Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Food Hygiene > MIDTERM 1 (2024) ✅ > Flashcards

MIDTERM 1 (2024) ✅ Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Gourmet Food flashcards
1
Q

Which parameters are requirements of the examination of drinking water (2020/2184 EU directive)? (2 good answers)

a. Pseudomonas Aeruoginosa
b. Salmonella?
c. E. coli
d. Intestinal enterococci

A

c. E. coli
d. Intestinal enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a food arena in brief?

a. Food overconsumption
b. Food production and supply system
c. Food authority education platform
d. ‘Sports food’ for special nutritional needs

A

b. Food production and supply system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is true about the impedance measurement

a. It can only be used for sterility test (presence/absence)
b. The microbial activity increases the impedance
c. The sharpness of the drop in the impedance correlates with the initial cell count?
d. It requires minimum 3 days incubation

A

b. The microbial activity increases the impedance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If the concentration exponent of a chemical disinfectant is high (e.g 10)

a. It is not authorized in the EU
b. It requires a high concentration
c. It greatly loses its efficiency with dilution
d. It destroys the microbes more rapidly

A

c. It greatly loses its efficiency with dilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

For which foods should the annual No of sample be determined based on the production figure of the previous year? (MCQ)

a. Fish
b. Swine
c. Sheep
d. Honey

A

b. Swine
A. Fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

For which foods should the annual no of sample be determined based on the production figure of the previous year (MCQ)

a. Rabbit meat
b. Egg
c. Sheep
d. Cattle

A

c. Sheep
d. Cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For which foods should the annual no of sample be determined based on the production figure of the previous year (MCQ) - unsure

a. Swine
b. Cattle
c. Broiler chicken
d. Turkey

A

C. Broiler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For which foods should the annual no of sample be determined based on the production figure of the previous year (MCQ)

a. Game meat
b. Cow milk
c. Swine
d. Cattle

A

B. Cow milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following statements is false

a. Veterinarians have no role in risk communication
b. Foods play an important role in maintaining health
c. Most of the consumers are price sensitive
d. Consumers demand towards the quality and safety of food

A

a. Veterinarians have no role in risk communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following statements is false about creating a 10-fold serial dilution

a. The pipette tips must be changed before each pipetting
b. It is required for presence/absence, e.g. Salmonella detection
c. The 1st dilution is created from the sample
d. Each tube has to be mixed before pipetting

A

b. It is required for presence/absence, e.g. Salmonella detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For what purpose is sampling based on the annual monitoring plan suitable (MCQ)

a. It is used to detect the poisonous source??
b. It is used to inspect the cause of foodborne disease??
c. It is used to determine the drug residue in the food
d. It is used to investigate the chemical contamination of the food

A

c. It is used to determine the drug residue in the food
d. It is used to investigate the chemical contamination of the food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

For what purposes is sampling based on suspicion suitable (MCQ)

a. It is used to inspect the cause of foodborne disease
b. It is used to determine the drug residue in the food
c. It is used to investigate the chemical contamination of the food
d. It is used to detect the poisonous source

A

a. It is used to inspect the cause of foodborne disease?
d. It is used to detect the poisonous source?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which method is not used for the examination of solid samples -

a. Membrane filtration
b. MPN method
c. Pour plate method
d. Spread plate method

A

a. Membrane filtration (for liquid samples instead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which products are mostly commonly treated with irradiation in the EU

a. Raw meat
b. Milk
c. Fresh salads
d. Spices

A

d. Spices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

From which foods 500g sample must be taken (MCQ)

a. Mammal meat
b. Sausage
c. Milk
d. Pulse (leguminous)

A

a. Mammal meat
b. Sausage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

From which foods 500g sample must be taken (MCQ)

a. Turkey meat
b. Stone fruit
c. Mammal fat
d. Cow milk

A

a. Turkey meat
c. Mammal fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the ‘hazard characterisation’ step of risk assessment

a. Identification of biological, chemical and physical agents capable of causing adverse health effects

b. Calculation of the likelihood that a particular substance will cause harm in the light of the nature of the hazard and the extent to which people, animal, plants and/or the environment are exposed to it

c. Defining the nature of the adverse health effects associated with hazards which may be present in food

d. Evaluation of who, or what has been exposed to hazard and a quantification of the amounts involved

