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KINE 3650 > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the anterolateral system transmit?

A

nociceptive, itch, thermal, and crude touch info

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2
Q

What is the sequence of neurons in the anterolateral system?

A

1st order neuron in DRG, 2nd order neuron in dorsal horn, 3rd order neuron in thalamus

also could include interneurons

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3
Q

What is the direct pathway of anterlateral system?

A

spinothalamic tract/neospinothalamic

the 2nd order neuron in this case synapses w/contralateral thalamus and sends collaterals to reticular formation

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4
Q

What is the indirect pathway of anterolateral system?

A

spinoreticular tract

indirect b/c 2nd order neuron goes to retucular formation before sending collaterals to thalamus

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5
Q

What are the differnt tracts in anterolateral system? (6)

A

spinothalamic, spinoreticular, spinomesencephalic, spinotectal, spinohypothalmic, spinobulbar

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6
Q

What is Brown-Sequard syndrome? (cause)

A

incomplete injury to spinal cord (hemisected), ascending and descending tracts on that side are damaged

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7
Q

What are the symptoms of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

weakness or paralysis, proprioceptive deficits, two point discrimination, fine touch, astereognosis on the side of the body ipsilateral to the lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side

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8
Q

What is astereognosis?

A

unable to identify shape of known object when eyes are closed and touching it

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9
Q

What is congential insensitivity to pain (CIP)?

A

rare (1 in 125 million), lack of pain sensitivity, likely due to mutations that stop nociceptors in the dorsal root ganglion from sending signals

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10
Q

What are contact receptors?

A

type of exteroreceptor

transmit tactile, pressure, pain, or thermal stimuli (requires touching)

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11
Q

What does the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system (DCMLS) relay?

A

fine tactile sense, flutter-vibratory sense, proprioception

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12
Q

What is dorsolateral fasiculus?

A

fibers split into direct and indirect pathways of ALS, made up of thinly myelinated and unmyelinated axons

aka tract of lissauer

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13
Q

What are some examples of encapsulated mechanoreceptors?

A

meissner’s corpuscles, pacinian corpuscles, ruffini’s organs

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14
Q

What determines if mechanoreceptors is encapsulated or nonencapsulated?

A

depends on whetehr a structural device encloses it peripheral nerve ending

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15
Q

What are examples of nonencapsulated mechanoreceptors?

A

free nerve endings, merkel’s tactile discs, peritrichial nerve endings

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16
Q

What are exteroceptors?

A

close to body surface and detect sensory info from environment

sensitive to touch, pressure, temperatrue, pain, and flutter vvibration

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17
Q

What are the two types of exteroceptors?

A

teloreceptors and contact receptors

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18
Q

What is the fasciculus gracilis?

A

tract in the DCMLS, transmits info from the mid-thoracic level and below, including the lower limbs

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19
Q

What is the fasciculus cuneatus?

A

transmit the info from the upper extremities (sparing the head

tract in DCMLS

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20
Q

What do free nerve endings respond to?

A

touch, pressure

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21
Q

What does the General Somatic Afferent system transmit?

A

SENSORY info like touch, pressure, flutter-vibration, pain, temp, itch, stretch, position from SOMATIC structures

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22
Q

What does the General Visceral Afferent system transmit?

A

SENSORY info like touch, pressure, flutter-vibration, pain, temp, itch, stretch, position from VISCERAL structures

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23
Q

What are interoreceptors?

A

detect sensory info concerning body’s internal environment

Blood pressure, pH, oxygenation, osmolarity

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24
Q

What do mechanoceptors detect?

A

touch, pressure, two point discrimination, vibration, stretching, hair movement

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25
Q

What are meissner’s corpuscles? What do they detect?

A

Peripheral terminal of Aβ (group II), wrapped by capsule of Schwann cells and connective tissue

two point discrimintive (fine) touch

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26
Q

Where are meissner’s corpuscles located?

A

papillae of dermis of hairless skin

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27
Q

What are free nerve endings associated with?

A

Aδ, C fibers

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28
Q

Where are merkel’s tactile discs located?

A

basal epidermis

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29
Q

What are merkel’s tactile discs associated with?

A

Aβ (group II) myelinated fibers

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30
Q

What do merkel’s discs detect?

A

superficial pressure, discrimintive touch

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31
Q

What does the neospinothalamic tract transmit?

A

fast, well-localized and precise nociceptive input

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32
Q

What does the paleospinothalamic tract transmit?

