Final Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 4 original cardinal signs of inflammation?
A
Rubor, tumor, calor, dolor
2
Q
What is the general role of the vascular system in inflammation?
A
barrier, gate, regulator
3
Q
What is the definition of an acute phase protein?
A
levels must change >25% in either direction during first few days
4
Q
Where are most acute phase proteins produced?
A
liver
5
Q
What is the role of C-reactive protein in inflammation?
A
enhances complement formation
6
Q
What are examples of acute phase proteins?
A
C-reactive protein, fibrinogen, complement, hepcidin, fibronectin, SAA
7
Q
What is the main role of kinins?
A
potent, slow acting vasodilators that increase capillary permeability
8
Q
What is produced by neutrophils and parenchymal cells that activate bradykinin?
A
kallikreins
9
Q
What coagulation factor helps in the formation of bradykinin?
A
Activated Hageman Factor (XII)
10
Q
What complement components mediate histamine release from mast cells?
A
C3a and C5a (anaphylotoxins)
11
Q
What complement components act has chemoattractants for neutrophils?
A
C3b and C5a
12
Q
What complement components form the MAC?
A
C5b through C9
13
Q
What infection are individuals lacking C3 prone to?
A
pyogenic infetions
14
Q
What 2 things inactivate complement components?
A
plasma carboxypeptidases and specific fragment inhibitors
15
Q
What 3 cell types release both histamine and serotonin?
A
Mast cells, platelets, basophils
16
Q
What are the 5 types of eicosanoids?
A
Prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes, and lipoxins, hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acids (HETEs)
17
Q
What are all the eicosanoids derived from?
A
arachidonic acid
18
Q
What is the primary enzyme responsible for Arachidonic acid production?
A
PLA2 (phospholipase)
19
Q
What enzymes produce prostaglandins and thromboxanes?
A
cyclooxygenases (Cox-1 and 2)
20
Q
What are the 3 most important prostaglandins?
A
PGF2a, PGE2, PGD2
21
Q
What 2 cell types produce most of the prostaglandins?
A
macrophages and platelets
22
Q
What are the 2 basic roles of PGs?
A
increase bloodflow, mediating pain
23
Q
What are the 2 basic roles of thromboxanes?
A
vasoconstrictor, platelet aggregation
24
Q
What is the enzyme that initiates the leukotriene cascade and activated by high calcium levels?
A
lipooxygenase`
25
What are the 3 roles of LTB4 (leukotriene)?
chemotactic for neutros, stimulates plasma cells to increase Ig production, capillary permeability
26
What are the 3 unique roles of leukotriens LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4?
production of O2 metabolites, release of enzymes by all WBC types, induce airway sm muscle contraction
27
What eicosanoid is important in resolution phase of inflammation?
lipoxins (LXs)
28
How is PAF (platelet activating factor) produced?
PLA2 clips off AA, what is left of phospholipid is turned into PAF
29
What cells produce cytokines?
all nucleated cells, particularly leukocytes
30
What 2 cells produce type 2 interferons? What is the most important type 2 interferon?
TH1 and NK cells
| IFNgamma
31
What is the most important factor in activating macrophages?
IFNgamma
32
What 2 interleukins have the primary fxn of T-cell proliferation?
IL2 and IL15
33
What interleukin is responsible for fever, and t-cell and macrophage activation?
IL-1
34
What interleukin is responsible for acute phase protein production?
IL-6
35
What interleukin is associated with IFNgamma production, cell proliferation, NK and T-cell cytotoxicity?
IL-12
36
What interleukin suppresses macrophage fxn? Which one inhibits macrophage cytokine production?
fxn - IL-10
| decreased cytokines - IL-13
37
What interleukin just inhibits cell growth?
TGFbeta
38
What interleukin helps with eosinophil chemotaxis?
IL-5
39
What interleukin is responsible for neutrophil chemoxtaxis?
IL-8 (CXCL8)
40
Term for chemotactic proteins.
chemokines
41
What are the 3 cytokines that are mesenchymal growth factors?