A

c. Defining the nature of the adverse health effects associated with hazards which may be present in food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the ‘hazard identification’ step of risk assessment:

a. Identification of biological, chemical and physical agents capable of causing adverse health effects

b. Defining the nature of the adverse health effects associated with hazards which may be present in food

c. Evaluation of who, or what, has been exposed to a hazard and quantification of the amounts involved

d. Calculation of the likelihood that a particular substance will cause harm, in the light of the nature of the hazard and the extent to which people, animals, plants and/or the environment are exposed to it

A

a. Identification of biological, chemical and physical agents capable of causing adverse health effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the ‘exposure assessment’ step of risk assessment

a. Identification of biological, chemical and physical agents capable of causing adverse health effects

b. Defining the nature of the adverse health effects associated with hazards which may be present in food

c. Evaluation of who, or what, has been exposed to a hazard and quantification of the amounts involved

d. Calculation of the likelihood that a particular substance will cause harm, in the light of the nature of the hazard and the extent to which people, animals, plants and/or the environment are exposed to it

A

c. Evaluation of who, or what, has been exposed to a hazard and quantification of the amounts involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the ‘risk characterisation’ step of risk assessment

a. Defining the nature of the adverse health effects associated with hazards which may be present in food

b. Evaluation of who, or what, has been exposed to a hazard and a quantification of the amounts involved

c. Calculation of the likelihood that a particular substance will cause harm, in the light of the nature of the hazard and the extent to which people, animals, plants and/or the environment are exposed to it

d. Identification of biological, chemical, and physical agents capable of causing adverse health effects

A

c. Calculation of the likelihood that a particular substance will cause harm, in the light of the nature of the hazard and the extent to which people, animals, plants and/or the environment are exposed to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is true about the redox potential measurement:

a. It is used to determine the endotoxin contamination of a sample

b. It can’t be used for the determination of cell count

c. If the sample has high contamination, the Time to Detection is shorter than in less contaminated samples

d. Redox potential is increased by microbial activity

A

c. If the sample has high contamination, the Time to Detection is shorter than in less contaminated samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are possible ways to avoid biofilm formation in the food industry (one false answer)

a. With the use of monophasic compositions
b. With the rotation of disinfectants
c. By applying smooth surfaces
d. With multiple repetitions of the cleaning-disinfection cycle

A

a. With the use of monophasic compositions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do we control salmonella

a. By heat treatment
b. With control programs at livestock level and legal microbiological limits
c. With legal microbiological limits only
d. With control programs at livestock level only

A

b. With control programs at livestock level and legal microbiological limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which parameters are not indicators of fecal contamination of water (2 good answers)

a. Aerobic colony count
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. E. coli
d. Enterococcus fecalis

A

a. Aerobic colony count
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which foods can be contaminated during the primary production (MCQ)

a. Sausage
b. Vegetables
c. Cheese
d. Raw milk

A

b. Vegetables
d. Raw milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which foods can be contaminated during the primary production (MCQ)

a. Dry paste
b. Honey
c. Dairy products
d. Live bivalves

A

b. Honey
c. Dairy products
d. Live bivalves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which foods can be contaminated during the primary production (MCQ)

a. Cereals (grains)
b. Spices
c. Yoghurt
d. Egg products

A

a. Cereals (grains)
b. Spices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which foods can be contaminated during the primary production (MCQ)

a. Dairy products
b. Minced meat
c. Fruits
d. Egg

A

c. Fruits
d. Egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which materials will readily dissolve in water (2 good answers)

a. Apolar covalent compounds
b. Elements
c. Ions, ionic compounds
d. Polar covalent compounds

A

c. Ions, ionic compounds
d. Polar covalent compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which statement is true for staphylococcus aureus:

a. As a gram-negative coccus, resistant to environmental influences
b. Coagulase-negative strains cause food poisoning
c. It produces heat-sensitive toxin
d. It produces heat-stable toxin

A

d. It produces heat-stable toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the basic principle of traceability:

a. Food business operation must use certain isotopes as indicators in case of some high-valued product types to prevent food adulteration and enable tracing the batches throughout the food chain

b. Food business operators must be able to trace their output batches until they are being consumed, used as feed or terminated

c. Food business operators should keep records on the source of their input materials and the consignee of their output batches

d. Food business operators must be able to trace back all products in their inventory up to the primary source (up to the soil)

A

b. Food business operators must be able to trace their output batches until they are being consumed, used as feed or terminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How can water get in contact with food during food processing (during normal operation)? (2 good answers)

a. The natural water content of the raw material
b. Water used for cleaning the raw materials and equipment
c. In the form of rainwater
d. Leakages from the environment

A

a. The natural water content of the raw material??
b. Water used for cleaning the raw materials and ??

