Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How were bacteria originally classified on Haekel’s tree? Why?

A

Moneres (bacteria) were classified very low (near the “trunk” of the tree); are prokaryotic and thus less imporant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What were the three major Kingdoms of Haekel’s tree of life?

A

Plantae, Protista (unicellular eukaryotes), Animalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the tree of life that has Kingdom Monera at the bottom (LUCA)

A

Monera < Protista < Plantae, Fungi, Animalia (each diverged from Protista)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe Carl Woese’s contributions to the tree of life

A

Quantitatively related organisms based on numerical data (shared 16S SSU rRNA genes) instead of morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why were the 16S SSU rRNA genes used to relate organisms?

A
  • universal to all organisms
  • does not undergo horizontal gene transfer (conjugation)
  • highly conserved (functionally constant and low mutation rate)
  • number of mutations acts as a molecular clock to determine divergence time between species
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the “current” hypothesis for the 3 Domain phylogeny?

A

Divergence at LUCA into Bacteria and the common ancestor between Archaea and Eukarya, which diverged into those respective branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the relatedness between Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

A

Bacteria is the oldest, Archaea and Eukarya are most closely related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What were the overall contributions of Carl Woese?

A
  • quantitative approach to the tree of life
  • discovered Archaea
  • proposed the 3 Domain system instead of the 5 Kingdoms
  • implied that prokaryotes are not current evolutionary artifacts; that have evolved alongside us
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the trend in the number of bacteria species discovered versus time?

A

Has increased exponentially in part due to next gen sequencing techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many phyla of bacteria have we discovered thus far?

A

~80, although 1500 is the predicted number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the four major phyla in Bacteria? What makes them “major”?

A
  • Proteobacteria
  • Actinobacteria
  • Fermicutes
  • Bacteroidetes
    80% of characterized genera (cultured in lab) belong to these phyla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If more phyla could be comfortably cultured, how would our current major phyla change?

A

If more could be cultured, there would be more than 80 phyla and likely a greater makeup of “major” genera (our current ones would likely be diluted)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most diverse and abundant phyla of cultured bacteria? Why?

A

Proteobacteria; can survive in culture, have many different metabolic strategies (anoxygenic, chemotrophs, autotrophs, lithotrophs, symbiotic, planktonic, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the classes of Proteobacteria?

A

Alpha, Beta, Gamma, Delta, Epsilon, and Zeta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Compare the divergence of plastids and mitochondria. Where did mitochondria come from?

A

Plastids diverged much sooner than mitochondria did; mitochondria diverged from Alphaproteobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the polyphasic approach to describe species

A
  • morphology (cell shape, visible structures, chemical composition, etc.)
  • metabolism (energy source [organo-, photo-, litho-, chemo-], carbon source [hetero-, auto-], oxygen requirements, etc.)
  • genotype (use DDH or ANI to compare genomes of related species)
  • evolution (tree constructed based on SSU rRNA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is DDH used to compare genomes of related species?

A

Known and unknown DNA is hybridized and the degree to which they hybridize determines their relatedness (more hybridized = closer relation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the ANI % cutoff for different species?

A

Anything below 93% is considered a different species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the 16S rRNA sequence similarity % cutoff for different species?

A

Anything below 97% is a different species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What % of ANI and 16S rRNA must organisms share to be considered the same species?

A

ANI: above 96%
16S rRNA: above 98.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A high 16S rRNA gene sequence indicates what about the two organisms being compared?

A

They are close evolutionary neighbours (diverged recently)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the three requirements for the formal validation of a new prokaryotic species?

A
  1. Detailed description of characteristics/traits (morphology, metabolism, genotype, evolution)
  2. Deposition of viable cultures of the organism in at least two international culture collections
  3. Proposal of a Latin name and publication in the IJSEM (must be this journal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does the prokaryotic taxonomic hierarchy differ from the eukaryotic one?

A

Lacks Kingdoms, replaces them with phyla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the genome of a bacteria include?

A

The chromosomal DNA and plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is meant by the suffix -ome?

A

Implies global, collective, totality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the four basic -omic sciences?

A

DNA (genome), RNA (transcriptome), proteins (proteome), and metabolism (metabolome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is meant by the prefix meta-?

A

Implies beyond, more transcending, usually looks at omics of a microbial community rather than a single strain (analysis of at least two genomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is genome annotation?

A

Converting raw sequence data into a list of genes and other functional sequences present in the genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is bioinformatics?

A

Analyzing sequences and structures of nucleic acids and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the steps for genomics?

A
  1. Sequencing
  2. Genome assembly
  3. Genome annotation
  4. Bioinformatics
31
Q

Which step within genomics is considered the bottleneck of the process? Why?

A

Bioinformatics; slowest process because it takes the most work (analyze data)

32
Q

What are the two sequencing techniques and how do they compare?

A

Sanger: more time consuming, less bases at a time
Next-gen: greater throughput at a much lower (100,000x) cost, faster

33
Q

What is a closed vs. a draft genome?

A

Closed: every bp is known and sequenced, more expensive
Draft: most of the genome is sequenced except for repeats. Only know enough to distinguish between species

34
Q

What is a contig?

A

A consensus sequence

35
Q

What are ORFs?

A

DNA regions between a start and stop codon predicted to be read by ribosomes on mRNA. Identifying them requires searching 6 reading frames

36
Q

How are the functions of ORFs predicted?

