Midterm Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 4 critical cell systems involved in necrosis?
A
Cell membranes, mitochondria, RER, genetic material
2
Q
What are the 2 common changes associated with reversible cell inury?
A
cell swelling and fatty change
3
Q
What is the term for a cell that is “diluted” by all the extra water in swelling?
A
ballooning degeneration
4
Q
What 3 problems caused by calcium leaking into a cell?
A
cytoskeletal dissociates, activates phospholipases, gap junctions seperate
5
Q
What 3 things can cause direct membrane damage leading to cell swelling?
A
ionophores, free radicals, toxins
6
Q
Why is cell swelling in the myocardium so damaging?
A
seperation of actin-myosin microfilaments and alters contraction and ion shifts affect depolarization
7
Q
What 3 stains can be used to stain fat in frozen sections?
A
oil red O, sudan black, or osmium tetroxide
8
Q
What are the 4 cytoplasmic changes seen during lethal cell injury (necrosis)?
A
hypereosinophilic and hyalin cytoplasm
eosin or baso granules
fragmentation
baso crystals - calcification
9
Q
What gross changes will be seen if blood supply is reduced or interrupted in a tissue?
A
paler, reduced in volume
10
Q
What gross changes will be seen in a tissue with adequate blood supply?
A
darker, swollen
11
Q
What is coag necrosis a sign of pathologically?
A
blood supply completely cut off
12
Q
What tissue undergoes liquefactive necrosis without bacterial infection?
A
CNS
13
Q
What 2 bacteria cause caseous necrosis frequently?
A
M. tuberculosis and Corynebacterium ovis
14
Q
What are the 2 basic mechanisms of lethal cell injury?
A
interference with energy supply
direct damage to cell membrane
15
Q
What is the key biochemical event that results in progression of necrosis (point of no return)?
A
high amplitude swelling caused by mitochondrial permability transition (MPT)
16
Q
What causes the histological finding of blue granules in a damaged cell?
A
flocculent densities - calcium salts, denatured proteins, degraded membrane lipids
17
Q
What is happening at “point of no return” besides MPT?
A
ribosomes detach from ER, pyknosis, calcium activated membrane phospholipases
18
Q
When does autolysis start to occur in a PCT cell?
A
2-4 hours after anoxia
19
Q
What time frame can a cell be seen as necrotic by light microscopy?
A
2-4 hours, after lysozymes start
20
Q
What are the reasons for the amount of damage caused by repurfusion injury?
A
lots of e-, ETC produces superoxide anion –> free radical damage, also swelling from blood flow
21
Q
What is the most common free radical?
A
Superoxide anion O2-
22
Q
What is the most damaging free radical?
A
Hydroxyl radical OH-
23
Q
What molecules in the cell membrane can be sources of free radicals?
A
unsaturated lipid
24
Q
What are 4 cytosolic constituents that generate free radicals?
A
xanthine oxidase, catecholamines, metal ions (cu and fe) and inflammatory cells
25
What are the 2 antioxidant scavengers in a cell?
Vit E and C
26
What cell detoxification mechanism that needs selenium to work?
Glutathione peroxidase
27
What do liver and inflammtory cells have that helps detoxify H2O2?
catalase enzymes
28
What enzyme converts O2- to H2O2?
superoxide dismutases
29
What enzyme takes GSH and conjugates it to be inactivated and excreted?
glutathione S-transferases
30
Basic detoxification scheme
O2- + SOD --\> H2O2 +glutathione peroxidase --\> GSH + glutathione S-transferases --\> excretion
31
What is the main underlying biochemical trigger with membrane injury that leads to cell death? What type of injury is it most apparent in?
influx of Ca++
reperfusion injury
32
What small protein releases cyotochrom c during apoptosis?
APAF-1 (apoptosis activating factor)
33
What are the 6 major events in apoptosis?