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are characteristics to the object inspection program? (MCQ)

a. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation
b. The results of the investigation are valid for the whole population
c. It is used to survey the attributes of food
d. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely

A

b. The results of the investigation are valid for the whole population
c. It is used to survey the attributes of food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are characteristics to the selective control plan? (MCQ)

a. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation
b. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely
c. It is used to survey the attributes of food
d. The results of the investigation are valid for the whole population

A

a. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation
b. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

We used pour plate method to determine the total viable cell count of milk. We found 100 colonies in the 1st dilution. What was the initial cell count of the sample:

a. 10 cfu/ml
b. 1.0 x 10^-5 cfu/ml
c. 1.0 x 10^3 cfu/ml
d. 1.0 x 10^4 cfu/ml

A

(initial cell count = (number of colonies in dilution) x (dilution factor), so initial cell count = 100 colonies x 10 (1:10dilution) = 1000 cfu/ml

c. 1.0 x 10^3 cfu/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is false about the examination of protein traces?

a. It is commonly used with immunofluorescence to find pathogenic bacteria

b. Its basis is the biuret reaction

c. Its semi-quantitative, the contamination can be estimated based on the strength of the color change

d. It can be used for the examination of a surface after cleaning

A

a. It is commonly used with immunofluorescence to find pathogenic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is true about the direct microscopic counting/ what is true about the directive microscopic counting

a. With this method it is impossible to differentiate between dead and live cells
b. It requires 1 day incubation
c. It is most commonly applicable for blood cell counting
d. It is impossible to count bacteria with it

A

c. It is most commonly applicable for blood cell counting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

For which foods should the annual no of sample be determined based on the number of animals slaughtered in the previous year? (MCQ)

a. Honey
b. Sheep
c. Swine
d. Fish

A

b. Sheep
c. Swine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

For which foods should the annual no of sample be determined based on the number of animals slaughtered in the previous year (MCQ)

a. Sheep
b. Cattle
c. Rabbit meat
d. Egg

A

a. Sheep
b. Cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which compounds are found in Group A to be tested as chemical substances during the chemical control? (MCQ)

a. Nitrofuran derivatives
b. Heavy metals
c. Environmental contaminants
d. Anabolic substances

A

a. Nitrofuran derivatives
b. Heavy metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which compounds are found in Group A to be tested as chemical substances during the chemical control? (MCQ)

a. Chloramphenicol
b. Sulphonamides
c. Steroid hormones
d. Sedatives

A

a. Chloramphenicol
c. Steroid hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which compounds are found in Group A to be tested as chemical substances during the chemical control? (MCQ)

a. Nitroimidazole derivatives
b. Antibacterials
c. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
d. Stilbenes

A

a. Nitroimidazole derivatives
d. Stilbenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which compounds are found in group B to be tested as chemical substances during the chemical control? (MCQ)

a. Chloramphenicol
b. Sedatives
c. Steroid hormones
d. Sulphonamides

A

b. Sedatives
d. Sulphonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which compounds are found in Group B to be tested as chemical substances during the chemical control (MCQ)

a. Thyreostatics
b. Mycotoxins
c. Beta-agonists
d. Anthelmintics

A

b. Mycotoxins
d. Anthelmintics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which is (are) true for fermentation:

a. A biological process that changes the properties of food while bacteria produce energy in absence of oxygen (with some exceptions)

b. A process when microorganisms produce energy from protein under anaerob conditions

c. Louis pasteur used it to describe life with oxygen

A

a. A biological process that changes the properties of food while bacteria produce energy in absence of oxygen (with some exceptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the incubation of microbes

a. The incubation always happens in a special jar to provide special atmosphere
b. The plates should be incubated upside down
c. The plates should be incubated without their top
d. The incubation always happens at room temperature