EPO, TPO, CSF
42
What are 2 examples of roles of TNF?
induces apoptosis
| proliferate endothelial cells
43
What are the 3 specific roles of TNFalpha in inflammation?
acute protein synthesis
fever (via IL-1)
cachexia
44
What are 3 different kinds of adipokines?
leptin, adiponectin, resistin
45
What adipokine is critical for food satiation and induces TH1 response?
leptin
46
What adipokine increases insulin sensitivity and has anti-inflammatory fxns?
adiponectin
47
What adipokine contributes to insulin resistance and promotes TH1 response?
resistin
48
What is the absolute hallmark of inflammation?
exudates
49
What is the difference b/w exudates and transudates?
transudate - not inflammatory, low SG, low protein
50
How do DAMPs trigger inflammation?
stimulating cells to make pro inflammatory cytokines
51
What are the 6 preformed granules in mast cells?
heparin, histamine, serotonin, eosinophil chemotactic factor, PAF, tryptase
52
What enzyme breaks down fibrinogen and other clotting factors before they can be activated?
tryptase
53
What receptors do mast cells have for inflammatory stimuli?
FceRI (for IgE
complement receptors
PRRs (TLRs)
54
What kind of mast cells respond to T-cells rather than B-cells?
masts found in gut and lung
55
What is the reason that mast cells stain metachromatic?
heparin granules
56
Where are mast cells found in tissues exposed to the enivronment?
around vessels
| close to peripheral nerves
57
What is the major vasoactive amine in the cow?
serotonin
58
What is the role of platelets in inflammation?
perform neutrophil fxns in the blood
59
What is different about bird, reptile and amphibian platelets?
more motile, phagocytic
60
What are the 4 cell types involved in recognition of the inflammatory response (first)?
mast cells, resident macrophages, platelets, epithelial cells
61
What blood vessels are most affected during acute vascular response?
post capillary venules most dilated
62
What is the biphasic change in vascular permeability during acute vascular response of inflammation?
endothelial contraction, rapid and transitory (15-30m)
| retraction - delayed, prolonged, (4-24 hrs)
63
What are the 3 cell types involved in acute cellular response?
neutrophil, eosinophil, macrophage
64
What is the eosinophil role in acute cellular response?
elimination of persistent stimuli and regulation of acute mediator generated responses
65
What are the 3 cell types involved in chronic cellular response?
fibroblasts, lymphos, basophils
66
What are the 3 types of granules in a neutrophil?
azurophil, specific, and teritary
67
What are neutrophils called in birds and reptiles?
heterophils - stain pink or red
68
What is reversible adhesion and irreversible adhesion called in WBCs during inflammation?
reversible - margination
| irreversible - pavementing
69
What molecules are expressed on endothelium for WBCs to attach?
P-selectin (pre formed)
| E-selectin (stimulated by IL-1 or TNFa)
70
What molecule on WBCs binds to P and E selectin on endothelium to marginate?
P-selectin glycoprotein ligand 1
71
What WBC molecule recognizes adhesion molecules in gut, lymph nodes, mammary, and lung?
L-selectin
72
What must happen in order for WBCs to go from marginating to pavementing?
further stimulatiob by IL-1 and TNFa
73
What molecules/receptors are mediate WBCs to start diapedesis?
B2-integrin on WBC binds to ICAM-1 on endothelium
| PECAM1 on leukocytes then binds PECAM1 on junctions
74
What is the primary chemokine to attract neutrophils?
IL-8
75
What membrane enzyme in phagocytic vacuoles converts O2 to superoxide anion?
NADPH oxidase
76
What is the source of iron for a neutrophil to use in respiratory burst?
lactoferrin in the specific granules
77
What neutrophil molecule converts Cl- ions to powerful oxidizing agents?
myeloperoxidase (MPO) in azurophil granules
78
What are the 2 ways neutrophils deal with pathogens?
respiratory burst and neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)
79
What are the 2 things eosinophils are particularly good at?
killing parasites and activating mast cells
80
What are eosinophils good at responding to? bad at responding?
good - Ab-ag complexes, histamine
| bad - complement
81
What molecule from eosinophils can neutrilize heparin from mast cells?
eosinophil basic protein (EBP)
82
What is the major mediator affecting eosinophil production and activation? What cells produce it?