1. protein synthesis
2. sustained elevation in Ca++
3. controlled MPT
4. eversion of phospholipid bilayer
5. activation of Ca Mg dependen endonulease
6. PARP inactivated --\> DNA
34
What are the family of enzymes that cleave other proteins in odd places to turn on pro-apoptotic enzymes?
caspases
35
What is caspase 9 activated by?
injury or removal of hormonal stimulation (via APAF -1/cyochrome c complex)
36
What are the 2 activators of caspase 3 triggered by cytotoxic T-cells or NK cells?
Caspase 1- and granzyme B
37
What is the activator of caspase 3 in receptor mediated apoptosis?
caspase 8
38
Which caspase is responsible for the morpholigical changes during apoptosis?
caspase 3
39
What enzyme keeps phosphatidyl serine inside cell membrane when apoptosis is NOT occuring?
translocase
40
What enzyme is activated during eversion of the phospholipid bilayer by caspase 9, atp and ca?
scramblase
41
What is attracted to the phosphatidyl serine residues during apoptosis?
macrophages
42
What enzyme requires selenium to work in detoxifying H2O2?
glutathione **peroxidase**
43
What enzyme causes ds DNA cleavage at linker regions to create 200 bp DNA fragments during apoptosis?
Ca-Mg- dependent endonuclease
44
What are the 2 basic ways apoptosis can be triggered?
induction and release phenomenon
45
Which trigger of apoptosis leads to a lag of 2-6 hours before the process begins?
induction
46
What are the 4 ways apoptosis can be "induced"?
Receptor mediated (caspase 8)
Mild membrane injury (caspase 9)
Alterations in glutathione metabolism
nitric oxide
47
What are the 2 ways apoptosis can be triggered by a "release phenomenon"?
withdrawal of trophic hormones
removal or inhibition of stimulus of protein synthesis
48
Which trigger of apoptosis is suppressed by a suppressor protein with short half life?
release phenomenon
49
Which caspase is activated during removal of stimulus of protein synthesis to cause apoptosis?
caspase 9
50
What are the 4 examples of cells undergoing apoptosis due to release phenomenon via stopping suppressor synthesis?
Erythroidstem cells (no EPO)
Myelooid stem cells (no CSF)
Basal cells in epidermis (no EGF)
Prostate (no testosterone)
51
What cell organelle is thought of as the "apoptosis sensor"?
mitochondria
52
What are 3 examples of "DAMPS"?
extracellular ATP, adenosine, uric acid
53
What cellular fragments are especially bio active in eliciting a response from neutrophils and macrophages?
lipid fragments
54
What cells will release mediators of inflammation if they are disturbed?
endothelial cells
55
How can hemoglobin imbibition be distinguised from ante mortem hemorrhage?
hemo imbibition can be rubbed or rinsed off
56
What is the term for hydrogen sulfide gas leaches through intestinal wall and makes the organ black?
pseudomelanosis
57
Where is acid hematin usually seen?
stomach and intestinal tract
58
What is the term for visualization of blood that has pooled in certain areas of the body after death?
Livor mortis
59
What is the term for the cooling of the body after death?
algor mortis
60
What can cause settling of blood to dependent organs antemortem?
hypostatic congestion
61
What organ autolyses extremely quickly?
liver tissue near gall bladder
62
What is a diagnositic lesion of enterotoxemia in sheep?
pulpy kidneys - rapid autolysis due to higher glucose level at death
63
What are the 4 histological criteria for determining if a lesion is post mortem?
1. lack of inflammtion
2. saprophytic bacteria
3. uniformity of cell degeneration
4. lysed rbcs in bv (red cell ghosts)
64
What are the 6 main conditions that lead to fatty liver?