A

b. The plates should be incubated upside down?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which sentences are true about e.coli? (2 good answers)

a. Its detection from water samples is based on the presence of two enzyme

b. It must be examined in the water used in food businesses

c. It is able to reduce the 2,3,5-triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (TTC) to formazan

d. It is the indicator of low flow rate and general hygiene

A

b. It must be examined in the water used in food businesses

c. It is able to reduce the 2,3,5-triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (TTC) to formazan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the spread plate method?

a. It never requires a serial dilution
b. We evaluate the plates with the colony
c. 1ml inoculum is used for the plates
d. It can be only be used for liquid samples

A

c. 1ml inoculum is used for the plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What can the real-time PCR detect
a. Protein
b. DNA
c. Lipopolysaccharides
d. ATP

A

b. DNA

50
Q

What is not required for a real-time PCR run

a. Primers
b. Polymerase enzyme
c. Fluorescence
d. Agarose gel electrophoresis

A

d. Agarose gel electrophoresis

51
Q

Which of the following areas is part of the food arena’s macroenvironmental analysis

a. Understanding the consequences of overconsumption
b. Testing of substitutes for a given food
c. Getting to know the activities of competitors
d. Understanding the agriculture (economic) environment

A

d. Understanding the agriculture (economic) environment

52
Q

Pair the types of fermentations

a. Homofermentative
b. Yeasts fermentative
c. Heterofermentative

  1. produce 2 lactic acid from glucose
  2. produce lactic acid, ethanol, acetic acid, carbon dioxide
    from glucose
  3. produce ethanol and carbon dioxide from glucose
A

a. Homofermentative = produce 2 lactic acid from glucose
b. Yeasts fermentative = produce ethanol and carbon dioxide from glucose
c. Heterofermentative = produce lactic acid, ethanol, acetic acid, carbon dioxide
from glucose

53
Q

Match the food law acts to the appropriate levels:

i. (Choose between): food safety modernization act (111th congress public law 353, US)
ii. The HACCp system of a bakery
iii. The accreditation of the EAVE
iv. WTO-SPS
v. Regulation (EC) No 178/2002
vi. The official approval of a food processing plant

  • Local
  • Community level
  • National level
  • International level
A

i. (Choose between): food safety modernization act (111th congress public law 353, US) NATIONAL
ii. The HACCp system of a bakery LOCAL
iii. The accreditation of the EAVE INTERNATIONAL
iv. WTO-SPS INTERNATIONAL
v. Regulation (EC) No 178/2002 **COMMUNITY **
vi. The official approval of a food processing plant LOCAL

54
Q

What is true about the ATP tests

a. It’s only presence/absence test
b. It requires a luminometer
c. It is used to find traces of lipopolysaccharides
d. The reagent causes a visible color change in the presence of ATP

A

b. It requires a luminometer?

55
Q

What is false about flow cytometry

a. Microscopy and fluorescence are used in this method
b. It can be used for counting bacteria cells
c. It can be used to find specific pathogens
d. It can be used for counting blood cells?

A

a. Microscopy and fluorescence are used in this method

56
Q

For which pathogen is census sampling performed

a. Trichinella species
b. Campylobacter species
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Salmonella

A

a. Trichinella species

57
Q

What hazard type gluten falls in?

a. Residues
b. Physical
c. Allergens
d. Biological hazards

A

c. Allergens

58
Q

What hazard type Salmonella falls in

a. Allergens
b. Biological hazards
c. Contaminants
d. Residues

A

b. Biological hazards

59
Q

What hazard type veterinary drugs fall in

a. Residues
b. Allergens
c. Contaminants
d. Microbiological hazards

A

a. Residues

60
Q

What hazard type pesticides fall in

a. Residues
b. Microbiological hazards
c. Contaminants
d. Allergens

A

a. Residues

61
Q

What statements are false (MCQ)

a. The food chain is not really a chain, but a complex network

b. Food chain safety actually means the absence of risks from animal products

c. Food safety essentially communicates risks from the point of view of consumer health

d. During food chain safety, we focus on the chemical and biological risks of animal product pathways as veterinarians

A

b. Food chain safety actually means the absence of risks from animal products

d. During food chain safety, we focus on the chemical and biological risks of animal product pathways as veterinarians

