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Principles of Disease > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

inflamation

A

predermined response to injruy, consisting of microcirculatory response as well as mobilization of phagocytic cells

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2
Q

the suffix _____ is used to describe inflamation

A

“itis”

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3
Q

prolonged inflammation used to describe complex tissue changes is termed what?

A

chronic inflamation

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4
Q

______ -_______ is the first line of defense against injury

A

acute inflamation

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5
Q

loss of function would be described as a _____ sign

A

cardinal

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6
Q

acute inflammatory response includes _______ of vessels which allows fluid, chemical mediators to move into tissue spaces

A

leakiness

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7
Q

tissue injury is a _______ response

A

non specific

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8
Q

tissue injury leads to _______

A

inflamation

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9
Q

two major components of tissue injury include

A

vascular and cellular changes

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10
Q

describe vascular changes vs cellular changes in tissue injury

A

vascular: vessels dilate to increase blood flow, vessels become more permeable to allow plasma proteins to leave circulation and enter injured site

Cellular changes: emigration of leukocytes white blood cells from the micro circulation to the site of injury

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11
Q

what results in redness in vascular injury?

A

capillaries, arterioles and venules vasodilate

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12
Q

vasoactive amines (histamine and serotonin), kinins etc do what during vascular injury ?

A

chemical mediators, cause marked dilation of arterioles, capillaries and venules

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13
Q

Histamine

A

released by mast cells is a derivative of amino acid histidine, generally causes capillary dilation

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14
Q

Mast cells are found in greater concentrations in ______ cells

A

damaged or necrotic

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15
Q

mast cells are usually found within the vicinity of _______

A

capillaries

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16
Q

granules are found where? contain what?

A

in mast cells that contain histamine, membrane bound vacuoles

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17
Q

injury to mast cell surface leads to ?

A

degranulation of mast cells which release histamine that causes dilation of capillaries

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18
Q

hyperemia

A

increased blood flow in the tissue, reason tissue looks red when inflamed

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19
Q

increased permeability of capillaries and venules cause _________

A

leakiness

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20
Q

fluid leaves the capillaries at _________ end of the capillary bed under the influence of _________ pressure and returns to the vascular space at the _________end of the capillary bed due to _______ pressure

A

arteriolar end, hydrostatic pressure, venular end, osmotic pressure

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21
Q

Exudation

A

increased amounts of fluid as well as large protein molecules pass out of the vessels and into the extravascular space

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22
Q

Exudation causes what

A

swelling and accumulation of inflammatory exudate

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23
Q

________ ______ is an important cause of localized edema

A

acute inflamation

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24
Q

initial endothelial cell contraction is induced by ________ which widens intracellular junctions

A

histamine

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25
Q

Direct injury to the endothelium from burns results in endothelial ______ and can contribute to _______ of plasma from vessels

A

necrosis, leakage

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26
Q

_______ immature blood vessels are leaky

A

new

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27
Q

what happens as fluid moves into interstitial space?

A

blood thickens causing blood flow to slow down

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28
Q

exudate

A

fluid that forms in the tissues or at surfaces

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29
Q

how do exudates form?

A

increased movement of fluid, larger protein molecules and cells out of vasculature due to increased vasular permeability

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30
Q

exudate vs transudate

A

exudate: more like plasma in composition, RBCs, WBCs, proteins

Transudate: ultrafiltrate of plasma, big molecules held back by capillary wall

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31
Q

only small molecules such as ______ can pass put of the capillary

A

albumin

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32
Q

exudates have an increase in ______ content

A

protein

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33
Q

the protein content is high in _______ but low in ______

A

exudate, transudate

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34
Q

what proteins are in exudates compared to transudates?

A

exudates have albumin, globulins, fibrin while transudates have mostly albumin

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35
Q

how are the cells different in exudates compared to transudates?

A

exudates have numerous degenerate deutrophils while transudate has few healthy neutrophils

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36
Q

what is the appearance of exudates to transudates?

A

exudate is turbid, white yellow or pink while exudate is clear and colourless

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37
Q

Ascites

A

fluid buildup in abdomen

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38
Q

Peritonitis

A

inflammation of the peritonium

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39
Q

what is the benefit of exudation?

