then add them together to get ther recombination frequency –> 22%

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56
Q

Double-crossovers cause an

A

under-estimation of the
distance between two loci.

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57
Q

In a genetic mapping experiment, double
crossovers between two loci can affect the
calculated genetic distance. How do double
crossovers impact the observed genetic distance
between these loci?

A

They decrease the observed genetic distance.

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58
Q

what simplification to recombination have we made that underestimates the obsrved genetic distance

A

assumed that crossovers are equally likely to occur all along the chromosome–> when recombination haas hotspots and cold spots

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59
Q

true or false: crossovers are equally likely to
occur all along the chromosome

A

FALSe–> recombination has hotspots and cold spots

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60
Q

recombination frequency can be affected by

A

biological factors such as
- sex –> females have more recombination then men
- temperature

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61
Q

in our bodies, harmless bacterial cells can outnumber our own cells by

A

10:1 ratio

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62
Q

antibiotics are arguably the …

A

most important discovery in medicine in 20th century

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63
Q

1928?

A

discovered penicillin

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64
Q

1945?

A

nobel proze for penecilin

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65
Q

How can pathogens acquire antibiotic resistance?

A

through lateral gene transfer

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66
Q

harmless bacterial cells in our organism might be ///

A

actually important and play important role in obesity, allergies, metabolic diseases, type 2 diabetes

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67
Q

bacteria have what type of chromosomes

A

circular chromosomes

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68
Q

3 descriptive word of bacteria

A

prokaryotic
unicellular
haploid

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69
Q

bacterial cells are …

A

HAPLOID`

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70
Q

What do bacterial cells NOT HAVE (two things) and have (one thing)

A

no homozygous or heterozygous alleles

NO meiosis

BUT THEY HAVE RECOMBINATION

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71
Q

what does lac+ mean

A

means a WT allele that can grow a medium containing lactose instead of glucose

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72
Q

what does lac- means

A

mutain strain that cannot grow on lactose media

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73
Q

which one is the mutant strain lac + or lac -

A

lac -

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74
Q

lac - has the inability to …

A

METABOLIZE (process ) lactose so t has no sugar to grow

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75
Q

Two strains of E. coli, lac⁺ (can metabolize
lactose) and lac⁻ (cannot metabolize lactose),
are grown on media with and without lactose.
Which statement is correct?

A) Both lac⁺ and lac⁻ grow without lactose; only lac⁺
grows with lactose.

B) Only lac⁺ grows without lactose; both grow with
lactose.

C) Both grow with lactose; only lac⁻ grows without
lactose.

A

A) Both lac⁺ and lac⁻ grow without lactose; only
lac⁺ grows with lactose

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76
Q

what does leu + mean

A

a WT strain with ability to synthesize amino acid leucin

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77
Q

leu - means

A

a mutant strain that CANNOT synthesize aminoacid leucin

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78
Q

out of leu+ and leu- which is the mutant strain

79
Q

leu - strain has the inability to…

A

inability to SYNTHESIZE (make a component)–> cant make amino acid leucin so it cannot grow

80
Q

a bacteria has a genotype Lac-, leu+ met- cys-. which media it will grow on?

A. Lactose*, no leucin, methionine, cysteine

B. No lactose, no leucin, methionine, cysteine

C. No lactose, leucin, no methionine, cysteine

D. Lactose*, leucin, methionine, no cysteine

A

B. No lactose, no leucin, methionine, cysteine`

81
Q

vertical vs lateral gene transfer

A

Vertical gene transfer = genetic material passing through a parent to its offspring during reproduction,

lateral (or horizontal) gene transfer involves the transfer of genetic material between organisms that are not direct descendants

82
Q

lateral gene transfer is also known as

A

horizontal gene transfer

83
Q

on average what percent of bacterial species genome has been acquired by LGT

A

less than 10% of genes

84
Q

which genes ARE often transfered by LGT

A

antibiotic resistance genes

85
Q

what are the types of lateral gene transfer

A

conjugation
transduction
transformation

86
Q

what is the main way conjugation works

A

think PLASMID

87
Q

what is the main way transduction works

A

think PHAGES

88
Q

what is the main way in which transformation works

A

THINK free DNA

89
Q

plasmids?