62
Q

In the case of non-prepackaged product, how customer must be informed about the mandatory product labeling elements

a. A QR code must be attached to the shelf so that the customer can find the right information

b. It is mandatory to provide verbal information about the product information at the customer’s request

c. The law specifically obliges the consumer to gather product information but it does not specify how to do this

d. Product data sheets must be published on the manufacturer’s website

A

b. It is mandatory to provide verbal information about the product information at the customer’s request

d. Product data sheets must be published on the manufacturer’s website

63
Q

What is not a characteristic of a general medium

a. The pigment production of microbes is inhibited on them
b. It can be used for the determination of the total viable cell count
c. Molds are also able to grow on them
d. It provides basic nutrients with peptone or other biological matter

A

a. The pigment production of microbes is inhibited on them

64
Q

What kind of water contaminants may appear in foods of plant origin? (2 good answers)

a. Elements?
b. Polar covalent compounds
c. Ions, ionic compounds
d. Apolar covalent compounds

A

c. Ions, ionic compounds
d. Apolar covalent compounds

65
Q

Which group causes the spoilage of vegetables, primarily

a. Viruses
b. Molds
c. Bacteria
d. Yeasts

A

c. Bacteria

66
Q

Which microbes have the longest generation time

a. Gram-negative bacteria
b. Gram-positive bacteria
c. Molds
d. Yeasts

A

c. Molds

67
Q

Which microbes have the highest tolerance for low water activity

a. Gram-positive bacteria 0.9
b. Yeasts 0.88
c. Molds 0.8
d. Gram-negative bacteria

A

c. Molds 0.8

68
Q

Which group of microbes tolerates the lowest water activity

a. Gram-negative bacteria
b. Molds
c. Gram-positive bacteria
d. Yeasts

A

b. Molds

69
Q

Which types of samples shall be taken in case of foods of animal origin during the primary production? (MCQ)

a. Egg products
b. Water
c. Dairy products
d. Urine

A

b. Water
d. Urine

70
Q

Which types of samples shall be taken in case of foods of animal origin during the primary production (MCQ)

a. Blood
b. Minced meat
c. Sausage
d. Feed

A

a. Blood
d. Feed

71
Q

Which statement is true

a. By cleaning, the number of microorganisms cannot be reduced, only by disinfection

b. The disinfectant reduces the number of bacteria by at least five orders of magnitude

c. Disinfection destroys all microorganisms on the surface

d. The great advantage of single-phase agents is that the surface can be cleaned and disinfected in one step, there is no need to remove macroscopic impurities beforehand

A

b. The disinfectant reduces the number of bacteria by at least five orders of magnitude

72
Q

The quality of water intended for human consumption is regulated by:

a. A directive by the european parliament and of the council

b. A directive from the codex alimentarius

c. A regulation by the european parliament and of the council

d. Member state legislation

A

a. A directive by the european parliament and of the counci
d. Member state legislation

73
Q

Which actions shall be taken if drug residue is detected over MRL in the sample taken at slaughterhouse? (MCQ)

a. The meat and the offal of the animals shall be sequestered

b. The meat and the offal of the animals are unfit for human consumption

c. The products produced from meat and offal of the animals are fit for human consumption

d. The meat and the offal of the slaughtered animals are for the human consumption adultery expiry of withdrawal period

A

a. The meat and the offal of the animals shall be sequestered

b. The meat and the offal of the animals are unfit for human consumption

74
Q

What is a microlife

a. A unit of risk representing a half an hour charge in life-expectancy
b. The standard unit of foodborne risks
c. A unit of risk which represents a one-in-a-million chance of sudden death
d. A unit of people dying because of foodborne incidents

A

a. A unit of risk representing a half an hour charge in life-expectancy

75
Q

Which of the following statements is false about food

a. None of these
b. Strategic product
c. The combination of the physical product and food chain information
d. Confidence product

A

a. Non of these

76
Q

Which of the following statements is characteristic to the factors influencing food safety in the 1970s

a. Backyard farms, home animal keeping and plant cultivation

b. Globalization, appearance of ‘big’ brands

c. Appearance of alternative protein sources instead of animal proteins

d. More and more chemical compounds (flavor-, color-, texture enhancers) in foodstuffs

A

d. More and More chemical compunds(flavour-,color, texture enhancers) in foodstuffs

