Midterm 2 Drugs to Know Flashcards

1
Q

Optivar (azelastine)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer + antihistamine

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

mast cell stabilizer: prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Elestat (epinastine)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer + antihistamine

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

mast cell stabilizer: prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bepreve (bepotastine)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer + antihistamine

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

mast cell stabilizer: prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Patanol (olopatadine 0.1%)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer + antihistamine

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

mast cell stabilizer: prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pataday (olopatadine 0.2%)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer + antihistamine

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

mast cell stabilizer: prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pazeo (olopatadine 0.7%)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer + antihistamine

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

mast cell stabilizer: prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lastacaft (alcaftadine)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer + antihistamine

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

mast cell stabilizer: prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Alaway, Zaditor (ketotifen fumarate)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer + antihistamine

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

mast cell stabilizer: prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alocril (nedocromil)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer

prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Alomide (lodoxamide)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer

prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Crolom (cromolyn sodium)

A

topical mast cell stabilizer

prevents mast cell degranulation; prevents further release of histamine and newly formed inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Acular LS (ketorolac 0.4%)

A

topical NSAID

blocks the cyclooxygenase pathway; prevents inflammatory mediators from forming; increases the sensitivity threshold of nerve endings; helps alleviate itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acuvail (ketorolac 0.45%)

A

topical NSAID

blocks the cyclooxygenase pathway; prevents inflammatory mediators from forming; increases the sensitivity threshold of nerve endings; helps alleviate itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acular (ketorolac 0.5%)

A

topical NSAID

blocks the cyclooxygenase pathway; prevents inflammatory mediators from forming; increases the sensitivity threshold of nerve endings; helps alleviate itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nevanac (nepafenac 0.3%)

A

topical NSAID

blocks the cyclooxygenase pathway; prevents inflammatory mediators from forming; increases the sensitivity threshold of nerve endings; helps alleviate itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ilevro (nepafenac 0.3%)

A

topical NSAID

blocks the cyclooxygenase pathway; prevents inflammatory mediators from forming; increases the sensitivity threshold of nerve endings; helps alleviate itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Prolensa (bromfenac 0.07%)

A

topical NSAID

blocks the cyclooxygenase pathway; prevents inflammatory mediators from forming; increases the sensitivity threshold of nerve endings; helps alleviate itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bromsite (bromfenac 0.075%)

A

topical NSAID

blocks the cyclooxygenase pathway; prevents inflammatory mediators from forming; increases the sensitivity threshold of nerve endings; helps alleviate itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Voltaren (diclofenac 0.1%)

A

topical NSAID

blocks the cyclooxygenase pathway; prevents inflammatory mediators from forming; increases the sensitivity threshold of nerve endings; helps alleviate itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Alrex (loteprednol 0.2%)

A

topical corticosteroid

inhibits phospholipase A2 and stabilizes mast cells; prevents release of antihistamine; inhibits AA pathway which inhibits formation of inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lotemax (loteprednol 0.5%)

A

topical corticosteroid

inhibits phospholipase A2 and stabilizes mast cells; prevents release of antihistamine; inhibits AA pathway which inhibits formation of inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FML (fluorometholone alcohol 0.1%)

A

topical corticosteroid

inhibits phospholipase A2 and stabilizes mast cells; prevents release of antihistamine; inhibits AA pathway which inhibits formation of inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Flarex (fluorometholone acetate 0.1%)

A

topical corticosteroid

inhibits phospholipase A2 and stabilizes mast cells; prevents release of antihistamine; inhibits AA pathway which inhibits formation of inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pred Forte (prednisolone acetate 1%)

A

topical corticosteroid

inhibits phospholipase A2 and stabilizes mast cells; prevents release of antihistamine; inhibits AA pathway which inhibits formation of inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Veramyst

A

nasal corticosteroid

inhibits phospholipase A2 and stabilizes mast cells; prevents release of antihistamine; inhibits AA pathway which inhibits formation of inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Nasacort

A

nasal corticosteroid

inhibits phospholipase A2 and stabilizes mast cells; prevents release of antihistamine; inhibits AA pathway which inhibits formation of inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Flonase

A

nasal corticosteroid

inhibits phospholipase A2 and stabilizes mast cells; prevents release of antihistamine; inhibits AA pathway which inhibits formation of inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Medrol Dosepak

A

oral corticosteroid

inhibits phospholipase A2 and stabilizes mast cells; prevents release of antihistamine; inhibits AA pathway which inhibits formation of inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

phenylephrine 0.12%

A

topical decongestant

adrenergic agonist; act on alpha adrenergic receptors in conj blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction; provides only symptomatic relief, no effect on immune response to allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

naphazoline

A

topical decongestant

adrenergic agonist; act on alpha adrenergic receptors in conj blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction; provides only symptomatic relief, no effect on immune response to allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

tetrahydrozoline (visine)

A

topical decongestant

adrenergic agonist; act on alpha adrenergic receptors in conj blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction; provides only symptomatic relief, no effect on immune response to allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

oxymetazoline

A

topical decongestant

adrenergic agonist; act on alpha adrenergic receptors in conj blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction; provides only symptomatic relief, no effect on immune response to allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Naphcon-A (pheniramine maleate + naphazoline)

A

topical decongestant + antihistamine

topical decongestant: adrenergic agonist; act on alpha adrenergic receptors in conj blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction; provides only symptomatic relief, no effect on immune response to allergen

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cisine-A (pheniramine maleate + naphazoline)

A

topical decongestant + antihistamine

topical decongestant: adrenergic agonist; act on alpha adrenergic receptors in conj blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction; provides only symptomatic relief, no effect on immune response to allergen

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Opcon-A (pheniramine maleate + naphazoline)

A

topical decongestant + antihistamine

topical decongestant: adrenergic agonist; act on alpha adrenergic receptors in conj blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction; provides only symptomatic relief, no effect on immune response to allergen

antihistamine: binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Benadryl (diphenhydramine)

A

1st generation oral antihistamine

binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Phenergan (promethazine)

A

1st generation oral antihistamine

binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tavist (clemastine)

A

1st generation oral antihistamine

binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Chlor-trimeton (chlorpheniramine)

A

1st generation oral antihistamine

binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Allegra (fexofenadine)

A

2nd generation oral antihistamine

binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Claritin (loratadine)

A

2nd generation oral antihistamine

binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Clarinex (desloratadine)

A

2nd generation oral antihistamine

binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Zyrtec (cetirizine)

A

2nd generation oral antihistamine

binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Emadine (emedastine)

A

topical antihistamine

binds to and stabilizes inactive state of H1 receptors

45
Q

glcyerin (Osmoglyn)

A

oral hyperosmotic

increases blood serum osmolarity; pulls water from tissues into bloodstream; vitreal dehydration –> reduced ocular volume –> reduced IOP

46
Q

mannitol

A

IV hyperosmotic

increases blood serum osmolarity; pulls water from tissues into bloodstream; vitreal dehydration –> reduced ocular volume –> reduced IOP

47
Q

sodium chloride (Muro 128)

A

topical hyperosmotic

increases tonicity of tear film; water is drawn from the cornea to the more highly osmotic tear film

48
Q

sodium fluorescein (NaFl)

A

highlights intercellular spaces between cells; minimal uptake into healthy cells; dessication and injured cells highlighted only; cornea > conj staining

49
Q

rose bengal

A

stains dead/devitalized cells AND normal cells; conj > cornea staining

50
Q

lissamine green

A

stains dead/devitalized cells only; conj > cornea staining

51
Q

benzalkonium chloride

A

preservative; prevents contamination of bottle contents

52
Q

artificial tears

A

restore/enhance/improve physiologic tear film and patient comfort

53
Q

castor oil

A

lipid agent

restores lipid layer; prevents evaporation of aqueous tear film

54
Q

mineral oil

A

lipid agent

restores lipid layer; prevents evaporation of aqueous tear film

55
Q

glycerin/glycerol

A

lipid agent

restores lipid layer; prevents evaporation of aqueous tear film

56
Q

polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)

A

wetting agent

rehydrates/restores aqueous layer of tear film

57
Q

povidone (PVP)

A

wetting agent

rehydrates/restores aqueous layer of tear film

58
Q

propylene glycol (PG)

A

wetting agent

rehydrates/restores aqueous layer of tear film

59
Q

polyethylene glycol (PEG)

A

wetting agent

rehydrates/restores aqueous layer of tear film

60
Q

carboxymethylcellulose

A

viscosity builder

increases thickness of drops

61
Q

tea tree oil

A

lid hygiene product for demodex

MOA unknown; believed to increase cell membrane permeability of mite

62
Q

FreshKote

A

3 mechanisms:

  • high oncotic pressure
  • PVA and PVP ingredients = lubricants
  • amisol = proprietary phospholipid increases lipid layer of tear film
63
Q

Restasis (cyclosporine A)

A

immunomodulator/immunosuppressive agent; inhibits activation/proliferation of T-cells, reducing IL-2

64
Q

Xiidra (lifitegrast)

A

lymphocyte function associated antigen-1 (LFA-1) antagonist indicated for the treatment of the signs and symptoms of dry eye disease (DED); reduction in inflammatory products associated with DED

65
Q

amniotic membranes

A

inherent properties: anti-VEGF, anti-inflammatory, pro-epithelialization, anti-scarring (anti-fibroblast), and reduction in pain

66
Q

Polysporin

A

antibiotic

bacitracin + polymyxin B

bacitracin = cell wall inhibitor- peptidoglycan:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

polymyxin B = binds to cell membrane and alters its structure, making it more permeable

67
Q

Neosporin

A

antibiotic

bacitracin + polymyxin B + neomycin

bacitracin = cell wall inhibitor- peptidoglycan:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

polymyxin B = binds to cell membrane and alters its structure, making it more permeable

neomycin = aminoglycoside:
protein synthesis inhibitor- 30s subunit

68
Q

vancomycin

A

antibiotic

cell wall inhibitor- peptidoglycan:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

69
Q

Augmentin

A

antibiotic- aminopenicillin

amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

cell wall inhibitor- transpeptidase:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

clavulanic acid is a penicillinase inhibitor

70
Q

Cefazolin

A

antibiotic- 1st generation cephalosporin

cell wall inhibitor- transpeptidase:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

71
Q

Keflex (cephalexin)

A

antibiotic- 1st generation cephalosporin

cell wall inhibitor- transpeptidase:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

72
Q

Ceclor (cefaclor)

A

antibiotic- 2nd generation cephalosporin

cell wall inhibitor- transpeptidase:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

73
Q

Omnicef (cefdinir)

A

antibiotic- 3rd generation cephalosporin

cell wall inhibitor- transpeptidase:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

74
Q

Rocephin (ceftriaxone)

A

antibiotic- 3rd generation cephalosporin

cell wall inhibitor- transpeptidase:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

75
Q

Fortaz (ceftazidime)

A

antibiotic- 3rd generation cephalosporin

cell wall inhibitor- transpeptidase:
blocks bacteria from building cell walls; without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the membrane bursts

76
Q

Gentak (gentamicin)

A

antibiotic- aminoglycoside

protein synthesis inhibitor- 30s subunit

77
Q

Tobrex (tobramycin)

A

antibiotic- aminoglycoside

protein synthesis inhibitor- 30s subunit

78
Q

Neomycin

A

antibiotic- aminoglycoside

protein synthesis inhibitor- 30s subunit

79
Q

Amikacin

A

antibiotic- aminoglycoside

protein synthesis inhibitor- 30s subunit

80
Q

Doxycycline

A

antibiotic- tetracycline

protein synthesis inhibitor- 30s subunit

81
Q

Minocycline

A

antibiotic- tetracycline

protein synthesis inhibitor- 30s subunit

82
Q

Tetracycline

A

antibiotic- tetracycline

protein synthesis inhibitor- 30s subunit

83
Q

Erythromycin

A

antibiotic- macrolide

protein synthesis inhibitor- 50s subunit

84
Q

Azithromycin

A

antibiotic- macrolide

protein synthesis inhibitor- 50s subunit

85
Q

AzaSite (azithromycin)