IL-5
| produced by TH2 lymphos and mast cells
83
What are the 4 cell types in the chronic response of inflammation?
macros, lymphos, basos, fibroblasts
84
What 3 cell types are considered "histiocytic cells"?
monocytes, macros, dendritic cells
85
What happens to monocytes in tissue that there is no overt inflammatory stimulus present?
fixed type histiocytic macrophage - align beneath or b/w endothelial cells
86
What two types of activation do macrophages undergo in inflammed tissue?
M1 - microbiocidal and pro-inflammatory
| M2 macrophage
87
What are the three different types of M2 macrophages?
M2a - scavenging cell
M2b - antigen presenting cell
M2c - regulatory cell
88
What are the 4 important roles of IL-1 when produced by M1 macrophages in inflammed tissue?
synthesis of acute phase proteins
express adhesion molecules
fever
important for granuloma formation
89
What is a very potent stimulator of IL-1?
bacterial endotoxin
90
What is the important role of IL-6 produced by M1 cells?
acute phase protein synthesis
91
What is the key interleukin in the maintenence of a granulmatous exudate?
IL-12
92
What are the two types of giant multinucleated macrophages?
Langerhans
| Touton giant cell -->peripheral cytoplasm is vacuolated
93
What are the two triggers for a macrophage to become a M1 macrophage?
IFNy and PAMPS or DAMPS
94
How do M1 macrophages generate free radicals?
use nitric oxide (rather than cl-)
95
What enzyme takes O2 and arginine and forms NO in the M1 cell?
inducible nitric oxidide synthase (iNOS)
96
What enzyme transports NO into the phagosome in the M1 macrophage?
Nramp1
97
What two free radicals are produced by NO reacting with O2 in the M1 macrophage?
No2- and OH-
98
What amount of macrophages in a chronic lesion are locally derived?
1/3
99
What happens to a macrophage after it ingests an apoptotic neutrophil?
redifferentiate into M2, produces IL-10 and TGF-B (transforming growth factor)
100
What is a prime example of serous exudate?
blister, allergic rhinitis
101
What are the places that serous exudate is usually seen?
upper resp, serous membranes lining peri areas
102
Where are the 2 places that catarrhal/mucus exudate occurs?
upper respiratory and GI tracts
103
What produces catarrhal exudate?
goblet cells
104
What type of exudate will be seen in E. coli intestinal infections in the rabbit?
catarrhal exudate
105
What exudate is characterized by neutrophils and bacterial infections?
suppurative (purulent)
106
What happens if suppurative exudate becomes somewhat dried out and caseous?
inspissated
107
What are two very common kinds of suppurative exudate in VM?
fibrinopurulent - lots of fibrin
| mucopurulent - upper resp tract
108
What do eosinophilic exudates look like grossly?
greenish tint
109
What are 3 different examples of eosinophilic exudates?
salt poisoning in pigs
sarcocystis cysts
intestinal nematodes in young
110
What are 2 examples of lymphocytic exudate?
respiratory mycoplasma infections in rats
| lentivirus in sheep
111
What term is used for predominantly lymphocytic and histiocytic exudates involving the CNS?
non-suppurative (special suptype of lymphocytic)
112
What pathogens result in necrotizing inflammation?
toxin-producing bacteria or cytolytic viruses
113
What makes up a pseudomembrane/diphtheritic membrane?
mixture of necrotic debris and fibrin in necrotizing inflammation
114
What is the term for necrotizing inflammation with predominately fibrin?
fibrinonecrotic
115
What is the prime example of necrohemorrhagic inflammation?
Clostridium perfringes in neonatal pigs
116
Term for complete breach of opithelium extending into the submucosa or deeper.
ulcer
117
What are 4 common causes of ulcers?
lytic viruses, toxin producing bacteria, direct toxins, stress
118
What are two causes of proliferative inflammation?