77
Q

What is false about heat treatment

a. Appertization is more intense than pasteurization
b. Moist heat is more effective than dry heat
c. Pasteurization is used to destroy all microorganisms
d. The most heat-resistant microorganisms are spore-formers

A

c. Pasteurization is used to destroy all microorganisms

78
Q

Which microbe is the most significant regarding the safety of cans

a. Coxiella burnetti
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Geobacillus stearothermophylus

A

c. Clostridium botulinum

79
Q

Complete the definition with the right word: ‘food law’ means the laws, regulations and administrative provisions governing food in general, and food….. In particular,
whether at community or national level

a. Consumption
b. Quality
c. Safety
d. Production

A

c. Safety

80
Q

The regulation 1169/2011/EU on the provision of food information to consumers requires food business organisation to…

a. …differentiate all product ingredients on the label according to the country of origin

b. …indicate a valid phone number on the food labels for direct contact with consumers (consumer service)

c. …indicate substances causing allergies or intolerances on the label in case of pre-packaged products

d. …use packaging materials exclusively from recycled materials

A

c. …indicate substances causing allergies or intolerances on the label in case of pre-packaged products

81
Q

Which statements are false (MCQ)

a. The sample shall be packed in a clean, chemical-free container

b. The package has to protect the sample against the contamination

c. The closure of the container is not necessary

d. The sample shall be packed in solution containing preservative agent

A

c. The closure of the container is not necessary

d. The sample shall be packed in solution containing preservative agent

82
Q

Which statements are false (MCQ)

a. Time interval of the transport does not influence the quality of the sample
b. Official report shall be attached to the sample
c. The sample taken freshly be stored at room temperature
d. Attending paper shall be attached to the sample

A

a. Time interval of the transport does not influence the quality of the sample

c. The sample taken freshly be stored at room temperature

83
Q

Which 2 of these products require the food safety minimum (F0=2.52 minutes) heat treatment (2 correct answers)

a. Can of tomato paste
b. Can of beans
c. Can of meat soup
d. Fruit can

A

b. Can of beans
c. Can of meat soup

84
Q

Which statements are correct (MCQ)

a. Time interval of the transport does not influence the quality of the sample
b. Attending paper shall be attached to the sample
c. The sample taken freshly shall be stored at room temperature
d. Official report shall be attached to the sample

A

b. Attending paper shall be attached to the sample

d. Official report shall be attached to the sample

85
Q

Which compound is used as a solidifying agent in today’s microbiology practice

a. Agar agar
b. Gelatine
c. Peptones
d. Starch

A

a. Agar agar

86
Q

Which of the following statements is false about the key number during MPN method

a. Every digit means the number of positive tubes in 3 consecutive dilutions
b. It consists of 3 digits
c. It always starts with a ‘3’
d. It is used to find the basic value in the Hoskins table

A

c. It always starts with a ‘3’

87
Q

Which statement is false to the (plow-) sole dieases

a. It can lead to drying out of the soil
b. It can cause inland inundation
c. It causes premature corrosion of the plow base
d. It is a consequence of incorrect tillage

A

c. It causes premature corrosion of the plow base

88
Q

How do we group microbial foodborne diseases

a. Enteral, non-enteral
b. Foodborne infection, food poisoning, toxicoinfection form
c. Foodborne infection, food poisoning, septicaemia
d. Foodborne infection, food poisoning

A

b. Foodborne infection, food poisoning, toxicoinfection form

89
Q

Which statement is false for toxoplasmosis

a. It can also be spread by eating raw meat or meat that has not been sufficiently heated

b. Infection in fetal age can cause miscarriage

c. The cat is the final host

d. It can cause severe enteric disease in people with HIV

A

d. It can cause severe enteric disease in people with HIV

90
Q

What does the FBO acronym means

a. Federal Business Organisation
b. Franchise business operation
c. French barbecue organisation
d. Food business operator

A

d. Food business operator

91
Q

Who is responsible for the safety of a food stuff

a. The consumer, therefore consumer consciousness must be improved

b. Official control organisations that inspect food

c. The company that sold the product directly to the consumer is responsible

d. In general the producer of the particular food product, unless it can be proven that the risk was caused by someone else

A

d. In general the producer of the particular food product, unless it can be proven that the risk was caused by someone else