A

dull, slow and poorly localized nociceptive input

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33
Q

What are the four types of nociceptors?

A

Mechanosensitive, temperature sensitive, polymodal, pruriceptors

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34
Q

What are mechanosensittive nociceptors?

A

Aδ (III) fibres, non-encapsulated branching free nerve endings

sensitive to intense mechanical sitmuli or injury to tissues

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35
Q

What are temperature sensitive nociceptors?

A

Aδ (III) and C (IV) fibres, non-encapsulated branching free nerve endings

sensititve to heat/cold

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36
Q

What are polymodal nociceptors?

A

C (IV) fibres, non-encapsulated branching free nerve endings responding to a mixture of things (mechanical, temperature, chemical)

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37
Q

What are pruriceptors?

A

C (IV) fibres, non-encapsulated branching free nerve endings

Sensitive to histamine (itch)

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38
Q

What is the spinomesencephalic pathway?

A

part of ALS

Mostly terminate in periaqueductal gray matter and midbrain raphe nuclei

Some terminate in parabrachial nucleus of midbrain

Project to amygdala

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39
Q

What is spinotectal fibers?

A

Mostly terminates in deep layers of superior colliculus/pretectum

Automatic orienting of body/head/eyes towards pain

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40
Q

What is spinohypothalamic fibers?

A

Terminates in hypothalamus

Autonomic, reflex responses to pain

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41
Q

What are spinoolivary fibers?

A

Terminate in inferior olivary nucleus of medulla

Proprioceptive input from cutaneous receptors, muscle spindles, GTOs

Third-order neurons project to cerebellum

included in spinobulbar

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42
Q

What are pacinian corpuscles?

A

Largest mechanoreceptors

Aβ-fiber terminals encapsulated by layers of modified fibroblasts in connective tissue capsule, Rapid adaptation

found in deep layers on skin and visceral structures

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43
Q

What stimulates pacinian corpuscles?

A

touch, pressure, vibration, proprioception

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44
Q

What are peritrichial nerve endings?

A

Aβ fibers, myelinated
Wrapped around the base of hair follicles
Stimulated when the hair is bent

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45
Q

Where is the primary somatosensory cortex located? (SI)

A

postcentral gyrus of parietal lobe

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46
Q

Where does the primary somatosensory cortex send projections?

A

to secondary somatosensory cortex

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47
Q

What are proprioceptors?

A

Static position sense, movement (kinesthetic) sense

found in muscles, tendons, joints, also vestibular system

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48
Q

What is phasic response type?

aka rapidly adapting receptors

A

fast adapting

respond to changes in stimulus

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49
Q

What is tonic response type?

aka. slowly adapting receptors

A

slowly adapting

respond to ongoing stimulus

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50
Q

What is the receptive field?

A

area covered by a single receptor

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51
Q

What are small receptive fields for?

A

for high resolution information

found in fingertips etcc

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52
Q

What are large receptive fieldss for?

A

for low rsolution information

found on back etc

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53
Q

What are the components of the reticular activating system?

A

reticular formation, diencephalon, intralaminar nuclei of thalamus

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54
Q

What is the function of the RAS?

A

activates entire nervous system to elicit responses thta will enable you to avoid painful stimuli

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55
Q

What are ruffini end organs?

A

Unmyelinated peripheral terminals of Aβ myelinated fibers

Important for kinesthesia / proprioception

Slowly adapting

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56
Q

Where are ruffini end organs foudnd?

A

They intertwine around core of collagen fibers, surrounded by a lamellated cellular capsule

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57
Q

What do ruffini end organs respond to?

A

Respond to stretching of the collagen bundles in the skin or joint capsules

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58
Q

What is the purpose of selective dorsal rhizotomy?

A

Selectively sever some rootlets of the dorsal root to reduce spasticity caused by over-active reflexes

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59
Q

What is spasticity?

A

characterized by increased muscle sitffnes and increased reflexes

Lack of inhibitory signals in the spinal cord due to reduced descending input

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60
Q

What is tabes dorsalis?

A

late stage consequence of neurosyphilis

slow degeneration of the neural tracts primarily in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

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61
Q

How to assess tabes dorsalis?

A

rombergs test

ex. Can you maintain balance for 60 seconds with your eyes closed?

We require at least 2 of these senses to maintain balance:
Lower limb proprioception
Vision
Vestibular

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62
Q

What are teloreceptors?

A

distant stimuli

lights/sounds

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63
Q

The VPL is extremaly sensitive to?