A
  • dilutes offending agent
  • brings defensive proteins into area
  • drainage via lymphatics
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40
Q

fibrin

A

formed from plasma precursor fibrinogen

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41
Q

Fibrinogen is usually _____ and contributes to what?

A

inactive, plasma osmotic pressure

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42
Q

fibrin is found in ______ but not ______

A

exudates not transudate

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43
Q

What cells are derived from the lyeloid cell line within bone marrow and move into the bloodstream when mature?

A

WBCs or leukocytes

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44
Q

round cells

A

mononuclear cells

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45
Q

these cells have a multilobulated nucelus and contain cytoplasmic granules

A

Granulocytes

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46
Q

what is the primary site of differentiation fro most leukocytes as well as RBCs and Platelets?

A

bone marrow

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47
Q

Myeloid cells include:

A

granulocytes, mononuclear cells

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48
Q

Granulocytes include:

A

Neurophils, basophils and eosinophils

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49
Q

__________ has the greatest role in acute inflamation

A

neutrophil

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50
Q

______ are actively motile and capable of phagocytosis

A

neutrophils

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51
Q

what is the main function of neutrophils

A

phagoytosis of microogranisms

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52
Q

mononuclear cells include:

A

lymphocytes, plasma cells, monocytes, and macrophages

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53
Q

mononuclear cells generally have a greater role in _____ stages of inflamation

A

chronic

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54
Q

some lymphoytes may develop into?

A

antibody producing cells termed plasma cells

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55
Q

monocytes are present in the _____ and able to migrate into tissue

A

blood

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56
Q

once monocytes are in the tissue they are termed _________

A

macrophages

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57
Q

what has the greatest role in acute inflammation ?

A

Macrophages, for phagocytosis

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58
Q

what is the function of macrophages in acute inflammation?

A

ingest microorganisms and clean up cellular debris, also secrete substances as endogenous pyrogen etc

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59
Q

Neutropenia

A

low numbers of neutrophils, often seen as a sidde effect of cancer therapy due to cytotoxic dugs or radiation therapy

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60
Q

what is the primary goal of inflammation?

A

to get leukocytes out of circulation and into injured area

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61
Q

what are the 5 steps in leukocyte recruitment?

A
  1. margination, rolling and adhesion of leukocytes
  2. Transmission of leukocytes
  3. Chemotaxis
  4. Leukocyte activation
  5. Phagocytosis and pathogen degradation
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62
Q

endothelial cells become sticky due to what?

A

expression of integrins

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63
Q

adhesion

A

leukocytes tend to adhere firmly to the vessel wall

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64
Q

Margination and adhesion of leukocytes is mediated by what?

A

integrins on the leukocyte surface which interact with specific ligands on the endothelial cells

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65
Q

what are the specific selectins for leukocytes and platelets?

A

L selectins

P selectins

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66
Q

selectins vs integrins

A

selectins (select the leukocyte they want to marginate within the vessel)

Integrins (integrate the leukocytes into the tissues)

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67
Q

Diapedesis

A

during transmission of leukoytes, once neutrophils have adhered to the endothelium, they leave the vessel primarily by squeezing through the intercellular junctions

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68
Q

how is diapedesis made easier?

A

by enlarged pore size of the endothelium

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69
Q

what is the role of secreted collegenases in leukocyte recruitment?

A

degrade neutrophils focally so they can pass through the basement membrane and move into the interstitium

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70
Q

where does transmission of leukocytes primarily occur?

A

venules in the systemic ciruclation

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71
Q

PECAM - 1 is used where?

A

diapedisis of neutrophils

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72
Q

chemotaxis

A

process by which inflammatory cells are attached to an area of injury by directional migration as the chemical mediators of inflammation act as chemotactic signals to inflammatory cells, (factors C3a and C5a)

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73
Q

leukotriene and cytokines are used in ____________

A

chemotaxis

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74
Q

what triggers contraction in chemotaxsis?