A

Searching similar sequences in DNA databases such as GenBank using BLAST

37
Q

What are the steps for computer identification of possible ORFs?

A
  1. Computer finds possible start codons
  2. Computer finds possible stop codons
  3. Computer counts codons between start and stop (filters out shorter sequences)
  4. Computer finds possible RBS (upstream of start)
  5. Computer calculates codon bias in ORF
  6. Computer decides if ORF is likely to be genuine
  7. List of probable ORFs
38
Q

What is codon bias?

A

The tendency of a on organism’s DNA sequence to use a degenerate codon for an amino acid (ex. E. coli prefers CGU, while fruit flies prefer CGC)

39
Q

How is codon bias used to distinguish genomic regions?

A

Some species will have a preference for certain codons for an amino acid, so those codons are more likely to appear in ORFs

40
Q

What percentage of total ORFs detected have a clearly identified function? Why?

A

70% or less, as many genes are misidentified

41
Q

What are hypothetical proteins?

A

Uncharacterized ORFs that encode proteins that likely exist but whose function is currently unknown

42
Q

What is a major cause of hypothetical proteins?

A

Lack sufficient amino acid sequence homology with known proteins for identification (cannot be compared to known proteins)

43
Q

When are hypothetical proteins most common?

A

Common in genomes of uncultured environmental bacteria, as they cannot be intensively studied

44
Q

Errors via the annotation telephone are caused by what?

A

Predicting the function of a gene based on similarity to genes that encode characterized enzymed

45
Q

What evidence suggests horizontal gene flow is common amongst prokaryotes?

A
  • presence of genes typically found in only distantly related species
  • presence of a DNA with GC content or codon bias that differs significantly from the rest of the genome
  • presence of mobilome genes (transposons, integrases, insertion sequences)
  • often encode resistance, virulence functions (non-essential genes)
  • often occur in clusters known as Genomic Islands within the genome
46
Q

What are the three pathways of horizontal gene transfer?

A

Transformation, Transduction, and Conjugation

47
Q

How many genes can be located in 1Mb of DNA? 1 kb?

A

1000 genes, 1 gene

48
Q

What is the trend in ORF number as genome size increases?

A

Positive linear

49
Q

What does a small genome size (~120,000bp) imply about the lifestyle of the organism?

A

It is endosymbiotic and dependent on other organisms for survival (may not encode its own ribosomes, etc)

50
Q

What does a medium genome size (~600,000 - 1,000,000bp) imply about the lifestyle of the organism?

A

It is parasitic and depends on other organisms for the completion of its life cycle, but may be able to survive for short periods of time on its own

51
Q

What does a large genome size (>1,200,000bp) imply about the lifestyle of the organism?

A

It is a free-living organism that is independent

52
Q

Why are metagenomes so complex?

A

Since they compare multiple organisms, there’s lots of repeats in different genomes. Closely related strains are particularly problematic. Also there is commonly low coverage of rare genomes (many sequencing gaps)

53
Q

What do cells need to know?

A
  • water
  • carbon source
  • macro + micronutrients
  • energy source
  • reducing power
54
Q

What are the two types of carbon sourcing? Explain them

A
  • heterotrophs acquire carbon from existing organic molecules
  • autotrophs acquire carbon from generating their own organic molecules out of CO2
55
Q

What are the three types of energy sourcing? Explain them

A
  • phototrophs acquire energy from light
  • chemolithotrophs acquire energy from inorganic molecules
  • chemoorganotrophs acquire energy from organic molecules
56
Q

Catabolism

A

Energy-releasing metabolic functions that break down molecules

57
Q

Anabolism

A

Energy-requiring metabolic functions that synthesize new molecules

58
Q

Compare delta G to delta G knot

A

delta G describes cellular conditions where delta G knot describes the standardized conditions of a lab

59
Q

Exergonic reactions

A

Negative G, release free energy, spontaneous

60
Q

Endergonic reactions

A

Positive G, require free energy, non-spontaneous (require ATP)

61
Q

What is reducing power?

A

The ability to donate electrons during a reaction. The more negative the redox potential, the better the molecule will lose electrons (become oxidized) and vice versa

62
Q

What is the best reducing agent? Why?

A

Glucose. Has the most negative E

63
Q

What is the best oxidizing agent? Why?

A

Oxygen. Has the most positive E

64
Q

An electron donor is:

A

Oxidized, a reducing agent

65
Q

An electron acceptor is:

A

Reduced, an oxidizing agent

66
Q

How do you calculate the delta E of a redox reaction?

A

E (reducing agent) - E (oxidizing agent) = delta E

67
Q

Compare coenzymes and cofactors

A

Coenzymes are organic molecules used to aid enzymes in their reactions. Cofactors are metallic ions used to aid enzymes in their reactions. They are not seen as reactants

68
Q

What are three good energy conservation molecules? Why?

A

PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate), ATP, and Acetyl-CoA; they have the most negative delta G

69
Q

What are the three energy conservation mechanisms?

A
  • substrate-level phosphorylation
  • oxidative phosphorylation
  • photophosphorylation
70
Q

What is substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

Phosphate groups from organic molecules are transferred to ADP

71
Q

What is oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Electron flow generates PMF for chemiosmosis using inorganic phosphates to make ATP (ATP synthase)

72
Q

What is photophosphorylation?

A

Photons (light) power the formation of PMF for chemiosmosis