A

proprioception and touch

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64
Q

What is anterior paracentral grys?

A

inner part of the precentral gyrus which extends to the medial surface of cerebral hemisphere. is responsible for controlling the leg region

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65
Q

What is the association ccortex?

A

part of the cerebral cortex that performs complex cognitive functions

integrates info from diff parts of brain

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66
Q

What are betz cells?

A

largest cells in cortex, have the largest axons, project to motor neurons

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67
Q

What is the function of cerebellum?

A

role in timing, speed, direction, and precision of motor activity

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68
Q

What are the 4 premotor cortical areas?

A

premotor cortex, supplementary motor cortex, frontal eye field, cingulate motor areas

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69
Q

What is corona radiata?

A

bundle of projection fibers connecting the cortices of the brain with the brainstem via the internal capsule

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70
Q

What is the function of corticonuclear tract?

aka corticobulbar tract

A

conscious control of muscles involved in facial expression, chewing, swallowing, and speech

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71
Q

Where does corticonuclear tract originate? Where does it go?

A

the lower part of the primary motor cortex

descend through the internal capsule, targets cranial nerve motor nuclei (doesn’t do eye movements)

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72
Q

What is corticoreticular tract?

A

Projections of supplementary motor and premotor cortex to nuclei of the reticular formation in the brainstem

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73
Q

What is corticorrubral tract?

A

comes from sensorimotor tract, projects to red nucleus

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74
Q

What is corticospinal tract?

A

Excitatory projections (glutamate) from cortical areas descend through internal capsule, Proceed down through the crus cerebri of the midbrain
Projections decussate at the pyramids

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75
Q

WHat is corticotectal tract

A

Secondary visual cortical areas project to oculomotor accessory nuclei and superior colliculus

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76
Q

What is the crus cerebri?

A

connects cerebral hemispheres to cerbellum

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77
Q

What does stimulation of the frontal eye field typically cause?

A

deviation of both eyes toward contralateral side

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78
Q

Each semicircular duct has a dilated segment at the end called?

A

ampulla

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79
Q

What is the cupula?

A

the dome shaped glyco-protein membrane of the cristae ampullares

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80
Q

What is the purpose of the cupula?

A

narrows tube and increases resistance to flow of endolymph

not influenced by gravitational forces

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81
Q

What are the components of the bony labyrinth of the ear?

A

cochlea, 3 bony semicircular canals, vestibule

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82
Q

What is the space separating the bony from membrane labyrinth filled with?

A

perilymph

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83
Q

What does yaw, pitch, and roll mean?

A

yaw is head movement like shaking head no, pitch is nodding yes, roll is moving sideways from shoulder to shoulder

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84
Q

What plane are the lateral semiciruclar canals oriented in?

A

horizontal yaw plane

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85
Q

What plane are the anterior and posterior semicircular canals oriented in?

A

half pitch half roll planes

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86
Q

What is vestibule?

A

continuous with semicircular canals, contains 2 membrane sacs which each contain a elliptical shaped sneosry receptor (macula)

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87
Q

What are the equilibirum components of the membranous labyrinth?

A

3 semicircular ducts, urticle, and saccule

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88
Q

What contains endolymph?

A

membranous labyrinth

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89
Q

Where are semicircular ducts located?

A

contained in their respective semicircular canal

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90
Q

What muslce allows for accomodation?

A

ciliary muscle

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91
Q

How does lens change when focusing on near objects?

A

ciliary muscle contracts which allows lens to thicken (accomodated)

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92
Q

WHat are the three parts of convergence accomodation reflex?

A
  1. eyes converge on nearby object, done by medial recti muslces and oculomotor nerve
  2. ciliary msucle contracts relaxing lens
  3. pupil constricts
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93
Q

What is anopsia?

A

visual field loss

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94
Q

What is heminopsia?

A

loss of 1/2 visual field in one or both eyes

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95
Q

What is the binocular zone?

A

center of visual field that is seen with both eyes

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96
Q

What do bipolar cells do in retina?

A

transmit signals from the photoreceptors to the ganglion cells

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97
Q

What layers of retina are bipolar cells in?

A

outer plexiform layer (where they synapse w/receptors), inner nuclear layer (where the bodies are), inner plexiform layer (where they synapse w/ganglion)

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98
Q

What does the calcarine sulcus mark?

A

primary visual cortex

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99
Q

What is the ciliary muscle?