1. sudden starvation
2. impaired carb metabolism (diabetes)
3. inadequate oxidation of fats (hypoxia)
4. impairment of protein synthesis (of apoprotein)
5. nutritional deficiencies
6. direct impairment of lipid transport
65
What are the 2 nutritional deficiencies that can lead to fatty liver?
methionine (part of apoprotein)
choline (backbone of phospholipid)
66
What can be a reason for direct impairment of lipid transport out of the liver?
alcohol consumption
67
What kind of fat accumulates in myocardial cells during conditions of hypoxia?
triglycerides
68
Which species has normal lipid droplets in its PCTs?
cats
69
Where is lipid accumulation in the CNS usually seen? What are the macrophages called when they accumulate lipid in the CNS?
White matter, esp myelin
"gitter cells"
70
What can cause foamy macrophages in the lungs?
chronic pulmonary dz --\> phospholipid rich surfactant
71
What types of fat usually accumulates in foamy macrophages?
structural lipids (not nutritional ones)
72
What disease is caused by ingesting toxic or rancid lipids or can be caused by "wear and tear" in diary cattle?
xanthomatosis
73
What causes dogs with hypothyroidism to develop artherosclerosis?
high serum cholesterol and hyperlipidemia
74
What 2 complex fats, if missing their enzymes, cause lipid accumulation within lysosomes?
gangliosides and cerebrosides
75
What is a classic example of **acquired** lysosomal storage dz?
gentamicin toxicity (in the PCT)
76
What condition can lead to fatty replacement?
previous inury, fat replaces lost parenchyma
77
Where is serous atrophy of fat usually seen in the body?
**coronary grooves**, perirenal area, mesentary, BM, retrobulbar regions
78
What stains carbohydrates bright pink?
PAS
79
What are the 2 molecules associated with defective lysosomal degradation of complex carbs?
Mucopolysaccharidoses and mannosidoses
80
What 2 species can get mucopolysacchaidoses?
cats and humans
81
What species can be affected by mannosidoses?
cats, goats, cattle
82
What toxicity can lead to acquired mannosidoses?
Swainsonine toxicity (ruminants out west, ddx scrapie)
83
What is the term for bright eosinophilic glassy granules within the cytoplasm or tissue stroma?
84
What are the 2 different types of hyalin change?
aging change
arteriosclerosis (hardening of arteries)
85
What proteins leads to accumulation of hyalin change in hepatocytes and is an indicator of cell inury?
microfilaments, microtubules, cytosolic proteins
86
What tissue will develop hyalin change as a result of Vit E/Se deficiency?
skeletal muscle
87
What 2 causes of hyalin change are a result of excessive uptake of proteinaceous material?
glomerulopathy (uptake seen in renal tubular cells) and albumin uptake (in ultrafiltrate)
88
What is the term for extracellular hyalin change that has coagulated in the tubular lumina?
hyalin casts
89
What are the lamiinated glycoprotein bodies that form in the prostate, mammary gland, and brain from protein secretions and sloughed cells?
corpora amylacea
90
What condition can cause hyalin membranes in premature infants? What is the hyalin made out of?
interstital pneumonia
combo of surfactant and plasma protein from leaky vessels
91
What is the source of amyloid?
extracellular protein that is the result of abnormal processing
92
What does 10-15% of amyloid derived from that is necessary for stabilizing the Beta pleated to sheet that resists break down?
P-component
93
What gives amyloid it's starch like staining characteristics?
small amount of complex polysaccharides
94
How does amyloid appear histologically?
extracellular eosinophilic fibrillar material
95
What can cause the amyloid to turn bright yellow green?
Congo red stain and polarized light
96
What condition causes primary amyloidosis?
plasma cell tumor in lymphoid tissue
97
What is the source of amyloid in primary amyloidosis?
light chains produced from a monoclonal gammopathy
98
\*What are the 2 preferred deposition places in systemic primay amyloidosis?
renal glomerular mesangium
small arterioles in the spleen
99
What can be found in the urine during primary amyloidosis?
bence-jones proteinuria
100
What kind of amyloid is deposited in seconday amyloidosis?
amyloid A (AA)
101
What is the source of amyloid A?
derived from acute phase proteins released in inflammation or as cholesterol transport protein
102
What are the 2 predisposing factors of an animal that cause secondary amyloidosis from inflammtion?