A

increased intracellular calcium from the binding of receptors on leukocyte surfaces

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75
Q

the contractile elements in chemotaxsis allow the leukocytes to move by extending ____________

A

pseudopods

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76
Q

chemotactic molecules induce _______ activation

A

leukocyte

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77
Q

majority of inflammatory cells will be activated by ________

A

cytokines

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78
Q

Toll like receptors are important for recognizing what?

A

pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPS)

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79
Q

innate immunity

A

process of induction of the acute inflammatory response

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80
Q

what changes does activation of leukocytes cause?

A
  1. pahgocytosis
  2. upregulation of mechanisms for degradation and killing of microbes
  3. production of inflammatory mediators
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81
Q

phagocytosis

A

process by which neutrophils and macrophages ingest and destroy particulate matter

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82
Q

phagocytic cells must first recognize and attach to the particle or agent what are the two types of recognition?

A
  1. Nonspecific (large inert particles)

2. Specific (particles or agent have been coated with antibody)

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83
Q

leukocytes have specific_____ componants and _______

A

IgG, collectins

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84
Q

_______ leads to enhanced phagocytosis

A

opsonization

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85
Q

phagosome

A

once recognition and bidning occurs, particle is engulfed by phagocytic cell forming mebrane bound vacuole with pahgocytes cytoplasm

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86
Q

___________ stimulates increase in oxygen dependent metabolism in leukocytes large quantities of reactive oxygen species

A

phagocytosis

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87
Q

how are pathogens further degraded?

A

fusion of the phagosome with lysosomes which release acid hydrolases and other enzymes

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88
Q

Margination

A

increased contact between leukocytes

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89
Q

is the exact role of mediators in vivo in tissue inflammation well known?

A

no

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90
Q

what are the major groups of inflammatory mediators?

A
  1. Vasculative amines
  2. plasma proteases
  3. lysosomal constituents
  4. arachidonic acid metabolism
  5. Cytokines
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91
Q

________ is mainly released from mast cell granules

A

histimine

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92
Q

platelets and serotonin cause _______

A

vasodilation and increased permeability

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93
Q

vasculative amines include?

A

histimine

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94
Q

_________ is synthesized in the liver and circulates in plasma in its inactive form

A

factor XII

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95
Q

endothelial injury exposes substances which lead to activation of XIIa which in turn cleave a variety of protein substrates incouding ?

A

the kinin system, the coagulation cascade, the complement system

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96
Q

the final product of the kinin system is ?

A

bradykinin, causes increased vasular permeability and mediates pain

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97
Q

_______ can initiate the coagulation cascade

A

factor XIIa

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98
Q

________ acts to enhance leukocyte adhesion to the endothelial cells

A

thrombin

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99
Q

the C5a and C3a formed in the activation of the complement stimulates ______ release form mast cells

A

histime

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100
Q

what acts as a chemotactic agent and activator for phagocytic cells?

A

C5a

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101
Q

C3b acts as _______

A

opsonin

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102
Q

what activates the lipooxygenase pathways of arachidonic acid metabolism?

A

C5a

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103
Q

the activation of ___ and ____ amplify the influx of neutrophils to inflammatory site?

A

C3, C5

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104
Q

_______ generates toxic oxygen based free radicals and protease that cause endothelial damage

A

neutrphils

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105
Q

_________ degrades various constiuents of the ECM

A

proteases

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106
Q

__________ acid is an unsaturated fatty acid found in phospholipids of cell membranes of inflammatory cells

A

arachinodic acid

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107
Q

______ causes the release of arachinodic acids

A

phospholipids

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108
Q

the release of arachinodic acid leads to the production of what?

A

prostaglandins, leukotrienes and lipoxins

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109
Q

what two cytokines are important during inflammatory response and immune response?

A
  • interleukin (IL-1) and tumour necrosis factor (TNF)
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110
Q

why are TNF and IL 1 important?