A

are circular DNA molecules that replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome

90
Q

how are plasmids usually thought of as

A

selfish DNA elements that parasitize the host bacterium

91
Q

what are feature of the most successful plasmids

A

plasmids that give the host something in return such as antibiotic resistance

92
Q

when were plasmids discovered

A

in 1950s by Joshua Lederberg adn colleagues

93
Q

who were the first to use plasmid in recombinant DNA

A

1973 Cohen Boyer and Berg

94
Q

today how are plasmids used?

A

routinely used in genetic engineering as gene transfer vectors

95
Q

F(fertility) factor plasmis is

A

a low-copy number plasmid 100kb in length and is present in 1-2 copies per cell

96
Q

the F factor plasmid replicates …

A

once per cell cycle and segregates to both daughter cells in cell divison

97
Q

F+ cells can transfer a copy of the F-factor plasmid to F–
cells by a process called

A

conjugation

98
Q

Conjugation is a process in which

A

DNA is transferred from bacterial donor cell to a recipient cell

99
Q

what mediated the F-Factor plasmid transfer

A

PILUS–> a tube like structue

100
Q

what is pilus

A

a tube like structure formed between the cells, through which the plasmid DNA passes

101
Q

The ~20 proteins that make up the pilus are encoded by

A

the F-factor
plasmid

102
Q

F Factor plasmid replication and tranmission to F- cell are

103
Q

Beside conjugation genes the F plasmid…

A

doesnot carry any other (resistance) genes

104
Q

what are the only genes that the F plasmid carry

A

conjugation genes

105
Q

once a bacterial cell has the plasmid F+ what can it do with it

A

the F-plasmids can recombine with other circular DNAs

106
Q

what does integration mean when taking about F-plasmids

A

the F-plasmids can recombine with the baterial chromosome to become apart of the bacterial DNA

107
Q

where does the F-factor recombination happen at on the bacterial chromosome

A

at the IS element

108
Q

integrated F-plasmids form…

A

Hfr chromosomes

109
Q

Hfr chromosomes can facilitate

A

transfer of pieces of chromosomal DNA–> make another cell lac + by giving its portion of the f-plasmid dna (i think through recombination but dont quote me on this )_

110
Q

what are the two mechanisms where F-plamids can facilitate chromosomal DNA

A

1) Hfr gene transfer
2)F Factor excision

111
Q

What is Hfr gene transfer

A

when a part of the F-factor sequence moves through the pilus, some bacterial genes go along for the ride

112
Q

F-factor excision

A

when F-factor sequence seperates from Hfr chromosome s and carries a piece of chromosomal DNA –> f factor becomes plasmid again

113
Q

the F factor plasmid found in the 1950s did not carry

A

antibiotic resistance genes

114
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Today, R plasmids containing antibiotic-resistance genes are often isolated
from resistant bacteria.

115
Q

R plasmids evolved from the F-factor plasmid BUT

A

but they
carry antibiotic-resistance genes (sometimes >1)

116
Q

what is an example of darwinian evolution

A

A rare variant (F-factor that obtained resistance
gene) became common due to selective pressure…

117
Q

Can bacteria be diploid?

A

yes, for certain genes
ex: f factor excission–> In this case, after receiving the F’ plasmid with chromosomal DNA, the recipient bacterium can have two copies of certain genes—one copy on the chromosome and one on the plasmid. This is diploid-like, but it’s not the same as true diploidy in eukaryotes, where two copies of each gene exist in each cell’s chromosomal set.