overproduction of SAA (acute phase protein)
defective processing of SAA
103
What is the most common site for amyloid deposition in dogs?
glomeruler tuft
104
What can be a secondary histological change of amyloid deposition in glomeruler tufts in dogs?
hyalin casts because of leaky tubules
105
Where is amyloid usually deposited in all species besides dogs?
interstitium of renal medulla - abyssynian cats, small ruminants
106
What is the second most common place for amyloid to deposit in species other than dogs?
space of Disse (b/w hepatic sinusoids and hepatocytes)
107
Where can amyloid accumulate in horses?
makes nodules in the skin - chronic skin infections
108
What is the condition associated with formation of amyloid in pacreatic islets or thyroid follicles?
endocrine amyloid (esp **cats** in pancreas)
109
Where is "senile amyloid" usually found?
CNS. esp cerebral cortex --\>senile plaques
110
How do birds metabolize amino acids?
AA -\>glycine, glutamate -\>uric acid (excreted
111
How do mammals excrete amino acids?
AA -\> aspartate, NH3 --\>urea cycle -\>urea
112
What does the liver do to vitamin D3?
hydroxylated
113
What are the 4 main promotions of vitamin D3?
- absorb Ca + P from intestine
- increase Ca uptake in kidney
- increase Ca release from bone
- negative feedback on PTH
-
114
What causes PTH to be released?
plasma calcium levels are depressed
115
What are the 3 main actions of PTH?
1. increase Ca from bone
2. increase phosphate excretion by kidney
3. promote conversion of vitamin D
116
What hormone is the negative feedback regulator of calcium?
calcitonin
117
Where is calcitonin formed?
C-cells in the thyroid
118
What is calcitonins main role?
couteract PTH - lower Ca levels
119
What are calcium deposits like histologically?
basophilic granular deposits
120
What special stain can sometimes identify calcification in tissues?
von kossa
121
What type of calcification happens in tissues that are dead or dying and no elevated plasma calcium?
dystrophic calcification
122
What are the 3 tissues especially prone to calcification?
myocardium, skeletal muscle, and kidney medulla
123
What does calcium interact with to cause saponification?
membrane phospholipids and free fatty acids
124
What tissues are metastatic calcification seen most frequently?
GI mucosa, BV, lung, kidney, and basement membranes
125
What are the 3 causes of hypervitaminosis D?
oversupplementation
rodenticides
cetain plants
126
What will the calcium and phosphorus levels be with hypervitaminosis D?
hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
127
What are the 2 organs most affected by hypervitaminosis D?
kidney --\> renal failure, death
pulmonary calcification --\> young dogs
128
What will the calcium and phosphorus levels be like in hyperparathyroidism?
hypercalcemia and HYPOphosphatemia
129
What is a gross lesion caused by primary hyperparathyroidism?
fibrous osteodystrophy
130
What are the 2 main tumors that can lead to pseudohyperparathyroidism?
apocrine gland tumors in anal sac
T cell lymphosarcomas
131
What is the most common cause of disruption of calcium homeostasis in animals?
renal secondary hyperparathyroidism
132
What breed is especially prone to nutritional hyperparathyroidism?
siamese cats
133
What causes big head disease in horses?
all bran diets - very high is phosphorus
134
What 2 type of bacteria have sticky polymers that allow to form plaques?
actinomycetes and streptococci
135
What mineral converts plaque to calculus in horses?
calcium carbonate
136
What mineral converts plaque to calculus in dogs and cats?
calcium phosphate
137
Term for mineralized stones in lumens of hollow organs?
lithiasis
138
What species most commonly get lithiasis?
dogs, cats, ruminants
139
What is the major urinary calculi found in pastured ruminants?
silica calculi
140
What urolith is found especially in the dalmation breed? What does it look like?
uric acid/urate calculi
hard and yellow to brown
141
What is the urolith found in cats, dogs, and ruminants and is made up of magnesium ammonium phosphate?