A

smooth muscle contained in ciliary body that changes lens shape for accomodation

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100
Q

What are colour columns?

A

vertical collections of nerves that detect the colour of visual stimuli

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101
Q

What layers of the cortex are colour columns in?

A

layers II and III

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102
Q

What are the two lenses of the eye?

A

lens and cornea

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103
Q

What is the corneal blink reflex?

A

when anything touches the cornea GSA sensations are transmitted to 1st order psuedounipolar neurons to trigmenial nerve, which sends signals to blink

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104
Q

What is the dorsal stream?

A

where pathway, carries info to determine movement and spatial localization

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105
Q

What stream is magnocellular layer involved in? (M ganglion cells)

A

where stream

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106
Q

What layers are the magnocellular layers of LGN?

A

1 and 2

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107
Q

What is the fovea?

A

dip in retina where there are only cones, highest visual acuity

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108
Q

What is the role of retinal ganglion cells?

A

collect all the visual information perceived by the eyes and send it to the brain where it will be processed

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109
Q

What is inferior temporal cortex (IT) involved with?

A

ventral stream, for processing form and colour, storing visual memories

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110
Q

What is acoustic neuromas? What do they cause?

A

a tumor arising from schwann cells covering vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)

causes deafness in ipsilateral ear and tinnitus/vestibular symptoms

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111
Q

What is the sixth cranial nerve? (CN VI)

A

abducent nerve (GSE)

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112
Q

What is the function of CN VI? (abducent nerve)

A

innervates the lateral rectus muscle of eye

“abducts the eye”

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113
Q

What would an abducent nerve lesion cause?

A

paralysis of alteral rectus muscles, causes horizontal diplopia and medial strabismus

bilateral lesion causes cross eyed

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114
Q

What would a lesion to abducent nucleus cause?

A

medial strabismus, horizontal diplopia, and ipsilateral gaze paralysis (b/c no longer provides excitory to oculomotor nucleus neurons)

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115
Q

What is bell’s palsy?

A

weakness on one side of face (ipsilateral)

involves facial nerve (CN VII)

can lead to crocodile tears (crying wile eating)

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116
Q

What is the main function of the associaton loop?

A

planning of motor activity and determining direction of movement

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117
Q

What projections are part of the closed association loop?

A

corticostriate fibers from PFC project to caudate nucleus -> medial part of globus pallidus and pars reticula of substantia nigra -> ventral anterior and dorsomedial nuclei of thalamus -> loop back to prefrontal cortex

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118
Q

What projections are part of open association loop?

A

corticostriate fibers from premotor and posterior parietl motor -> head of caudate nucleus -> medial part of globus pallidus and pars reticula of substantia nigra -> ventral anterior and dorsomedial nuclei of thalamus -> to PFC

119
Q

What are the two categories of basal nuclei?

A

dorsal basal nuclei and ventral basal nuclei

120
Q

What are components of dorsal basal nuclei?

A

caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus

121
Q

What are components of ventral basal nuclei?

A

ventral striatum, ventral pallidum

122
Q

What is arbor vitae?

A

cerebellar white matter, so called for its branched, tree-like appearance

123
Q

What is ataxia?

A

lack of coordination of movements, timing and precision are impaired causing awkward movements

124
Q

What are basket cells?

A

use GABA, receive excitatory synapses from parallel fibers, make inhibitory synapses w/purkinje cells

125
Q

What cells are in the molecular layer of cerebellum?

A

basket cells, outer stellate cells, dendrites of prukinje, parallel fibers of granule cells

outer layer

126
Q

What cells are in purkinje layer of cerebellum?

A

soma of purkinje cells

middle layer

127
Q

What cells are in granular layer of cerebellum?

A

soma of granule cells, golgi (inner stellate) cells, unipolar brush

inner layer

128
Q

What is the function of the ossicles?

A

amplify sound waves

129
Q

What are names of ossicles?

A

malleus (hammer), stapes (stirrup), incus (anvil)

130
Q

What is the auricle?

A

visible outside of ear

alters the frequency spectrum of sound,
channels soundwaves to ear drum

aka pinna

131
Q

The sense of hearing is mediated by what nerve?

A

cochlear nerve

part of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)

132
Q

What is the cochlea?

A

fluid-filled, spiral-shaped cavity found in the inner ear that plays a vital role in the sense of hearing and participates in the process of auditory transduction

133
Q

What is cochlear ganglion? Other name?