118
Q

Transduction

A

when bacterial DNA is transferred from one bacterial cell to another by a phage

119
Q

how may the transferred DNA in transduction be intergated

A

by recombination –> rare

120
Q

Phage life cyle (transduction

A
  1. Injection of DNA by phage
  2. takeover of bacterial cell; production of phage proteins; replication of phage DNA
    3: DNA packaged into pahe;assembly of phage particle
    4: lysis –> phages released into environment
121
Q

most phage particles carry what DNA

A

only phage DNA occassional phage particles carry bacterial DNA

122
Q

Bacterial Transformation in the lab step by step

A
  1. uptake of DNA by compentent bacteria
  2. DNA may be integrated into genome or exists as a plasmids
123
Q

What are the DNA containing organelles

A

chloroplasts and mitochondria

124
Q

chloroplats location and function

A

found in plants and algae
capture sunlight energy (photosynthesis)

125
Q

Mitochondira function

A

powerhouse of the cell
generate enegry from breaking down lipids and carbs

126
Q

UNIparental inheritance of leaf color is explained by …

A

maternal inheritance of chloroplast DNA

127
Q

Homoplasmic

A

all copies of genes are the same

128
Q

Heteroplasmic

A

mixture of alleles

129
Q

Homoplasmic cells can give rise to

A

homoplasmic cells

130
Q

heteroplasmic cells can give rise to

A

homo OR heteroplasmic gametes

131
Q

homoplasmic or heteroplasmic comes from where

A

THE MOTHER

132
Q

what types of progeny will result from a fertilization of a homoplasmic mutant female plant by pollen from heteroplasmic mutant plant

A

only homoplasmic mutants

133
Q

What makes organellar inheritance different from nuclear inheritance?

A
  1. can be uniparental (only get from one parent)
  2. Multiple organelles in each cell
  3. Each chloroplasts/ mitochondria has multiple copies of organellar genome
  4. Traits controlled by organellar DNA can be influenced by nuclear genes (EPISTASIS)
134
Q

how is the organelle genome packaged?

A

into nucleoids containing multiple copies of DNA

135
Q

the mutant allele can eventually become….

A

homoplasmic

136
Q

After fertilization the zygote retains what from the mother

A

mitochondira

137
Q

true or false: The inheritance patterns of x-linked genes and mitochondrial genes are the same.

138
Q

true or false: Reciprocal crosses can reveal uniparental inheritance.

139
Q

true or false: Homoplasmy means that a cell’s mitochondrial DNA is all identical.

140
Q

true or false: A heteroplasmic cell can yield a homoplasmic daughter cell.

141
Q

Mitochondiral DNA inheritance in mammals

A

uniparental –> maternal

142
Q

implications of mitochondria DNA inheritance

A
  1. human genetic disease due to mtDNA mutations are maternally inherited
  2. Can examine maternal genealogies of a human population
    (simpler than nuclear DNA – no Dad, no recombination, higher mutation rate
    means more distinct alleles – can ID grandmas)
    -> Example: Native American origin from populations in Siberia
143
Q

some mitochondrial proteins are encoded in the

144
Q

Mutations in mitochondrial DNA can lead to

A

pleiotropic diseases

145
Q

LHON, a mitochondrial disease,….

A

is partially penetrant.

146
Q

Mitochondrial Function depends on what

A

NUCLEAR AND mitochondrial encoded genes

147
Q

leigh syndrome symptoms

A

a severe neurological disorder –>
Symptoms: worsening mental and motor functions, typically results in death by early infancy

148
Q

what can cause leigh syndrome

A

mutation in more than 75 genes

149
Q

what do all mutations taht cause leigh syndrome have in common?

A

all mutations affect mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation

150
Q

describe the gene ratio of the leigh syndrome genes

A
  • ~75% of the genes are nuclear – both autosomal and X-linked
  • ~25% of cases – mutations are in mitochondrial genes
151
Q

Method 1 of Embryo Repair -IVF

A

take parents embryo(where mitochondria are unhealthy) remove parents nucleus and insert into donor embryo(where nucleases have been destroyed and mitochondria are healthy)

152
Q

is method one of IVF approved or not in the us and in the uk?