struvite calculi
142
What drug can be used in affected dalmations with uric calculi?
allopurinol - inhibits conversion of xanthine to uric acid
143
What urolith is commonly seen in bulldogs and certain other breeds?
cysteine calculi
144
What is now the most common urolith seen in dogs and persians?
oxalate uroliths - formed in acidic urine
145
What is the term for concretions in the salivary duct?
sialoliths
146
What is the vet term for hairball?
trichobezoar
147
What enzyme do mammals have to to avoid gout?
uricase
148
How do birds and reptiles cope with having to excrete uric acid?
recirculating water absorbed in the colon through the kidneys to "flush them out"
149
What mainly causes gout in birds and reptiles?
dehydration or renal failure
150
What is the term for chalky white starburst masses of uric acid crystals?
tophi
151
What drug used in snakes can cause gout?
gentamicin
152
What 2 nutritional problems can lead to gout in birds and reptiles?
deficient in Vitamin A
high in protein
153
What molecule is deposited in the lung during silicosis?
Silicon dioxide
154
What type of large animals have bright yellow fat as a result of uptake of carotenoids?
horses, jersey cattle, and guernsey cattle
155
What antibioticc causes a yellow discoloration of teeth if given to a developing animal?
tetracycline
156
What are the gross lesions associated with lead ingestion?
geenish black lead lines along gums and intestines
157
Where does copper accumulate in all healthy animals?
within lysosomes of the liver
158
What does toxic copper accumulation look like histologically?
golden brown granules along with lots of hepatic damage
159
What are 2 special stains used to differentiate copper form bilirubin and iron?
rhodamine red or rubeanic acid
160
What breed of dogs can get hereditary disorder preventing elimination of unwanted copper?
**bedlington terrier**, also west highland, skye, dobermans and keeshounds
161
What does a sheep show clinically when its having a copper crisis?
will usually also have hemolytic crisis (sensitive RBCS)
162
What are 3 factors that can predispose sheep to copper toxicity?
diet high in copper or low in molybdenum, or hepatotoxin
163
What are some enzymes that rely on porphyrin rings to hold metals for them to fxn?
hemoglobin, myoglobin, CYP450, catalase, vitamin B12, others in electron transport chain
164
What are the 2 types of congenital porphyria found in cattle?
photosensitization alone (porphyrin not pigmented)
photosensitization AND discoloration of teeth
165
What type of congenital porphyrin is found in swine?
no photosensitization but has discolored teeth
166
What causes primary photosensitization?
chemical - direct action of agent, no intemediate steps
examples include phenothiazines, plants like buckwheat and spring parsley
167
What is the main chemical responsible for secondary photosensitization?
phylloerythrin (chemical leftover after plant digestion)
168
What is the pathogenesis of secondary photosensitization?
ruminant liver is damaged - cannot excrete phylloerythrin
169
What molecule is needed to convert tyrosine to DOPA in melanocytes?
copper dependent
170
What type of melanin is pale and redder than regular melanin?
phaeomelanin
171
What type of hypopigmentation do siamese cats have?
acromelanism
172
What is pseudomelanosis?
discoloration of tissues after death by blood pigments
173
What does lipofuscin and ceroid look like grossly?
brownish cast - "brown atrophy"
174
Where are lipofuscin and ceroid pigments located histologically?
within lysosomes near nucleas - especially in muscle cells
175
What stains will demonstrate both lipofuscin and ceroid?
sudan blacck, AFIP(red) and schmori's stain (dark blue)
176
What stain will differentiate ceroid from lipofuscin?
ceroid will stain with ziel-nielsen
177
What 3 nutritional deficiences lead to lipofuscin accumulation?
vit E/selenium
thiamine - polioencephalomalacia (neurons)
178
What color will the plasma be in myoglobinuria?
NOT discolored
179
What causes most of the damage in hemoglobinuric nephrosis?
shock and hypoxia associated with anemia (not the hemoglobin)
180
What are the 3 gross lesions associated with hemoglobinemia?
bright color to plasma
gun metal kidney especially in sheep
purple red urine
181
What causes methemoglobin?
conversion to oxidized **ferric** state of heme group
182
What is the prime example of methemoglobinemia?
nitrite poisoning in cattle
183
What are the 2 clinical signs of carboxyhemoglobinemia?
blood is bright cherry red
global anoxia
184
What blood protein transfers iron to the liver or bone marrow?
transferrin
185
What protein is complexed with iron to form a protein shell during recycling?
ferritin
186
Where are hemosiderin granules found histologically?
macrophages or hepatocytes
187
What are the 3 causes of systemic hemosiderosis?
large scale hemolysis
large hemorrhage
after an iron injection (baby pigs)
188
What type of hemosiderosis is found in aged animals in the spleen?
siderotic plaques - brown blackish color
189
What are the other 2 pigments that can look like hemosiderin in macrophages?
melanin or lipofuscin
190
What are 4 pigments hemosiderin can be mistaken for in hepatocytes?
bile, bilirubin, copper or lipofuscin
191
What is the special stain for hemosiderin?
prussian blue (aka perl's stain\_
192
What happens to billirubin after it is made in the macrophage?
binds to albumin for transport to liver as uncojugated bilirubin
193
What is the "bottleneck" step for bilirubin excretion?
transporting out conjugated bilirubin into bile
194
What happens to bilirubin in the intestine?
gets converted to urobilinogen --\> stercobilinogen --\> stercobilin
195
What does the feces look like when there is excess bilirubin? What if no bilirubin?
excess --\> orange
none --\> pale (acholic)
196
What is the only kind of bilirubin found in the urine?
conjugated (water soluble)
197
What kind of bilirubin will be found in the blood if there is pre-hepatic jaundice due to hemolysis?
unconjugated slightly more than conjugated
198
What kind of bilirubin is found in hepatic jaundice?
much more conjugated bilirubin
199
What kind of bilirubin will be found in post hepatic jaundice?
almost entirely conjugated bilirubin
200
What does van den bergh test measure?
direct - conjugated bili
indirect - unconjugated bili
201
What are 2 types of physiological icterus?
fasting horses
neonatal jaundice in humans
202
How do birds and reptiles excrete their heme?
stop at biliverdin and excrete through urine
203
What pigment is composed of biliverdin that formed spontaneously at sights of hemorrhage?
hematoidin
204
What does hematoidin look like histologically?
brilliant yellow-cgreen crystals
205
What are the 2 pathological causes of hyperemia?
acute inflammation, neovascularization (tissue repair)
206
What is the gross appearance of tissue that has passive congestion?
dark red, purple, or bluish
207
What is the term for pooling of blood shortly before death?
hypostatic congestion
208
What causes nutmeg liver?
acute passive hepatic congestion
209
What does the liver look like in chronic passive hepatic congestion?
fibrotic and pale centrilobular zones with periportal zones that are congested and dark red
210
What is the pathologensis of a jugular pulse?
right heart failure
211
Do lungs become alkalotic or acidotic during LHF?
acidotic
212
Term for leakage of RBCs across capillary walls/
hemorrhage by diapedesis
213
Term for right heart failure caused by pilmonary arterial hypotension.
cor pulmonale
214
Term for rupture of alveolar septa and leads to loss of capillary beds that causes increased pulmonary arteriolar BP.
emphysema
215
How does high altitude disease in cattle lead to RHF?
constriction of pulmonary arterioles
216
What is the difference between dilation and diltation?
dilation - normal physio limits
dilatation - lumenal expansion beyond limits
217
Term for generalized edema, usually in a fetus.
anasarca
218
What are the 4 ultimate etiologies of edema?
1. altered BP
2. altered osmotic pressure IV or tissue
3. altered endothelial integrity
4. altered lymphatic drainage
219
What classifies a transudate?
low protein, low cells
220
What classifies an exudate?
effusion with high protein and high ceullularity
221
Where does the exchange of water happen in edema?
beds of capillaries or small venules
222
What are the 2 factors that will force water OUT of capillaries?
Blood pressure
interstitial osmotic pressure
223
What are the 2 factors that cause water to pull into capillaries?
negative interstitial hydrostatic pressure
IV osmotic pressure
224
What 2 factors create a net flow of water from interstitium into capillaries?
dehydration (diarrhea, perspiration)
acute hemorrhage
225
Term for dark tarry stool from blood lost in upper GIT\>
melana
226
Term for red stool from blood lost in lower GIT.
hematochezia
227
What leads to the collapse of cerebral brains in intracranial hypertension from hemorrhage?
when high CSF pressure exceeds venous BP --\> collapse leads to congestion and edema
228
What are the 3 stages of color that a hemorrhage will have?
Dark red/blue --\> yellow (biliverdin/bilirubin) --\> brown (hemosiderin)
229
Vet term for a bruise.
contusion
230
Term for large scale hemorrhage often along fascial planes
suffusion hemorrhage
231
What does a multifocal distribution of hemorrhage suggest?
regional problem affecting BV or systemic problem effecting either BV or coagulation
232
What are the two types of vasculitis?
immune mediated
infections of endothelium (bluetonguee or African horse sickness)
233
Term for disruption of RBCs and staining of tissues with free hemoglobin.
hemoglobin imbibition
234
Term for hemorrhage into the anterior compartment of the eye
Hyphema
235
Term for coughing up blood.
hemoptysis
236
Term for vomiting of blood due to hemorrhage in the upper GIT.
hematemesis
237
What are the 3 basic causes of cardiogenic shock?
congestive heart failure
myocardial infarction
cardiac tamponade
238
What 3 types of causes of septic shock?
endotoxin (LPS)
gram + = superantigens
fungal infections
239
What are 2 causes of neurogenic shock?
anesthetic accidents
CNS trauma
240
What physiological mechanisms contribute to compensation of shock?
baroreceptor reflexes --\> peripheral vasoconstriction and increased HR
241
Does the body undergo metabolic acidosis or alkalosis during uncompensated shock?
acidosis (lactic acid build up)
242
What are 2 sequelae of hypoxic damage to the endothelium during uncompensated shock?
release of NO
systemic dilation of capillary beds
243
What leads to DIC in terminal shock?
sludging of blood in capillaries
244
What are the shock organs in the human and cat?
lung, larynx
245
What are the shock organs in the dog?
liver and GI tract
246
What are the shock organs in pigs and ruminants?
lungs
247
What are the shock organs in horses and rats?
GI tract
248
What are the shock organs in rabbits?
lung and heart
249
Where will necrosis be found in histologic findings of shock?
PCT, centrilobular hepatocytes
250
What is the "glue" that holds platelets to each other and to tissue?
activated clotting factors plus calcium
251
What 2 things do healthy endothelial cells have on the surface that help inactivate clotting factors?
HSPG (inactivates AT III)
Thrombomodulin (activates protein C + S which inactivates Factors Va and VIIIa)
252
What molecule drifts away from site of hemorrhage to bind to platelets and activate them?
thrombin
253
Which coagulation phase is when the platelet plug is actually formed?
propagation
254
What 3 molecules are the result of thrombin cleaving fibrinogen?
fibrinopeptide A
fibrinopeptide B
fibrin
255
What is the most important protein that is involved in fibrinolysis?
plasminogen
256
What normally keeps plasminogen inactivated?
PAI-1 (plasminogen activator inhibitor)
257
What lesion is seen grossly and histologically in arterial thrombi that consists of alternating layers of white and red?
lines of Zahn
258
What type of thrombi are formed in feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in the left auricle?
mural thrombi
259
What tpe of infarcts are arterial in origin?
white, pale, or anemic
260