Proliferative ileitis in pigs - Lawsonia intracellularis
| Contagious ecthyma of sheep - poxvirus
119
What do epitheloid macrophages look like?
large amount of foamy cytoplasm, contains remnants of pathogen inside
120
What are the two basic morphological types of granulomas?
delayed type hypersensitivity
| foreign body form
121
What stain is used for mycobacterium?
Ziehl-nielsen
122
What is a common sequela to tuberculosis in birds?
amyloidosis
123
What is the difference between the lesion formed from tuberculosis vs. paratuberculosis?
tuberculosis - distinct fibrous capsules
| para - diffuse granulomatous exudate in ileum and lymph nodes
124
What are 3 examples of infection with Staph aureus causing pyogranulomatous response?
```
Scirrhous cord (castration)
puppy measles
botryomycosis (horses)
```
125
Term for granules containing bacteria surrounded by club like structures that are ab-ag complexes.
sulfur granules
126
What 2 bacteria cause sulfur granules?
```
Actinobacillus ligniersii (wooden tongue)
Actinomyces bovis (lumpy jaw)
```
127
What does Actinomyces bovis look like?
not acid fast but forms long gm+ filaments
128
What bacteria causes granulomatous osteomyelitis in cows? What can this bacteria cause in dogs and cats?
Actinomyces bovis
| dogs and cats - pyogranulmatous tomato soup pleuritis
129
What bacteria causes tuber like granuloma or tomato soup and is usually seen in hunting dogs?
Nocardiosis (Novardia asteroides)
130
What are the best stains for dimorphic fungi?
GMS or PAS
131
What two fungi cause a BB like pattern in the lung? Where can each disseminate to?
Blastomyces dermatidites - skin and eyes
| Histoplasma capsulatum - GI tract
132
What dimorphic fungi can spread from the nasal cavity into the brain?
Cryptococcus neoformans
133
What is the causitive agent of valley fever?
coccidiodes immitis, a dimorphic fungi
134
What are the two common hyphal fungi that can cause granulomas?
aspergillus fumigatus and mucor corymbifer
135
What species and tissues does Aspergillus fumigatus infect?
lungs and air sacs of birds
nasal cavity of dogs
gutteral pouch of horses
136
What does Aspergillus fumigatus look like under the microscope?
septate hyphae and segmented mycelia
137
What type of response happens when A. fumigatus gets into blood vessels?
necrotizing, necrosuppurative
138
What does Mucor corymbifer look like histologically?
non septate, branching mycelia
139
What diseases does Mucor corymbifer cause?
mycotic rumenitis, hepatitis, placentitis
140
Under what conditions does T. gondii elicit a granulomatous response?
young animal, in a fetus, distemper, immunosuppressed
141
What differentiates hyperthermia from pyrexia?
hyperthermia - not responsive to antipyretic drugs, does not involve cytokines
142
What cytokines are released that result in fever?
IL-1, TNFa, IFNy
143
What are the 5 types of molecules that result in the systemic acute phase response from inflammation?
Acute phase proteins, fibrinogen, complement, iron binding protein, fibronectins
144
What 3 things result in iron being sequestered during inflammation?
fe-transferrin decreases
lactoferrin removes Fe
Hepcidin - binds iron in gut
145
What is the role of glucocorticoids in systemic acute response of inflammation?
releases neutrophils from blood vessels
| lymphopenia and eosinopenia
146
Term for large macrophages becoming very prominent in cavities of the lymph node.
sinus histiocytosis
147
What is the main cause of cachexia?
TNFa (with help of Il1, IL6 and IFNy)
148
What are the manifestations of systemic inflammatory response syndrome? (SIRS)
shock, multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
149
What are the 3 features of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
dysfunction of CNS, acute myocardial failure, respiratory distress
150
What two bacteria produce protein kinase G which prevents fusion of phagosome with lysosome?
T, gondii and Mycobacterium
151
What bacteria survives digestion by inhibiting activity of enzymes like myeloperoxidase?