92
Q

Which statement is true about Listeria monocytogenes

a. It is one of the most common pathogens that cause foodborne illness
b. Unable to multiply below +5’C
c. The disease is especially risky in pregnant women
d. Causes hemorrhagic enteritis

A

c. The disease is especially risky in pregnant women

93
Q

What organisms does food microbiology deal with (2 good answers)
a. With prions
b. With cancer-causing viruses
c. With mushrooms
d. With toxin-producing bacteria

A

a. With prions
d. With toxin-producing bacteria

94
Q

Choose the correct statements (MCQ)

a. Food safety and food chain safety are synonymous

b. Food safety and antibiotic resistance do not link each other, or have only an indirect link

c. Some pathogens affecting consumer health enter people’s bodies through food

d. Consumer health is affected by the absence of chemical, biological and physical hazards in food

A

c. Some pathogens affecting consumer health enter people’s bodies through food

d. Consumer health is affected by the absence of chemical, biological and physical hazards in food

95
Q

Choose the correct statements (MCQ)

a. The number of food safety incidents few hundred thousand every years

b. On average, more than 1.5 million people fall ill every day from unsafe food

c. Fatal food poisoning and infection are rare, with up to few hundred cases per years

d. Salmonella bacteria cause tens of thousands of deaths worldwide every year

A

b. On average, more than 1.5 million people fall ill every day from unsafe food
d. Salmonella bacteria cause tens of thousands of deaths worldwide every year

96
Q

What is risk analysis

a. The system of risk assessment, risk management and risk communication

b. The processes of weighing policy alternatives, considering risk assessment and other relevant factors, and, if needed, selecting appropriate prevention and control options

c. The scientific evaluation of known or potential adverse health effects resulting from human exposure to foodborne hazards

d. The scientific characterisation and quantification of risks

A

a. The system of risk assessment, risk management and risk communication

97
Q

What is risk assessment:

a. The scientific characterisation and quantification of hazards

b. The scientific evaluation of known or potential adverse health effects resulting from human exposure to foodborne hazards

c. The system of risk analysis, risk management and risk communication

d. The process of weighing policy alternatives, considering risk evaluation and other relevant factors and if needed selecting appropriate prevention and control options

A

b. The scientific evaluation of known or potential adverse health effects resulting from human exposure to foodborne hazards

98
Q

What is not true about the Hurdle technology (MCQ)

a. It usually works by combining more than one approach
b. The shelf life of the product decreases
c. It is a food quality verification procedure
d. The use of preservatives may also be part of it

A

b. The shelf life of the product decreases
c. It is a food quality verification procedure

99
Q

Which bacteria can cause toxicoinfection:

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Clostridium botulinum in adults
c. Bacillus cereus
d. STEC

A

c. Bacillus cereus

100
Q

What does the spectrum of action mean for disinfectants:

a. In what concentration range they can be applied
b. How they work
c. What groups of microbes they act against
d. What types of surfaces can they be applied to

A

c. What groups of microbes they act against

101
Q

What is true about facultative anaerobic bacteria

a. Both of them
b. They can use oxygen
c. None of them
d. They can use anaerobic fermentation

A

a. Both of them?

102
Q

What kind of expiration date is/are in use in regard to food stuffs

a. ‘Guaranty period’ and ‘warranty date’
b. ‘Warranty date’, ‘best before’ and ‘consumed by’ dates
c. ‘Best before’ and ‘consumed by’ dates
d. ‘Consumed by’ date

A

c. ‘Best before’ and ‘consumed by’ dates??

103
Q

Choose the right answers (MCQ)

a. Veterinarians have a role to play in producing safe food throughout the entire food product chain

b. Only official and authorized veterinarians have food safety responsibilities

c. In recent decades, countries with developed economies have not had major food security incidents

d. The risk of food safety for the elderly and children is greater than for the middle-aged healthy population

A

a. Veterinarians have a role to play in producing safe food throughout the entire food product chain

d. The risk of food safety for the elderly and children is greater than for the middle-aged healthy population

104
Q

Choose the right answers (MCQ)

a. A veterinarian at a small animal clinic has no responsibility whatsoever in relation to the food safety of consumers

b. Food chain operators have primary responsibility for food safety

c. The veterinarian caring for food-producing farm animals has an overriding responsibility for the health of consumers

d. Official veterinarians are responsible in the first line for producing safe food

