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Food Hygiene > MIDTERM 2 (2024) ✅ > Flashcards

MIDTERM 2 (2024) ✅ Flashcards

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1
Q

A negative campylobacter result was get from the sample that arrived frozen to the laboratory. Which answer is correct?

A

Freezing can reduce the viability of Campylobacter, potentially leading to false-negative results.

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2
Q

Which regulation prescribes the rules of official control?

A

Regulation (EU) 2017/625

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3
Q

By implementing a selective control plan they do?

A

?

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4
Q

During smoking, antimicrobial chemicals are created: what is true?

A: ..

B. The most important effect of smoking is the destruction of microbes

C. Smoking is always performed over 100°C

D. Smoking has no inhibitory effect in micorbes

A

A: something with taste and aroma..??

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5
Q

What is false?

A: Some microbial destruction might occur

B. Psychotrophs might cause spolage

C. Certain pathogen bacteria are able to grow

D. All molds are inhibited

A

D. All molds are inhibited

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6
Q

ROSA test is positive. What kind of antibiotic residue can there be in the tested meat sample?

A. Enroxil and tetracyclin
B. Ciprofloxacin and enroxil
C. Penicillin, macrocyclic lactones
D. Fluoroquinol and enroxil

A

D. Fluoroquinol and enroxil?

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7
Q

Which statement is TRUE?

A. Food industrial establishments can be built to any areas and separation of clean and contaminated is not regulated during their internal layout

B. Fats and proteins can be easily removable by strong acids from the contaminated surface

C. Primary production includes the activities performed in farms

D. Cooling is a basic tool for destroying of microbes

A

C. Primary production includes the activities performed in farms

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8
Q

75% of foodborne diseases are caused by … causes!

A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Parasites
D. Chemicals

A

B. Bacteria

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9
Q

Which was the most foodborne agent in the EU in 2020?

A. Salmonella
B. Yersinia
C. Campylobacter
D. Trichinella

A

campylobacter

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10
Q

Which is the critical control point (CCP) by the production of Bologna-type sausage productions?

A. Weighing
B. Shaping, stuffing
C. Smoking, cooking
D. Spray chilling

A

C. Smoking, cooking

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11
Q

Which volume of Codex Alimentarius Hungaricus is mandatory for the foodstuffs marketed in Hungary?

A. First volume: Technical regulations
B. Second volume: Guidelines
C. third volume: Methods

A

A: technical regulations

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12
Q

There are two basic steps of building food safety management systems. What are these, and in which order they follow each other?

A. Elaborating a HACCP plan after a well-functioning pre-requisite system

B. Elaborating HACCP plan, and then ensuring pre-requisite

C. Planning risk management measures after a properly conducted risk assessment

D. Planning operational pre-requisite after ensuring pre-requisite

A

A. Elaborating a HACCP plan after a well-functioning pre-requisite system

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13
Q

At what stage of the analytical procedure may a veterinarian responsible

A. Sampling, interpretation of results
B. Sample preparation, determining the analytical strategy
C. Carrying out the analysis
D. In all of the above may have

A

A. Sampling, interpretation of results

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14
Q

when looking for an unknown pathogen, is qualitative or quantitative method the priority?

A: not dictated, depends on the lab’s preference
B: depends on what the person sending the sample in asked
C: definitely qualitative
D: definitely quantitative

A

C: definitely qualitative

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15
Q

Which viral pathogen is the one that typically DOES NOT cause foodborne illness?

A: herpesvirus
B: calcivirus,
C: coronavirus
D: norovirus

A

A: herpesvirus

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16
Q

What is TRUE about the Enterobacteriaceae family? (1 good answer)

A: They can ferment glucose.
B: Gram-positive.
C: Oxidase-positive.
D: Obligate anaerobes.

A

A: They can ferment glucose.

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17
Q

During a hazard analysis done in the 3x3 logic table, one hazard scored 9 points. What will be the consequences? (1 good answer)

A: This is a low score on this scale, no further action is required.

B: This could be regarded as a high score, the hazard needs to be further addressed in the next steps of the HACCP plan.

C: It is a low score on the scale, but we should not forget this hazard.

D: This is a high score, the hazard is must considered as a CCP.

A

B: This could be regarded as a high score, the hazard needs to be further addressed in the next steps of the HACCP plan.

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18
Q

Which health-based guidance value (HBGV) has to be considered for acute exposure assessment?

A: ARfD (Acute Reference Dose)
B: TWI (Tolerable Weekly Intake)
C: MoE (Margin of Exposure)
D: ADI (Acceptable Daily Intake)

A

A: ARfD (Acute Reference Dose)

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19
Q

Qualitative or quantitative analysis comes first in the case of an unknown contaminant?