Brucella abortus
152
What can bacteria produce that remove iron from iron binding proteins in the body?
siderophores
153
What disease is from a genetic defection in lysosomal trafficking gene that prevents neutros from moving normally?
chedak-higashi syndrome
154
What dz is caused by defective NADPH oxidase therefore intracellular bacteria killing is impaired?
canine granulocytopathy syndrome
155
What species/breeds get leukocyte adhesion deficiency?
holstein calves, irish setter dogs
156
What species/breeds get SCID?
arabian foals, jack russel terriers
157
What dz is in boxers and is an accumulation of histiocytic type macrophages in lamina propria?
ulcerative histiocytic colitis
158
What 3 species/breeds get deficiencies in IgA?
airedale terriers, GSD, cattle
159
What are the three basic steps in healing?
1. hemostasis and acute inflammation
2. cell proliferation
3. remodeling
160
What 4 anti-inflammatory factors do macrophages produce after ingesting apoptotic PMN?
Lipoxin A4, Resolvin E1, IL-10, TGF-B
161
What are the roles of IL-10 in healing?
inhibits neutros, inhibits macro/dendritic cell fxn
162
Doctor word for scar?
cicatrix
163
What syndrome is caused by a non-B islet cell neoplasm and secretes gastrin?
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
164
What type of tumor can indirectly cause gastric ulceration?
mast cell tumor
165
What is the default staining for histopathology?
hematoxylin and eosin
166
Term for abnormally organized usually small mass of well differentiated tissue occuring in NORMAL location.
hamartoma
167
Term for small amount of normal tissue in an ABNORMAL location.
choristoma
168
What is difference b/w agensis and aplasia?
agenesis - no primordium
| aplasia - primordium failed to develop
169
What are three pathological examples of hyperplasia?
goiter, adrenocortical hyperplasia, prostatic hyperplasia
170
What is the most common type of metaplasia?
squamous metaplasia - in urogenital tract
| also osseous metaplasia
171
What are the two uses of the term "dysplasia"?
- abnormal organization
| - changes in epithelium (cell morph, architecture)
172
What are the 3 steps in carcinogenesis?
1. initiation - change in DNA
2. Promotion - stimulation of mitosis
3. Progression - more mutations
173
Term for an altered karyotype in which chromosomes are lost or gained.
aneuploidy
174
What enzyme helps in metastasis by digesting matrix proteins in basement membranes?
metalloproteinase enzymes
175
What two tumore suppressor genes are lost in almost all tumors? What are their roles?
Retinoblastoma gene - master swtich into mitosis
| p53 gene - guardian of the genome
176
What are the 3 fates of a cell that can no longer effectively repair DNA damage?
senescence
apoptosis
unregulated cell division
177
What gene is overexpressed in follicular lymphomas and leads to evasion of apoptosis?
bcl-2
178
What are the 5 round cell tumors?
lymphoma, plasma cell tumor, TVT, histiocytoma, mast cell tumor - all sarcomas
179
What do epithelial cell tumors look like?
tubules and acini
180
What growth factor is mutated in 50% cat mast cell tumors and 30% dog mast cell tumors?
ckit
181
What are the two negative acute phase proteins?
albumin and transferrrin
182
WWhat are the 3 groups of positive acute phase proteins?
a1 globulins - antitrypsin
a2 globulins - SAA, haptoglobin
b globulins - fibrinogen, complement, c-reactive protein
183
What are the major acute phase protein responders in cat, cow, dog, horse?
cat -SAA
cow - Haptoglobin, SAA
dog - C reactive protein and SAA
Horse - SAA
184
What is the role of tissue factor in inflammation?
activates kinins --> bradykinin
185
What are the 3 most common opsonins?
Igm/IgG
C3b
fibronectin
186
What causes mast cell granules to be blue?
HEPARIN
187
What eicosanoid is responisble for long term vascular permeability and leukocyte movement?
leukotriens
188
What are the 3 major proinflammatory interleukins?
Il-1 : fever, t cell and macrophage activation
IL - 6: acute phate protein production
IL-12: IFNy production, sustains inflammatory response
189
What are the 3 major anti-inflammatory interleukins?
IL-10: suppress Macrophage production
IL-13: inhibits Macrophage cytokin production
TGFB - inhibits cell growth
190
What are the 2 interleukins that proliferate T-cells?
IL2 and IL15