A
  • induce endothelial activation and hence expression of selectins and integrins, activate tissue fibroblasts and neutrophils, also induce systemic acute phase resposnes, fever etc
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111
Q

NSAIDs

A

non steridal anti inflammatory drugs

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112
Q

______ are usually the first hoice of treatment for chronic inflammatory disease

A

NSAIDs

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113
Q

Corticosteroids

A

glucocorticoids, produced by adrenal gland cortex and play role in stress adaptation response, black conversion of cell membrane phospholipids to arachidonic acid. Can supress or inhibit inflammatory response

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114
Q

________ is direct stimulation of nerve

A

pain

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115
Q

Bradyknin, histimine and serotonin have a role in signaling _______

A

pain

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116
Q

increase in tissue tension that occurs due to swelling will lead to ______

A

pain

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117
Q

appendicitis

A
  • Abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and malaise (general illness or discomfort)
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118
Q

______ would be a localized finding while malaise would be a ______ finding

A

pain, systemic

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119
Q

systemic signs and symptoms affect

A

the whole body

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120
Q

signs

A

any objective evidence of disease ex. decreased appetite

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121
Q

symptoms

A

refer to subjective evidence of disease such as pain in abdomen, pain when urinating

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122
Q

pyrogens

A

fever inducing agents

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123
Q

pyrogens can be endogenous or exogenous, what does this mean?

A

endogenous: generated by the body
exogenous: factors released by invading organisms such as bacteria

124
Q

many endogenous pyrogens include___________

A

derived from neutrophils include interleukins (IL1 and IL6) and TNF

125
Q

how do endogenous pyrogens work?

A
  • enter the blood circulation from the site of inflammation and travel to the brain, where they act at the hypothalamus in the brainstem, via prostaglandin synthesis, to cause a “resetting” of the body temperature
126
Q

_______ rate increases with feverand cell energy oxygen requirements

A

metabolic rate

127
Q

neuronal dysfunction and delirium will occur at ______ temp

A

42.2

128
Q

death will occur at body temp_____

A

43.3, degredation of proteins occurs

129
Q

why are fevers beneficical?

A

combat infections, inhibits growth of microorganisms

130
Q

neutrophils result at site of inflamation via _________

A

bloodstream

131
Q

leukocytes refers to?

A

increased total WBC count

132
Q

neutrophillia

A

increased numbers of neutrophils

133
Q

left shift

A

neutrophils may be released from the marrow before they are completely mature , immature forms may be seen in the blood, may indicate demand for neutrophils

134
Q

release of leukocytes from the bone marrow is mediated by

A

TNF, IL1

135
Q

in acute viral inflammation neutrophils can be decreased known as

A

neutropenia

136
Q

in acute viral inflamation leukocytes can increase known as

A

lymphocytosis

137
Q

Leukopenia

A

total wbc count decreased in viral infections

138
Q

does inflamation always result in neutrophilia?

A

no, inflammation is so severe that neutrophils go directly to the injured area and do not remain in blood circulation, so no neutrophilia is detected

139
Q

acute phase reactants

A

acute inflamation often causes increases in levels of plasma proteins
including:

  • C reactive protein
  • Fibrinogen
  • hepatoglobin
  • alpha 1-antitrypsin
140
Q

resolution

A

when acute inflamation is uncomplicated and the swelling and cellular debris are removed by macrophage ativity and lymphatic flow

141
Q

Suppurative Inflammation invlovles

A

replacement of cells by regeneration and or scar formation

142
Q

pus

A

liquefied mass consisting of necrotic tissue, dead organisms and neutrophils

143
Q

process of pus formation is termed

A

purulent or suppurative inflamation

144
Q

when will an abcess form?

A

when an area of suppurative inflammation becomes walled off by fibrous tissue

145
Q

septicemia/sepsis

A

possible outcome of acute inflamation if severe and isnt effectibe in destroying the causitive gent, infection spreads or disseminates,

146
Q

maked widespread cytokine release would be seen in ___________

A

septicemia

147
Q

bacteremia

A

bacteria can travel in bloodstream

148
Q

how does chronic inflamation differ from acute inflamation?

A

preponderance of mononuclear cell types as opposed to neutrophils

149
Q

what are 4 signs of chronic inflamation?

A
  1. some immune response, plasma cells and lymphocytes
  2. accumulation of macrophages
  3. healing of tissue, granulation
  4. ongoing tissue injury or necrosis
150
Q

what is the wanted outcome for chronic inflammation?