A

b. Food chain operators have primary responsibility for food safety

c. The veterinarian caring for food-producing farm animals has an overriding responsibility for the health of consumers

105
Q

Which of the following factors does not influence food safety

a. Economic factors
b. Level of development of road networks
c. Social factors
d. Each has an effect on food safety

A

d. Each has an effect on food safety

106
Q

True or false? Feed events in the EU must be reported via the RASFF system

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

107
Q

Which statement is false

a. All bacterial toxins are more heat-resistant than toxin-producing bacteria

b. Heat treatment in food with high water activity is more effective than in food with low water activity

c. The heat resistance of bacterial spores is higher than that of vegetative cells

d. Viruses are not able to multiply in food

A

d. Viruses are not able to multiply in food

108
Q

What does the ‘one health’ approach cover

a. Environmental and animal health
b. Human and animal health
c. Human, animal and environmental health
d. Human and food producing animal health

A

c. Human, animal and environmental health?

109
Q

Which microbe is able to multiply in the fridge

a. Salmonella
b. Escherichia coli
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Staphylococcus aureus

A

c. Listeria monocytogenes?

110
Q

What mechanisms may play a role in the development of disinfectant resistance (pick one false answer)

a. Biofilm formation
b. Mutation
c. Efflux
d. Halotolerance

A

d. Halotolerance

111
Q

Which agreement defines a framework for the international food trade

a. WTO-SPS
b. Codex alimentarius
c. SPSS
d. World organisation for Animal health (OIE)

A

b. Codex alimentarius

112
Q

Which measures must be taken if prohibited substance was detected in a sample (MCQ)

a. The meat, the viscera and the slaughter by-products of the animals treated with prohibited substances must be destroyed

b. The use of the given food from which the sample was taken for purposes other than its original purpose may be permitted

c. Animals treated with prohibited substance must be killed on the farm without compensation

d. The license of the establishment where the sample was taken must be suspended

A

a. The meat, the viscera and the slaughter by-products of the animals treated with prohibited substances must be destroyed

c. Animals treated with prohibited substance must be killed on the farm without compensation

113
Q

Which food is the most common source of Clostridium perfringens

a. Raw milk
b. Quick-frozen fruit and vegetables
c. Cooked meat dishes stored without refrigeration
d. Canned food

A

c. Cooked meat dishes stored without refrigeration

114
Q

Thermotolerant species of which genus cause foodborne illness

a. Campylobacter
b. Yersinia
c. Staphylococcus
d. Salmonella

A

Staphylococcus

115
Q

Which statement is true for Campylobacter:

a. Most EU country are exempt from it

b. The most common source of human disease is poultry

c. It often causes illness in livestock with serious economic losses

d. Obligate anaerobic

A

b. The most common source of human disease is poultry

116
Q

Which are the official tools of the EU administration for establishing the common food law (1 good answer)

a. regulations, directives, decisions, recommendations and relevant EU level organization.

b. operates relevant EU level organisations.

c. conducts inspections in the member states.

d. national law, regulations, directives, decisions and relevant EU level organisations

A

a. regulations, directives, decisions, recommendations and relevant EU level organization.

117
Q

Which statement is true about smoking?

A. smoking has no inhibitory effects on microbes
B. during smoking some antimicrobial chemicals are created
C. the most important effect of smoking is the destruction of microbes
D. smoking is always performed over 100 degrees Celsius

A

B. during smoking some antimicrobial chemicals are created

118
Q

Which group causes the curdling of milk left out of the fridge

a. Psychotrophes
b. Acetic acid bacteria
c. lactic acid bacteria
d. coliforms

A

c. lactic acid bacteria

119
Q

Match the numbers with the related legal acts!

REGULATION (EC) No 853/2004
REGULATION (EC) No 178/2002
REGULATION (EC) No 852/2004

  • act on food chain
  • laying down the general principles andrequirements of food law on the hygiene of foodstuff
  • laying down specific hygiene rules for food animal origin
  • directive on HACCP system in the food and feed production plants..?
A

853/2004EC hygien rules for food animal origine
852/2004 hygine of feedstuff
178/2002 food chain & HACCP ??

120
Q

What is the D value?

A: destruction rate
B: thermal death time
C: decimal reduction time
D: dose

A

B: thermal death time

Food Hygiene (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions