Midterm 2 actual test Flashcards

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1
Q
1. Which of the following is not a goal of scientific research as discussed in this course?
A.	Prediction
B.	Profit
C.	Explanation
D.	Control
A

B Profit

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2
Q
2. Stating clearly what you mean to measure and how is:
A.	Operationalizing
B.	Generalizing
C.	Validating
D.	Sampling
A

A. Operationalizing

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3
Q
  1. A scientific hypothesis is:
    A. A guess
    B. A conclusion based on evidence
    C. An idea at the lowest level of analysis available
    D. A statement or set of beliefs about the world
A

D. A statement or set of beliefs about the world

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4
Q
  1. An independent variable is:
    A. A variable that is under the control or choice of a researcher
    B. A variable that is kept constant between conditions by a researcher
    C. A variable that measures the outcome of an experiment
    D. A variable that is qualitative
A

A. A variable that is under the control or choice of a researcher

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5
Q
5. A type II error is also known as a
A.	hit
B.	false positive
C.	miss
D.	sampling error
A

C. miss

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6
Q
  1. A control group is designed to
    A. Rule out alternative explanations and confounds
    B. Prove your hypothesis using factorial designs and tests
    C. Keep the human subjects review board happy
    D. Rule out sampling bias.
A

A. Rule out alternative explanations and confounds

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7
Q
  1. A confound is:
    A. An additional variable from another level of analysis
    B. An additional variable that changes or varies with the independent variable
    C. A dependent variable that differs from the theoretical predictions
    D. A kind of control variable
A

B. An additional variable that changes or varies with the independent variable

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8
Q
  1. Prospective research
    A. Links outcomes to historical processes
    B. Makes no predictions
    C. Research that explains or predicts future events based on prior observations.
    D. Uses no statistical inference
A

C. Research that explains or predicts future events based on prior observations.

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9
Q
  1. Expected Value means
    A. the value of an outcome to a particular individual in a given situation
    B. the probability of a type I error
    C. *the amount you expect to gain in the long run in a betting situation
    D. the probability of a type II error
A

C. the amount you expect to gain in the long run in a betting situation

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10
Q
  1. Base-rate neglect has to do with:
    A. Ignoring the quantitative data about probabilities and outcomes
    B. Ignoring the representativeness of a sampling process
    C. Ignoring information about the prevalence or probability of an outcome
    D. Ignoring the rules for adding probabilities
A

C. *Ignoring information about the prevalence or probability of an outcome

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11
Q
  1. The gambler’s fallacy is
    A. Thinking that previous outcomes of independent events influence future outcomes
    B. Thinking that good luck or bad luck can influence the outcomes of random events
    C. Believing that streaks occur less often than they do in reality
    D. Believing that streaks occur more often than they do in reality
A

A. Thinking that previous outcomes of independent events influence future outcomes

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12
Q
12. What is the Pollyanna principle?
A.	A belief in luck
B.	Wishful thinking
C.	A belief that the outcomes will be worse than average
D.	Group think
A

B. *Wishful thinking

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13
Q

. Psychological reactance can affect:
A. How we ignore potential negative outcomes
B. How we respond to choices when our freedom is restricted
C. How we make risk versus gains decisions
D. How we respond to complexity

A

B. *How we respond to choices when our freedom is restricted

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14
Q
  1. Halpern’s stages of problem solving involve:
    A. incubation, preparation, calculation
    B. preparation, production, and evaluation
    C. production, evaluation, calculation
    D. selection, evaluation, review
A

B. preparation, production, and evaluation

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15
Q
15. An ill-defined problem has:
A.	No math involved
B.	No clear goal or solution paths
C.	No chance of being solved
D.	No relevance to the real-world
A

B. *No clear goal or solution paths

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16
Q
  1. What are the ‘parts’ in the anatomy of a problem as discussed in class and text?
    A. Generating alternatives, evaluating alternatives, acting on alternatives
    B. Initial state, goal state, solution paths
    C. Definition statement, goal state, problem space
    D. Inputs, choices, outputs
A

B. *Initial state, goal state, solution paths

17
Q
  1. Problem space means:
    A. all the ways to get from an initial state to a goal state
    B. the freedom to make a choice or decision free of outside influence
    C. generation of creative alternatives
    D. the place on an exam where you show your work
A

A. *all the ways to get from an initial state to a goal state

18
Q
18. Means-ends analysis is:
A.	Working on a solution to a problem
B.	Justifying your choices when they cause harm
C.	A form of memory bias
D.	A forward looking strategy
A

D. *A forward looking strategy

19
Q
19. A period of time during which you are not actively working on a problem but after which a solution occurs to you is sometimes called:
A.	intuition
B.	incubation
C.	preparation
D.	evaluation 
A

B. *incubation

20
Q
  1. The main parts of Halpern’s framework for thinking are
    A. Identifying goals, knowns, skills, and reaching outcomes
    B. Tools, calculations, and probability
    C. Skills, knowledge, formulas
    D. Understanding bias, observing bias, removing bias
A

A. *Identifying goals, knowns, skills, and reaching outcomes

21
Q
  1. The principle of parsimony suggests:
    A. Experiments with multiple factors should be avoided
    B. The simplest adequate explanation should be preferred
    C. Control conditions are necessary
    D. A way to avoid confirmation bias when considering predictions
A

B. *The simplest adequate explanation should be preferred

22
Q
  1. Falsification means
    A. The process of showing an argument to be invalid
    B. The process of demonstrating a decision to be biased
    C. The process of disproving a hypothesis
    D. The process of sampling in a biased manner
A

C. *The process of disproving a hypothesis

23
Q
  1. Researchers use factorial designs in order to:
    A. understand all causes and all effects
    B. introduce important confounds into the design
    C. reduce bias in the design of the experiment or research
    D. examine interactions between variables
A

D. *examine interactions between variables

24
Q
  1. Correlation does not imply causation because:
    A. Ted said so
    B. There is no adequate hypothesis for a given correlation
    C. There is no adequate mechanism for a given correlation
    D. Many different situations can produce correlations
A

D. *Many different situations can produce correlations

25
Q
  1. Mechanism, in the context of research means:
    A. The highest level of analysis
    B. The research hypothesis
    C. A model of causal relationships
    D. The set of dependent measures used in an experiment
A

C. *A model of causal relationships

26
Q
26. The three rules of causation are:
A.	Covariation, temporal precedence, internal validity
B.	Location, location, location
C.	Explanation, prediction, covariation
D.	Parsimony, correlation, plausibility
A

A. *Covariation, temporal precedence, internal validity

27
Q
  1. The subjective utility of gains versus losses is different in that:
    A. losses have a flatter curve
    B. gains have a sharper curve
    C. losses are felt more sharply than gains
    D. gains are always treated as more important than losses
A

C. *losses are felt more sharply than gains

28
Q
  1. The sunk-cost fallacy is:
    A. the idea that losses are felt more sharply than gains
    B. Overvaluing one’s initial ideas
    C. continuing to spend resources to recover lost resources instead of considering other options
    D. Undervaluing one’s initial ideas, and overvaluing later ideas
A

C. *continuing to spend resources to recover lost resources instead of considering other options

29
Q
  1. The back-drop of the possible refers to:
    A. the set of things that could have occurred, but didn’t
    B. The set of possible outcomes for a decision
    C. The set of solution paths for a problem
    D. The set of options generated in a brainstorming session
A

A. *the set of things that could have occurred, but didn’t

30
Q
  1. The conjunction error is
    A. failing to remember when things occur together
    B. failing to combine probabilities for joint events properly
    C. assuming that things occurring together are random
    D. assuming that things occurring together have a causal relationship
A

B. *failing to combine probabilities for joint events properly

31
Q
  1. What are the three major ways to ‘get it wrong’ according to Ted?
    A. pettifogging, prevarication, presumption
    B. problems with approach, data, or habits/skills
    C. ad hominem, fallacy, and parsimony
    D. sampling bias, hindsight bias, fallacy
A

B. *problems with approach, data, or habits/skills

32
Q
  1. What is belief bias?:
    A. judging an argument by whether you believe the premises
    B. judging an argument by whether it confirms your belief
    C. judging an argument by how strongly others believe it
    D. judging an argument by how believable the conclusion is
A

D. *judging an argument by how believable the conclusion is

33
Q
  1. Shifting goal posts in the context of argument or debate means:
    A. building a case with additional evidence
    B. assuming your argument is correct because your opponent’s argument has a fallacy
    C. attacking the person making the argument rather than addressing the argument
    D. continually changing the criteria and terms of the debate in the face of disconfirming evidence
A

D. *continually changing the criteria and terms of the debate in the face of disconfirming evidence

34
Q
  1. The Dunning-Krueger effect has been interpreted as meaning:
    A. individuals with low skill level at one thing are bad at most things
    B. people are always biased about their beliefs
    C. expertise can not be learned
    D. individuals with low skill at something are also bad at knowing their own skill level
A

D. *individuals with low skill at something are also bad at knowing their own skill level

35
Q
  1. The appeal to consequences is a kind of fallacy in which:
    A. one emphasizes the strength of the conclusion
    B. one emphasizes the strength of the premises
    C. one argues that a conclusion is false because the supporting premises are false
    D. one argues that since the resulting conclusion is bad, the argument must be untrue
A

D. *one argues that since the resulting conclusion is bad, the argument must be untrue

36
Q
  1. The Fallacy Fallacy is:
    A. assuming that the origin of an idea is relevant to its truth
    B. assuming that what is true of a group must be true of all individuals in that group
    C. believing that an error in one’s opponent’s argument demonstrates that their conclusion is false
    D. believing that since the person making the argument is bad, their conclusion is bad
A

C. *believing that an error in one’s opponent’s argument demonstrates that their conclusion is false

37
Q
  1. Expert Memory differs from Novice memory in that:
    A. experts have generally improved memory for all subject material
    B. experts have been remembering things for longer than novices
    C. there is no real difference between Expert and Novice memory
    D. experts have generally improved memory for their subject material
A

D. *experts have generally improved memory for their subject material

38
Q
  1. The difference between ‘big C’ creativity and ‘little c’ creativity is
    A. one is about art, the other about invention
    B. one is about genius, the other is about inspiration
    C. one is about thinking laterally, the other is about problem solving
    D. one is the creativity of eminent individuals and the other is everyday creativity
A

D. *one is the creativity of eminent individuals and the other is everyday creativity

39
Q
  1. An example of the Halo effect would be:
    A. Extreme exhaustion from playing video-games
    B. An aversive state experienced when your ideas don’t match your actions
    C. Defending the status quo
    D. Thinking that a person is smart because they are also attractive
A

D. *Thinking that a person is smart because they are also attractive