A

for healing and repair, function restored

151
Q

tuberculosis

A

causes chronic inflammation, fever, weight loss, fatigue, coughing, hemoptysis (coughing blood), inflamation of lung tissue

152
Q

hemoptysis

A

coughing up blood

153
Q

the presence of T cells and B cells with macrophage accumulation or plasma cells present indicates what ?

A

chronic inflamation

154
Q

how does fibris result from inflammation?

A

occurs as a result of attempted repair of affected tissues and is common feature of many chronic inflammatory diseases

155
Q

what is the simple distinction from acute vs chronic inflamation?

A

persistance of the antigen or injurious stimulus

156
Q

granulomatus inflammation consists of ?

A

epitheliod cells, activated by macrophages and have large pale foamy cytoplasm

157
Q

epitheliod

A

resemble squamous epithelium, also have pale cytoplasm

158
Q

foamy cytoplasm is due to what?

A

presence of extensive rough endoplasmic reticulum

159
Q

in order for granulomatus inflmation _______ cell mediated response must occur

A

active T lymphocyte

160
Q

in order for granulomatus inflamation to occur effector T cells must produce _________ that allow what?

A

lymphokines that cause macrophages to remain in the area inhibiting their migration

161
Q

granulomatus inflamation is seen in ________

A

tuberculosis

162
Q

why does granulomatus inflamation develop? (2 ways)

A

when the causal agent is phagocytosed but survives and persist within macrophages, when pahgocytosis of a causal agent is impaired

163
Q

leprosy is caused by?

A

myobacteria leprae

164
Q

tuberculoid leprosy

A

patients who have strong T cell responsiveness against the leprosy bacillus can localize the infection and develop granulomas

165
Q

functional tissue around granuloma is lost due to ______ and replaced by _______ tissue

A

necrosis, scar

166
Q

caseous necrosis is due to

A

T cell mediated type IV hypersensistivity reaction

167
Q

inert

A

something doesnt elicit inflamatory response

168
Q

non antigenic

A

doesnt elicit immune response

169
Q

how are foreign body granulomas dealt with?

A

foreign material enters and is too large to be phagocytosed, macrophages congregate around and attempt nonimmune pahgocytosis

170
Q

furnuculosis

A

ingrown hair or carbuncle (pimple)

171
Q

keratin contains many _____ bonds

A

sulfur

172
Q

is keratin recognized as self proteins in the body?

A

no, possibly because keratin is secreted outward from body, immunologically privileged, furunculosis reaction, large quantiites of keratin are embedded in tissue and can induce foreign body reaction

173
Q

non granulotomatous inflamation is characterized by?

A
  • prescence of sensitized lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages, along with areas of necrosis and fribrosis
174
Q

non granulotomatous inflamation can be caused by (5 things ?

A
  1. Chronic viral infections
  2. other chronic infections
  3. Chronic autoimmune disease
  4. allergic conditions and parasitic infections
175
Q

chronic suppurative inflamation occurs when ?

A

the body is unable to clear a strong pyogenic stimulus

176
Q

________ are the most typical result of pyogenic bacterial infection that lasts longer than a week

A

abcesses

177
Q

osteomyelitis

A

result of infection of bone with pyogenic bacteriaa

178
Q

hematogenous osteomyeltisis

A

abcteria may be carried to the bone by the bloodstream, growing animals and children are susceptible due to growth plate

179
Q

secondary Osteomyeltisis

A

bacteria can develop secondary to wound , open fracture , necrosis occurs of bone by formation of sequestrum, blood supply disrupted

180
Q

chronic osteomyelitis is difficult to resolve why?

A

destruction of local blood supply, leukocytes cant be delivered to destroy infection

181
Q

fever, weight loss, changes in plasma proteins, and leukocytosis, a mild to moderate anemia, could all be systemic signs of?

A

chronic inflammation

182
Q

anemia from chronic inflamation is caused by?

A

mediators such as cytokines, which results in reduced transport of stored iron into plasma

183
Q

does chronic suppurative inflammation respond well to antibiotics? why?