A

antibiotic- macrolide

protein synthesis inhibitor- 50s subunit

86
Q

Clarithromycin

A

antibiotic- macrolide

protein synthesis inhibitor- 50s subunit

87
Q

Clindamycin

A

antibiotic

protein synthesis inhibitor- 50s subunit

88
Q

Linezolid

A

antibiotic

protein synthesis inhibitor- 50s subunit

89
Q

Ciloxan (ciprofloxacin)

A

antibiotic- 2nd generation fluoroquinolone

DNA synthesis inhibitor- DNA gyrase

90
Q

Ocuflox (ofloxacin)

A

antibiotic- 2nd generation fluoroquinolone

DNA synthesis inhibitor- DNA gyrase

91
Q

Quixin (levofloxacin)

A

antibiotic- 3rd generation fluoroquinolone

DNA synthesis inhibitor- DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

92
Q

Zymaxid (gatifloxacin)

A

antibiotic- 4th generation fluoroquinolone

DNA synthesis inhibitor- DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

93
Q

Vigamox and Moxeza (moxifloxacin)

A

antibiotic- 4th generation fluoroquinolone

DNA synthesis inhibitor- DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

94
Q

Besivance (besifloxacin)

A

antibiotic- 4th generation fluoroquinolone

DNA synthesis inhibitor- DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

95
Q

Levaquin (levofloxacin)

A

antibiotic- 3rd generation fluoroquinolone

DNA synthesis inhibitor- DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

96
Q

Bactrim and Septra

A

antibiotic

sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim

trimethoprim= DNA synthesis inhibitor- folic acid

97
Q

Polytrim

A

antibiotic

polymyxin B + trimethoprim

polymyxin B = binds to cell membrane and alters its structure, making it more permeable

trimethoprim= DNA synthesis inhibitor- folic acid

98
Q

Maxitrol

A

antibiotic/corticosteroid combination

neomycin/polymyxin B/dexamethasone

allows treatment of both infection and inflammation with one single medication

99
Q

Tobradex

A

antibiotic/corticosteroid combination

tobramycin/dexamethasone

allows treatment of both infection and inflammation with one single medication

100
Q

Zylet

A

antibiotic/corticosteroid combination

tobramycin/loteprednol

allows treatment of both infection and inflammation with one single medication

101
Q

Viroptic (trifluridine)

A

topical antiviral

phosphorylated to active compound by HSV thymidine kinase; incorporated into viral nucleic acid; blocks viral and host cell DNA synthesis

102
Q

Zirgan (ganciclovir)

A

topical antiviral

phosphorylated to active compound by HSV thymidine kinase; incorporated into viral nucleic acid; blocks viral DNA synthesis

103
Q

Zovirax (acyclovir)

A

systemic antiviral

phosphorylated to active compound by HSV thymidine kinase; incorporated into viral nucleic acid; blocks viral DNA synthesis

104
Q

Valtrex (valacyclovir)

A

systemic antiviral

phosphorylated to active compound by HSV thymidine kinase; incorporated into viral nucleic acid; blocks viral DNA synthesis

105
Q

Famvir (famciclovir)

A

systemic antiviral

phosphorylated to active compound by HSV thymidine kinase; incorporated into viral nucleic acid; blocks viral DNA synthesis

106
Q

Betadine (povidone-iodine)

A

in-office viral treatment

MOA unknown; reduces viral load

107
Q

Natamycin (Natacyn)

A

anti-fungal

increases cell membrane permeability; fungicidal

108
Q

Amphoteracin B

A

anti-fungal

increases cell membrane permeability; fungicidal

109
Q

Polyhexamethylene biguanide (PHMB, Baquacil)

A

anti-protozoan