A

An IVF Approach for Mitochondrial Disease was approved in the UK in 2015
Not legal in the US

153
Q

Method 2: Egg repair IVF

A

mother egg has unhealthy mitochondria so mothers nucleaur is removed an place in a donors egg where nucleus has been destroyed and mitochondria is healthy

154
Q

is method 2 IVF approved or not in UK and US

A

An IVF Approach for Mitochondrial Disease was approved in the UK in 2015
Not legal in the US

155
Q

WHat is development

A

is the process by which a zygote matures into an adult

156
Q

through development an organisms genotyope is expressed as a

157
Q

process of development is controlled by

A

developmental genes

158
Q

what type of disease results from mutations in developmental genes

A

congenitial disorders

159
Q

what has remarkable similarities between different animals

A

development

160
Q

what are some model organisms used in developmental genetics

A

drosophilar, zebrafish, mouse

161
Q

what is the best model organism

A

fruit flys- drosophila

162
Q

how long is the life cycle of drosophilia

A

short –> 10 days –> with embryogenesis taking
place via a series of rapid,
genetically controlled
changes

163
Q

drosophila development is a paradigm for

A

animal development

164
Q

what type of segmentation does drosophila have – and how many of each

A

a typical segmentation with eight abdominal and three thoracic segments clearly visible

165
Q

describe Genetic screenings old version

A

add mutagen to fly so that P0 will have gametes with random mutations
look for abnormal phenotypes in F1 and F2 progeny
Map genes

166
Q

WHat is the problem with genetic screenings old version

A

most mutations result in lethality and no adult flies

167
Q

Landmark screens in Drosophila led to

A

the identification of the basic toolkit of genes required for establishing the embryonic body plan

168
Q

describe the modern version of genetic screening

A
  1. add mutagen to P0
  2. P0 will have gametes with random mutations
  3. look for abnormal phenotypes in EMBRYO and LARVAE on F1 and F2 progeny
  4. Map genes
169
Q

describe F1 screening and dominant mutations

A

Dominant mutations are rare, but easy
to observe in a F1 screen
* + = WT

170
Q

how many round of mutations are required to identify recessive mutations

171
Q

loss of function mutations are common and usually …

172
Q

screenings are ….

A

TIME CONSUMINg lots of crosses

172
Q

what is the modern genetic screening known as

A

Heidelberg screening

173
Q

the phenotype of the mutated gene reveals the …

A

purposed of the unmutated gene

174
Q

what are coordinate genes

A

defines axis of embryo

175
Q

what do mutations in coordinate genes look like and what is it called

A

bicoid
mutations result in the loss of segments and mirror image duplications of other segments

176
Q

what are gap genes

A

defines broad region of the embryo

177
Q

what are the types of gap gene mutatations

A

Kruppel
Hunchback
Knirps

178
Q

what do mutations in gap genes do

A

mutations result in the loss of contiguous sets of segments –> missing genes

179
Q

what is the pair rule gene

A

defines segments of the embryo

179
Q

what is a result of a mutation in the pair rule gene

A

loss of alternate parasegments

180
Q

what are the types of pair rule gene mutations

A

even skipped, odd-skipped

181
Q

what is the segment polarity gene

A

defines anterior and posterior regions of individual segments

182
Q

what do mutations in segment polarity gene cause

A

defects within anterior or posterior regions of each segment

183
Q

what are the types of mutations in segment polarity genes

A

gooseberry
hedgehog

184
Q

Virtually all genes discovered in Heidelbergs screens were

A

transcription and signal molecules

185
Q

Embryonic patterning genes are highly –>

186
Q

hh gene in vertebrates is called

A

sonic hedgehod (Shh)

187
Q

Disrupting hedgehog activity results in

A

severe embryonic defects like cyclopia, holoprosencephaly, limb malformations and cancer

188
Q

Heidelberg Drosophila screen identified
600 mutants but only 120 genes?

A

Because many mutations cause by the different genes

188
Q

Mutations in Shh limb enhancer played
important role in

A

evolution of limblines in snakes

189
Q

Homeotic genes specify the…

A

anatomical identity of segments

190
Q

example of homeotic genes:

A
  1. Different genes turned on in
    different segments.
  2. Mutations in a homeotic gene
    causes transformation of one
    body segment into another
  3. The Hox genes are
    conserved (similar) in all
    animals from insects to
    humans