A

no, causal infectious agents are isolated in an area in which there is no blood supply and may not be “accessible” to host defense mechanisms or to antimicrobial drugs

184
Q

chronic inflammation may lead to deposition of an insoluble fibrillary protein called _______

A

amyloid

185
Q

amyloidosis

A
  • group of diseases characterized by the deposition of similar appearing, abnormally folded insoluble protein termed amyloid, in the interstitium of tissues
186
Q

amyloid results from what?

A

genetic conditions where inflammation si excessive or by production of amyloid protein

187
Q

what is the defining characteristic of amyloids?

A

beta pleated fibrillar protein

188
Q

what are the 3 forms of amyloids?

A
  • derived from serum amyloid associated AA produced by liver during inflammation
  • derived from immunoglobin light chains AL amyloid by some plasma cells or B cell tumours
  • derived from amyloid Ab
189
Q

alzheimers is characterized by what form of amyloids?

A

amyloid Ab

190
Q

systemic amyloidosis includes _____and ________

A

primary and secondary

191
Q

________systemic amyloidosis is associated with chronic inflamatory disease or tuberculosis, and shows amyloid depositions widely in the body

A

reactive

192
Q

_______ systemic amyloidosis is associated with cancer and involves several organ systems?

A

Primary

193
Q

localized amyloidosis

A

local amyloid depositions within a single tissue or organ

194
Q

familial amyloidosis

A

inherited disorders in which amyloid is deposited locally in organs such as the heart, kidney or nervous tissue

195
Q

immune response

A

 refers to protection against infection and is characterized by its specificity – the ability to direct reactivity toward the inducing agent through recognition of specific surface molecular markers, termed antigens – but also by its ability to “remember” the inducing agent and respond in an enhanced way when the agent is again encountered

196
Q

adaptive immune repsonse

A

when the terms “immune response” and “immunity”

197
Q

innate immune response

A

wherein phagocytes could recognize surface molecules on pathogens (PAMPs)

198
Q

________ ______ is the first line of defence after the epithelial barriers

A

nonspecific phagpcytosis

199
Q

phagocytic role can be enhanced by _______

A

opsonization

200
Q

Major cellular componants of innate immunity

A

DAMPs and PAMPs

201
Q

the adaptive immune repsonse is first characterized by its ________

A

specificity

202
Q

the second defining charactreristic of the immune response is its ________

A

memory

203
Q

amplification

A

immune response characteriszed by enhanced repsonse on the second exposure to the antigen

204
Q

antigens

A

molecules which evoke an immune response when introduced to a host

205
Q

immunogen vs antigen

A

antigen induce antibdy response, but used to indicate molecules which elicit an immune response termed immunogen

206
Q

antigens are typically ______ made up of?

A

large, protein or polysaccharide

207
Q

haptens

A

smaller molecules than antigens, but can become antigenic with larger carrier molecules

208
Q

foreign extrinsic antigens include

A

infectious agents, bacteria, viruses, protozoa and fungi

209
Q

foreign object must be recognized as __________

A

non-self

210
Q

self tolerance

A

refers to lack of response to own antigens

211
Q

clonal deletion (central tolerance)

A

during embryonic development lymphocytes go though selection procedure in the thymus, those that are potentially reacting against self antigens are deleted

212
Q

______ is a function of T cells

A

CMI, cell mediated immunity

213
Q

T cells transform into _______ cells which do what?

A

killer/effector, destroy antigen bearing cells

214
Q

during immune repsonse _____ are produced which influence interactions between cells

A

lymphokines

215
Q

T cells have ______ functions

A

regulating

216
Q

humoral immunity is a function of ____ cells due to trantformation into ________ producing plasma cells

A

B, antibody

217
Q

what determines the specificity of immune response?

A

the ability to produce antibodies and T lymphocytes with specific antigen receptors on their surfaces

218
Q

lymphocytes are

A

mononuclear round cells , derived from stem cells in bone marrow

219
Q

lymphocytes which migrate and develop in the thymus are called ____ lymphocytes

A

T

220
Q

“T” means

A

thymus dependent

221
Q

lymphocytes which develop independently from the thymus are termed ____ cells

A

B cells

222
Q

what is the site of priming, where tolerance develops

A

thymus and bone marrow, central lymphoid tissue

223
Q

where is the thymus?

A

gland like tissue in connective tissues within chest cavity

224
Q

how are b cells characterized?

A

presence of a cell surface antibody receptor complex

225
Q

clonal expansion

A

antiboddies Ab come into contact with their antigen Ag

226
Q

Ab/Ag interaction causes

A

B cell to poliferate

227
Q

many ____ cells diffrentiate into plasma cells

A

B

228
Q

memory cells are

A

smaller population of B cells progeny, cells persitst for long periods

229
Q

T cell receptor (TCR) does not recognize ____ antigens but interacts with _______ expressed on surface

A

free, fragments

230
Q

CD4 is expressed on ____% of mature cells

A

60

231
Q

CD4 cells are

A

helper cells

232
Q

helper cells can be divided into_____and ____ subtypes

A

TH1 and TH2

233
Q

TH1 cell response is acitvated through?

A

release of inteferon gamma

234
Q

TH2 cell response is activated by?

A

release of IL 4 which stimulates b cells to diffrentite to IgE secreting plasma cells

235
Q

CD

A

cluster designation, antigens/proteins in the surface of T cells

236
Q

CD8 is expressed in ____cells and has a role in

A

30%, cytotoxic T lymphocyte cells , directly kill virus infected cells and or tumours

237
Q

what are the 3 roles of activated T cells?

A
  1. cell mediated immunity
  2. Helper roles(regulation of B and T cell activity)
  3. Delayed hypersensitivity is a T cell Mediated activity that has adverse effects
238
Q

natural killer cells

A

type of innate lymhocyte

239
Q

macrophages are found in all tissues of the body but are concentrated in _________ tissue

A

lymphoid

240
Q

cytokine IL-1 ______ resting T cells

A

activates

241
Q

_______ presentation is crucial to stimulation and differentiation of both T and B cells

A

antigen

242
Q

Transplanttion which leads to _____ activation and ________ release

A

Tcell, lymphokine release

243
Q

Bcell activation usually involves interaction with both ________ and _______

A

macrophages and T cells

244
Q

macrophages

A

filtration, cytokine secretion, ntigen presentation to T cells

245
Q

B cells/memory cells

A

antigen presentation to lymphoid tissue

246
Q

plasma cells

A

production and secretion of antigen specific immunoglobulin

247
Q

Natural Killer cells

A

nonspecific cytolysis of cells with atypical surface antigens

248
Q

antibodies

A

bind and neutralize microbes, secreted from plasma cells

249
Q

antibodies comprise a family of serumm proteins called _______

A

immunoglobin

250
Q

colostrum

A

thick, yellow milky fluid, from mammary gland of all mammals

251
Q

within the lymphnode the antigen is processed by ________

A

macrophages

252
Q

B cells are transfomed into plasma cells which ______ the antibofy

A

secrete

253
Q

what is the end result of antigen antibody reactions?

A

the antobody is secreted into the lymphatic vessel leaving the node, ultimately enters the blood via the thoracic duct

254
Q

antibodies react with _______

A

antigen

255
Q

enlarged lymph nodes are referred to as ______

A

hyperplastic

256
Q

agglutination

A

formation of large aggregates or clumps of Ag and Ab, makes it esay for phagocytes to trap and consume the immune complexes

257
Q

opsonization

A

coating process of antigen with antibody, causes inreased phagocytosis by leukocytes having receptors for the antibody

258
Q

complement fixation

A

outcome of complement activation, 9 proteins similar to clotting cascade

259
Q

the formation of immune complexes in vivo leads too?

A

inactivation of antigen or lysis

phagocytosis of the antigen by scavenger cells

260
Q

immune response is characterized by what 3 things?

A

specificity, memory, amplification, enhaced response occurs after second exposure

261
Q

primary immune response

A

first exposure, lag period, expansion to produce large number of plasma cells, IgM first, IgG later

262
Q

secondary immune response

A

second exposure to same antigen, accelerated response, antibody production rapidly occurs, principle immunoglobin IgG

263
Q

passive immunity

A

transfer or administration of predormed antibody from one person to another, given to help or prevent disease, temporary

264
Q

transplacental immunity

A

acuistion of antibodies across placenta in utero

265
Q

active immunity

A

development of antibodies in response to antigen, naturally, vaccines help in this case

266
Q

vaccines carry ______ but not ______

A

antigenicity but not pathogenicity

267
Q

serology

A

study of antigen antibody reactions in lab

268
Q

serological tests

A

tests for antibodies in serum and level of antibody present determined by titer

269
Q

higher titer means what

A

higher antibody levels

270
Q

hypersensitivity

A

state of reactivity in which immune response leads to tissue injury

271
Q

Allergic rhinitis or hay fever is an ex of what hypersensitivity reaction?

A

type 1

272
Q

anaphylaxis

A

small doese initiates body wide response

273
Q

primary preformed vasoactive mediators are released from?

A

mast cell granules

274
Q

what is the most important vasoactive mediator?

A

histimine, causes vasodilation, bronchoconstriction and increased mucous

275
Q

secondary generated lipid mediators are activated by _________ -___and lead to what factor

A

phospholipase A, platelet activating factor

276
Q

secereted cytokines from mast cells do what?

A

recruit and activate other inflammatory cells which amplify the response, eosinophils and neutrophils, cause local tissue damage

277
Q

type II antibody mediated hypersensitivity includes?

A

opsonization and pahgocytosis, inflammation, antibody mediated cellular dysfunction

278
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

type II

279
Q

immune hydrops fetalis

A

destroys cells that body needs , RBCs and platelets destroyed, antigen attached to its surface

280
Q

what hhypersensitivity reaction involved the deposition of immune complexes in walls of small vessels at various sites of the body?

A

type III

281
Q

fibrinoid

A

type III reactions, homogenous eosinophilic appearance, resembles fibrin

282
Q

local immune complex disease

A

tissue necrosis at site of antigen entry

283
Q

hypersensistivity pneumonitis

A

lung disease caused by inhalation of certain antigens

284
Q

complement activation by the Ag/Ab complexes is the central in the pathogenesis of ______ _______

A

tissue injury

285
Q

______ _____ against microbes or other foreign material is important in the formation of granulomatous inflamtion

A

prolonged DTH

286
Q

how is T cell mediated Cytotoxicity characterized?

A

sensitized CD8 Tcells

287
Q

direct T cell mediated cytotoxicity is the cause of ?

A

necrosis of cancer cells

288
Q

allograft

A

graft of tissue between two individuals of same species but different genotypes

289
Q

histocombatibility role

A

molecules bind peptide fragments of foreign proteins for presentation to appropriate antigen specific T cells

290
Q

blood cross matching refers to?

A

antigens on RBCs such as ABO and Rh considered

291
Q

similarity between donor and recipient of MCH molecules is important for?

A

success of grafts

292
Q

antibody mediated regection

A

antibody mediated injury targets vascular endothelium with platelet aggregation and coagulation leading to further ischemic injury to tissue

293
Q

autoimmune diseases are ______ specific

A

organ

294
Q

anergy

A

refers to the inactivation of lymphocytes that is induced by exposure to antigens under certain conditions

295
Q

_______ and ______ factors play an important role in predisposition to development of autoimmune disease

A

gender and genetic

296
Q

can environmental and infections trigger auto immunity?

A

yes

297
Q

primary immunodeficency

A

rare, genetically determined, SCID

298
Q

secondary immunodeficiency

A

cancer, chemo, radiation, AIDS

299
Q

______ is a retrovirus and spherical in shape

A

HIV

300
Q

HIV shows tropism for ______ cells

A

CD4T cells

301
Q

loss of CD4 T cells is the defining characteristic of ______

A

AIDS

302
Q

macrophages and monocytes are also infected by _____

A

HIV

303
Q

what are the major sites of HIV infection?

A

CD4 Tcells, macrophages, dendritc cells

304
Q

early acute phase of aids

A

self limited illness, detection of viral antibodies

305
Q

chronic middle phase of aids

A

HIV +, few signs of disease, can last 8-10 years, viral replication inlymphoid tissue

306
Q

crisis phase

A

patients die withing two years

307
Q

in late stages of aids patients can develop ______ -_______ which is a vascular cancer that causes nodules and ulcers in skin

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

Principles of Disease (8 decks)

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