A: no general rule, as the client (who send the sample for analysis) asks

B: by all means the qualitative

C: by all means the quantitative

D: no general rule, the lab personnel will decide

A

B: by all means the qualitative

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20
Q

What is FALSE about Listeria monocytogenes? (1 good answer)

A: Can be found in the soil.
B: Halotolerant.
C: Able to multiply in the fridge.
D: Spore-former.

A

D: Spore-former.

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21
Q

What is TRUE about the Escherichia coli? (1 good answer)

A: Gram-positive.
B: Coagulase positive.
C: It’s part of the Enterobacteriaceae family.
D: t is the most heat resistant non-spore-forming bacterium.

A

C: It’s part of the Enterobacteriaceae family.

22
Q

In the Trichinella digestion test: how many grams of pepsin of the appropriate quality should be added to the test substance?

A: 14
B: 12
C: 16
D: 10

A

D: 10

23
Q

Which reaction’s examination is NOT included in the XLD agar (for Salmonella)? (1 good answer)

A: Lysine decarboxylation.
B: Urease production.
C: Fermentation of xylose.
D: Hydrogen-sulfide production.

A

B: Urease production.

XLD agar: Xylose-Lysine-deoxycholate agar
Hydrogen-sulfide production.–> Black

24
Q

In the digestion Trichinella test, how many minutes do digestion and two sedimentations total?

A: 60
B: 100
C: 120
D: 70

A

70

  • 30 min digestion
  • 30 min 1st sedimentation
  • 10 minutes 2nd sedimentation
25
Q

Which foods of plant origin contain solanine?

A: Potato
B: Sugar beet
C: Apricot
D: Aubergine

A

A: Potato

26
Q

Which ability is NOT characteristic for Listeria monocytogenes? (1 good answer)

A: Esculine-esculetine change.
B: Phospholipase C enzyme production.
C: Mannitol fermentation.
D: Movement at 25 °C

A

C: Mannitol fermentation.

27
Q

How to determine Critical Control Points (CCPs)? (1 good answer)

A: With brainstorming.
B: It only can be done with a decision tree.
C: With an Ishikawa diagram.
D: It is usually done by a decision tree, but it can also be done with other methods.

A

D: It is usually done by a decision tree, but it can also be done with other methods.

28
Q

Which formulations belong to the insecticides of natural origin? (1 good answer)

A: Pyrethroids
B: Triazines
C: Lindane
D: Urea derivatives

A

A: Pyrethroids
Also Rotenoids!

29
Q

What must be done if there is an unsatisfactory result for a process hygiene criterion? (1 good answer)

A: Both of them.
B: None of them.
C: Withdraw the products from the market.
D: Recall the product from the consumers.

A

A: Both of them.

30
Q

Which group of materials may be measured by ICP-MS?

A: antibiotics
B: proteins
C: trace elements
D: hormones

A

C: trace elements

31
Q

What is TRUE about the food safety criteria involving Salmonella Typhimurium and Enteritidis serotypes? (1 good answer)

A: They must be examined in baby food.
B: They must be examined in sprouts.
C: They must be examined with traditional PCR.
D: They must be examined in poultry meat.

A

D: They must be examined in poultry meat.

32
Q

Which statement is NOT true for the fungicides? (1 good answer)

A: Curative fungicides are usually local systemic agents.

B: Eradicative fungicides are used after sporulation has started.

C: Protective fungicides are generally contact effect agents.

D: Protective fungicides act when the fungus has already penetrated into the plant tissue.

A

D: Protective fungicides act when the fungus has already penetrated into the plant tissue.

33
Q

What is FALSE about coagulase-positive Staphylococci? (1 good answer)

A: They are Gram-negative.

B: Most of them are Staphylococcus aureus.

C: They have a heat-stable DNAse enzyme.

D: They can reduce the potassium tellurite to black tellurium.

A

A: They are Gram-negative.

34
Q

Which group of materials may be measured by mass spectrometers?

A: trace elements
B: both
C: none of them
D: hormones

A

D: hormones

35
Q

Which of the following is NOT a food safety criterion based on the 2073/2005 EC regulation? (1 good answer)

A: Salmonella.
B: Aerobic colony count.
C: Staphylococcus enterotoxins.
D: Listeria monocytogenes.

A

b. Aerobic colony count

36
Q

What is the base of the chromatographic separation?

A: the difference in the physical size of the molecules to be separated

B: all of these cases may occur

C: the difference in the polarity of the molecules to be separated

D: the difference in the affinity of the components to be separated towards the stationary phase

A

D: the difference in the affinity of the components to be separated towards the stationary phase??