A

houses the cell bodies of bipolar neurons who synapse with the perihperal ends of hair cells (in ear)

spiral ganglion

134
Q

What are conjugate eye movements/

A

when both eyes move toggether in a direction

(horizontal and vertical)

135
Q

What are optokinetic eye movemennts?

A

tracking eye movement triggered by motion in visual field

136
Q

What are 2 types of disconjugate eye movement?

A

converegent and divergent

137
Q

What is another name for conjugate horizontal eye movement?

A

vestibulo-ocular reflex

eyes move to compensate for head movement

(turn head right, eyes turn left)

mediated by abducens nerve (CN VI)

138
Q

What is involved in conjugate horizontal eye movement?

A

hair cells in horizontal semicanals detect head movement, sends info to vestibular ganglion, go to abducens and paraabducens nuclei, sent to oculomotor and abducens nerve (CN II and CN VI)

139
Q

What cranial nerve is ciliary muscle assocaitd with?

A

oculomotor (CN III)

140
Q

What is crocodile tear syndrome?

A

crying while eating

141
Q

Why does crocodile tears happen?

A

after lesion to facial nerve, as salivary fibers recover they accidently activate the crying ones

142
Q

What is the Edinger-Westphal nucleus?

A

subnucleus of the oculomotor nuclear complex

controls pupil dialtion and lens shape

143
Q

What are the two groups fibers of the Edingeer-Westphal nucleus?

A

EWpg (join oculomotor nerve and synpase ciliary ganglion)

EWcp (go to brainstem nuclei, some go to spinal cord)

144
Q

What is the seventh cranial nerve?

A

facial nerve (motor + sensory)

145
Q

What is the function of the facial nerve (CNVII)?

A

Controls facial expression (SVE), salivation and mucous secretion (GVE), taste in the front 2/3 of the tongue (SVA), and other visceral sensations general sensations (GVA/GSA)

146
Q

What is the LGN?

A

relay station of the dorsal thalamis

processes and regualtes visual information and relays to V1

147
Q

How many layers does LGN have?

A

6

148
Q

Layers 1,4,6 of LGN get info from?

A

nasal half of opposite eye

149
Q

Layers 2, 3, 5 of LGN get info from?

A

temporal half of ipsilateral eye

150
Q

What are the M and P laayers of LGN?

A

1,2 are M

3,4,5,6 are P

151
Q

What is macula lutea?

A

yellow spot on retina, center is fovea

highest visual acuity on retina

152
Q

Where is the meyer’s loop?

A

anterior most extension of optic radiations

loop around anterior horn of lateral ventircle

153
Q

What would a lesion in the meyer’s loop result in?

aka lower division of optic radiation

A

contralateral upper homonymous quadrantanopsia

(looks like opposite upper 1/4 of visual field of lesion in both eyes)

154
Q

What is monocular zone?

A

on both sides of binocular zone, look like parentheses, area seen only by one eye

155
Q

What are ocular dominance columns?

A

neurons that receive visual info from ipsilateral or contralateral eye, separate the info from two eyes

found in V1

156
Q

What is optic ataxia?

A

impaired hand-eye coordination when interacting with objects in space

157
Q

What causes optic ataxia?

A

damage to wwhere pathway

158
Q

What do orientation columns do?

A

contain neruons taht detect visual stimyli with comparable spatial orientations

159
Q

What do P cells detect?

A

colour and form
(what pathway)
moslty info from cones

160
Q

What role does the superior colliculus have in eye movements?

A

midbrain nucleus involved in saccadic eye movement and somatic motor reflexes

161
Q

The peripheral part of cochlear ganglion form what? What about the central processes?

A

terminate in basal aspect of hair cells of organ of Corti

form root of cochlear nerve

162
Q

What is conduction deafness?

A

involves auditory components of outer and/or middle ear

defect in mechanical transmission of sound

163
Q

What are some causes of conduction deafness?

A

wax buildup in external auditory canal, perforation of tympanic membrane, otitis media (inflammation of middle ear), otosclerosis (new bone fixes stapes on oval window)

164
Q

What is sensorineural deafness?

A

injury resulting from damage to nerves of ear

165
Q

What causes sensorineurral deafness?

A

lesion to cochlea, cochlear nerve, central auditory pathways, presbycusis (degrade of organ Corti)

166
Q

What is the dorsal cochlear nucleus?

Function?

A

first relay stations of auditory input

(smaller than ventral)

vertical sound localization

167
Q

What does the Eustachian tube do?

A

connects middle ear to nasopharnyx

equalizes atmospheric pressure between middle and outer ear

aka. auditory/pharyngeal tube

168
Q

What are climbing fibers?

A

the axons of neurons whose cell bodies are located in inferior olivary nucleus

excitatory, synapse onto 1 purkinje cell many times

169
Q

Where are the deep cerebellar nuclei found?

A

in white matter of cerebellym

170
Q

What is the primary target of purkinje cells?

A

deep cerebellar nuclei

171
Q

What are the four deep cerebellar nuclei?

A

dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial

172
Q

What gives input to dentate nucleus?

A

collaterals of pontocerebellar afferents, purkinje cells

173
Q

What does dentate nucleus output to?

A

red nucleus, oculomotor nucleus, reticular formation, cerebellar cortex, inferior olivary nucleus, VL nucleus of thalamus

174
Q

What is dysarthia?

A

impaired speech caused by lack of coordination of muslces used to speak

175
Q

What is dysmetria?

A

unable to measure the distance between moving body part and target

176
Q

What are componenets of basal ganglia involved in motor?

A

caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus

177
Q

What is neostriatum referring to?

A

caudate and putamen

178
Q

WHat is centromedian nucleus?

A

1 of the intralaminar nuclei of thalamus

receives input from various ascending pathways about pain sensation

179
Q

What is the claustrum?

A

slender layer of grey matter separated from the putamen and insula by the external and extreme capsule respectively

connections to basal ganglia unknown

180
Q

What makes up the corpus striatum?

A

caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus

181
Q

What does the internal capsule do?

A

carries afferent and efferent fibers to/from cerebral cortex

182
Q

What number is the internal pyramidal layer?

A

layer V

183
Q

What is in the internal pyramidal layer?

A

cell bodies of pyramidal cells that contribute to the corticospinal and corticonucleur tracts

184
Q

What happens when we tilt head forward?

A

eyes tilt back

vice versa for tilt head back

185
Q

How does conjugate upward eye movement happen?

A

simultaneous inhibition of the neurons that innervate superior oblique and inferior rectus muslce and stimulation of superior rectus and inferior oblique muslcee

involves trochlear and oculomotor nuclei

186
Q

What are the receptors in the ampullae of the semicircular ducts called?

A

cristae ampullares

187
Q

What are cristae ampullares?

A

sensory hair cells in semiciruclar ducts

188
Q

What is medial temporal area?

A

V5

189
Q

What are thee visual association cortical areas?

A

V2, V3. V4. V5

190
Q

What does V5 process? Where does it project?

A

spatial details realted to movement

posterior parietal cortex

191
Q

What does V4 process?

A

colour and fine details

192
Q

What is the ventral stream?

A

what pathway

info relayed from cones to P cells

V1, V2, V4

193
Q

What is visual agnosia?

A

see object but unable to identify

194
Q

What is cranial nerve IX?

A

glossopharyngeal

195
Q

What doess the glossopharyngeal nerve control (CN IX)?

A

Controls swallowing (SVE), some salivation (GVE), taste in the back of the tongue (SVA), and other visceral and general sensations (GVA/GSA), gag relfex

196
Q

What is cranial nerve XII?

A

hypoglossal nerve

197
Q

What does hypoglossal nerve do? (CNXII)

A

Control of tongue movements (GSE)

198
Q

What does damage to hypoglossal nerve cause?

A

tongue deviates to ipsilateral side

199
Q

What does a unilateral lesion to MLF cause?

A

internuclear opthalmoplegia

200
Q

What are symptoms of internuclear opthalmoplegia?

A

when looking to contralateral side, 1 eye cant move inward, and other eyes looks outward w/nystagmus

201
Q

What cranial nerve causes jaaw jerk reflex?

A

trigeminal (CN V)

202
Q

What causes lateral gaze paralyssi?

A

damage to abdducens nucleus or PPRF (pontine paramedian reticular formation)

203
Q

Corticostriate fibers form the ____________ to the basal ganglia?

A

principal input

204
Q

Are corticostriate fibers excittatory or inhibiroty?

A

excitatory

205
Q

What is CN III?

A

oculomotor nerve

206
Q

What does the oculomotor nerve do? (CN III)

A

innervates superior/medial/inferior rectus muscles and inferior oblique muscles, upper eyelid muscle

Edinger-Westphal nucleus controls lens shape and pupil dilation

207
Q

What is cranial nerve I (CN I)?

A

olfactory

208
Q

What does the olfactory nerve do?

A

Special visceral afferents connect directly to the olfactory bulb in the brain

209
Q

What is CN II?

A

optic nerve

210
Q

Where does the CN II project to?

A

diencephalon (lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus), superior colliculus, pretectal area, and hypothalamus

211
Q

What causes ptosis?

A

damage to CN III (oculomotor)

212
Q

What is the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

splits off of vagus nerve goes under aortic arch, back up to larynx

213
Q

What is the external auditory meatus?

A

canal, funnels sound waves to ear drum

214
Q

What are frequency columns?

A

in primary auditory cortex

respond to autidory stimulus of particular frequency

215
Q

What are the two typess of binaural columns?

A

summation and suppression columns

216
Q

What do summation columns respond to?

A

auditory stimulus that stimulates both ears simultaneously

217
Q

What do suppression columns respond to?

A

auditory stimulus that only stimulates 1 ear

218
Q

What does fastigial nucleus get input from?

A

collaterals of cerebellar afferents, purkinje cells, vestibulocerebellar fibers, vestibulocochlear nerve

219
Q

WHat does fastigial nucleus project to?

A

lateral/medial/inferior vestibular nucleus, VL nucleus of thalamus, cerebellar cortex, reticular formation

220
Q

The involuntary movements in huntingtons are called?

A

chorea

221
Q

What degenerates first in huntingtons?

A

gabaergic neurons in striatum

222
Q

What make up whats called the lenticular nucleus?

A

putamen and globus pallidus

223
Q

What is the lenticular nucleus also called?

A

corpus striatum

224
Q

Where do nigrostriate fibers arise from?

A

substantia nigra pars compacta

SNpc

225
Q

What is the nucleus accumbens associated with?

A

limbic system and processes the emotional aspects of movement

(basal ganglia)

226
Q

What are the output fibers of globus pallidus?

A

pallidosubthalamic

pallidonigral

pallidothalamic

227
Q

Where do centromedian and parafascicular nuclei get their input from?

A

reticular activating system

avoid pain

228
Q

What are the output fibers of the striatum?

A

striatopallidal

striatonigral

229
Q

What are the input fibers of globus pallidus?

A

striatopallidal

subthalamopallidal

230
Q

What is sydenham chorea?

A

bacterial infection causes antibodies to bidn to striatal neurons

temporary

231
Q

What is wilson’s disease?

A

genetic disroder, cant breakdown copper

causes tremors, rigidity, chorea

232
Q

Which basal nuclei pathway promotes movement initiation?

A

direct pathway

233
Q

Which basal nuclei pathway inhibits movement?

A

indirect pathway

234
Q

What is SSA?

A

special somatic affernt

carry info from eyes and ears (vision/hearing)

235
Q

What is SVA?

A

special visceral afferent

carry sense of smell and taste

236
Q

What is SVE

A

special visceral efferent

innervate skeletal muslce of pharyngeal arch origin

(trigeminal, facial, vagus, glossopharygeal)

237
Q

What is the function of the sphincter pupillae?

A

to constrict pupil

238
Q

What is CN XI?

A

spinal acceosry nerve

239
Q

What does the spinal accessory nerve do?

A

Control of head and shoulder movements (SVE)

240
Q

What does the trigeminal nerve do?

A

SVE: Controls chewing , muscles of the vestibular system
GSA: sensation from the scalp, dura, eye, face, sinuses, teeth, front part of tongue
GP: proprioception from muscles of chewing, pressure from teeth, and proprioception from some eye muscles
Only cranial nerve that transmits nociception and thermal sense

241
Q

What is the CN V?

A

trigeminal nerrve

242
Q

What is the CN IV?

A

trochlear nerve

243
Q

What does the trochlear nerve do?

A

GSE: Innervates superior oblique muscle (rotation)

takes long path and is susceptible to damage

244
Q

What is cranial nerve CN X?

A

vagus nerve

245
Q

What does the vagus nerve do?

A

Controls gland secretion (GVE), phonation (SVE), taste in epiglottis (SVA), many visceral and general sensations including the heart and lungs (GVA/GSA)

246
Q

What is cranial nerve VIII?

A

vestibulocochlear

247
Q

What does the vestibulocochlear nerve do?

A

Controls hearing (SSA) and equilibrium (vestibular apparatus, SSA)

248
Q

Each hair cell has?

A

stereocillia and 1 kinocilium

249
Q

The cillium of hair cells are connected to?

A

the tectorial membrane

250
Q

What happens to hair cells when basilar membrane moves?

A

they bend

251
Q

What is the helicotrema?

A

small hole in cochlea that allows perilymph from scala vestibuli to flow into scala tympani

252
Q

What is hyperacusis?

A

abormally acute hearing in affected ear

caused by lesion to facial nerve

253
Q

What is the role of the inferior colliculus in hearing?

A

important relay station

responsible for sound localization

254
Q

What is Jervell-Lange-Nielson syndrome?

A

rare gentic disroder that causes bilateral congenital deafness

caused by defective ion channels

255
Q

What does the medial geniculate nucleus do for hearing?

A

auditory input relating to intensity and frequency

256
Q

What does the olivocochlear bundle?

A

inhibitory effect on cochlear nerve

257
Q

What are components of outer ear?

A

pinna, external auditory canal, tympanic membrane

258
Q

What are components of middle ear?

A

ossicles, tensor tympani and stapedius, oval window/round window, eustachian tube

259
Q

What are components of inner ear?

A

cochlea, bony labryrinth, membranous labyrinth

260
Q

Scala vestibuli communicates with the ______ window?

A

oval

261
Q

Scala tympani communicates with the ______ window?

A

round

262
Q

What is the site of the primary auditory cortex?

A

gyrus of Heschl

263
Q

What type of sensory processing is flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum asssocaited with?

A

vestibular processing for balance and eye movements

264
Q

What is flocculonodular syndrome characterized by?

A

inability to maintain balance while walking/standing

265
Q

What are gyri called in cerebellum?

A

folia

266
Q

What synapse with Golgi (inner stellate) cells?

A

receive excitatory synapses w/mossy fibers, climbing fibers, and parallel fibers

267
Q

What cell in cerebellum forms parallel fibers and gives excitatory input to prukinje?

A

grnule cells

268
Q

What deep cerebellar nucleus is in the hemispheric zone?

A

dentate nucleus

269
Q

What is a intention tremor?

A

tremors that happen during voluntary movement

270
Q

What two nuclei make up the interposed nucleus?

A

emboliform and globose nuclei

271
Q

Most inputs to cerebellum are?

A

mossy fibers

272
Q

What synapses do outer stellate cells make?

A

receive excitatory from parallel fibers and make inhibitory w/purrkinje

273
Q

What deep cerebellar nuclei make up the paravermal zone?

A

interposed nuclei (endoliform and globose)

274
Q

What is titubation?

A

condition w/a rhytmic tremor of trunk or head when sitting or tanding

275
Q

What synapses do unipolar brush cells make?

A

excitatory w/granule and golgi cells

276
Q

What is the function of the scala vestibuli?

A

sound waves propogated in perilymph agitate the vestibular membrane

277
Q

What fluid is scala media filled with?

A

endolymph

278
Q

What is the function of the scala tympani?

A

the perilymph in it propagates sound waaves toward round window

279
Q

What is the sound attenuation reflex?

A

a loud noise heard in 1 ear causes a reflex contraction of both the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles of both ears

(dampens vibrations, prtoects ears)

280
Q

What is the stria vascularis?

A

inner surface of the bony labyrinth bordering scala media

produces endolymph

281
Q

What does the superior olivary nucleus do?

A

processes binaural cues, including interaural time and level differences

282
Q

What does the tensor tympani muscle attach to?

A

malleus

283
Q

What does the stapedius muscle attach to?

A

stapes

284
Q

Whata is tympanic cavity?

A

middle ear

285
Q

What separates the scala vestibuli and scala media?

A

vestibular membrane

286
Q

What does auditory what pathwaay do?

A

processes information about the identity of a sound, such as whether it’s a siren or a ring tone

287
Q

What does the auditory where pathway do?

A

processes information about the spatial location of a sound, and how to move in response to it

288
Q

What does otolithic organs refer to?

A

utricle and saccule

289
Q

Where do olfactory receptors converge?

A

on glomeruli on olfactory bulb

290
Q

What is kinocilium?

A

only have 1, on hair cells, longer

291
Q

When do hair cells depolarize?

A

when stereocilia is pushed toward kinocilium

292
Q

How are the utricle and saccule orientated?

A

utricle is horizontal, saccule is vertical

293
Q

What is the function of the maculae in utricle and saccule?

A

detecting linear acceleration and gravity

294
Q

What is nasal mucosa?

A

membrane lining nasal cavities, produces mucus

KINE 3650 (2 decks)

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