37
Q

Which statement is true for the optical spectroscopic methods?

A: Electromagnetic radiation plays an important role in all of them.

B: Can not be used as detection method for chromatographic technics.

C: These are selective methods, i.e. individual components may be analysed without further steps from complex mixtures.

D: These are desctructive methods, i.e. the material to be measured is destroyed during the analysis.

A

A: Electromagnetic radiation plays an important role in all of them.

38
Q

Which medium is involved confirmation of coagulase-positive Staphylococci? (1 good answer)

A: MMG.
B: Triple Sugar-Iron agar.
C: Trypton broth.
D: Rabbit plasma.

A

D: Rabbit plasma.

39
Q

What are the prerequisite programmes (PrPs)? (1 good answer)

A: Are essential to control specific hazards, but not at a CCP.

B: Activities and practices that must be performed in order to establish and maintain a hygienic environment.

C: Part of the HACCP.

D: Are identified by hazard analysis as essential to control the likelihood of introduction and/or growth of hazards linked to food safety in products or in the environment of manufacturing.

A

B: Activities and practices that must be performed in order to establish and maintain a hygienic environment.

40
Q

During the Trichinella digestion test: how many ml of 25 % hydrochloric acid should be added to the test substance?

A: 18
B: 12
C: 14
D: 16

A

D: 16

41
Q

Which parasitic pathogen is the one thet typically DOES NOT cause foodborn illness?

A: sacroptes
B: trichinella
C: tapeworm
D: sacrocystis

A

A: sacroptes

42
Q

What is NOT part of the Salmonella´s confirmation? (1 good answer)

A: urease test
B: serology test
C: heamolysis test
D: lysine decarboxylation

A

C: heamolysis test

43
Q

Which statement is FALSE about the food safety criteria?

A: the absence of moulds is an important food safety criterion by the 2073/2005 EC regulation

B: if their results are unsatisfactory, the food batch is unfit for human consumption

C: Listeria monocytogenes is an important food safety criterion in ready to eat foods.

D: generally, they are important pathogens

A

A: the absence of moulds is an important food safety criterion by the 2073/2005 EC regulation

44
Q

How to distinguish diarrhea of small intestine and colon origin by examining feces and defecation?

A: smell, texture, colour
B: quantity, consistency, frequency
C: colour, smell, quantity
D: quantity, color, frequency

A

B: quantity, consistency, frequency

45
Q

Part(s) of the microbiological risk assessment is/are …

A: risk manegment

B: all of the above

C: hazard characterization including dose-response assessment

D: risk communication

A

B: all of the above

46
Q

What filter size (micrometer) should be used during the digestion Trichinella test?

A: 140
B: 180
C: 230
D: 260

A

180

47
Q

Legal limit for this product in case of L. monocytogenes is 100 CFU/g. with the given technology in place the required minimum theoretical heat treatment to kill the microbe is 70C for 2 minutes. what could be a well-set critical limit? (1 good answer)

A: 80 CFU/g Listeria monocytogenes in the final product

B: heat treatment at 70C for 2 minutes

C: heat treatment at 72C for 2 minutes

D:?

A

C: heat treatment at 72C for 2 minutes

48
Q

Which species are NOT required to be tested for Trichinella as part of meat inspection?

A: ostrich
B: nutria / otter
C: goose
D: horse

A

C: goose

Livestocks to test:
- Pigs (domestic)
- Wild boar
- Horse
- Ostrich
- Nutria

49
Q

What are the similarities between pesticides and veterinary medicine?

A permits for unlimited time are issues for both

B: MRL values are set for both

C: their active ingredients are chemically very similar to each other

D: their active ingredients are chemically very similat to each other

A

B: MRL values are set for both ?

50
Q

Which statements are FALSE?

A: halotolerant bacteria can reduce histamine content of the fish

B: ciguatoxin and tetrodoxin are biotoxins which can be found in the edible tissues of fish

C bacteria contamination of fish can inhibit the production of histamine

D: histamine is an highly potent biogenic amine which is also produced during the normal metabolism

A

A: halotolerant bacteria can reduce histamine content of the fish

C bacteria contamination of fish can inhibit the production of histamine

51
Q

In the case of pigs, which muscles are primarily suitable for Trichinella samples?

A: leg muscles

B: muscles of the tongue/swallow

C: aperture colomn

D: diaphragma

A

C. aperture colomn (syn. pillar of diaphragma)

52
Q

What are the symptoms of Trichinosis in pigs?

A: enteric
B: no clinical signs
C: organs of vision
D: muscular

A

B: no clinical signs

Food Hygiene (10 decks)

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