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OTU > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What stores the hormones secreted by the hypothalamus?

A

Neurohypophysis

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2
Q

What can bind to receptors and act like hormones?

A

Antibodies

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3
Q

What causes low ADH secretion?

A

HPA tumor, infection or receptor resistance

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4
Q

What causes high ADH secretion?

A

Tumors, head trauma, Sheehan Syndrome

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5
Q

Autoimmune cause of hypothyroidism?

A

Hasimoto’s

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6
Q

Autoimmune cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Grave’s Disease

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of thyroid cancer?

A

Ionizing radiation esp. in childhood

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8
Q

What causes hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary: adenomas or hyperplasia
Secondary: chronic hypocalcemia, low dietary calcium, malabsorption syndromes

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9
Q

What is diabetes Insipidus?

A

Central: A reduction in ADH
Nephrogenic: Nephrons do not recognize ADH

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10
Q

What is diabetes mellitus and explain the different types?

A

Type 1, type 2, gestational

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11
Q

Explain the mechanisms of DKA

A

Severe manifestation of insulin deficiency that evolves quickly. Increased production in ketones with ketone smell in breath and urine.

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12
Q

Explain the mechanisms for HHNKS

A

Large amounts of glucose is excreted in urine causing dehydration, increased blood concentration leading to blood becoming thick/sluggish. This can lead to coma, death and seizures. Evolves slowly

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13
Q

Explain the effects of microvascular disease

A

Neuropathy, nephropathy, retinopathy

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14
Q

Explain the effects of macrovascular disease

A

Attachment of advanced glycation end products to their receptor which promotes oxidative stress, inflammation, hyperlipidemia

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15
Q

Why does hyperglycemia lead to increase infections? Explain

A

Loss of senses, glycosylated Hb leads to hypoxia and increases risk of infection, increased glucose for pathogens, reduced blood flow (reduced phagocytosis)

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16
Q

What is a open fracture?

A

Break through intact skin, bone marrow is exposed to external environment

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17
Q

What is a pathologic fracture?

A

occurs in bone which is weakened by a disease

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18
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

Fracture with 2 or more pieces of bone

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19
Q

What is a impacted fracture?

A

Pressure/weight that causes breaks

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20
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

Break in only the cortex of the bone

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21
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

Fragment of bone connected to a ligament or tendon breaks off the main bone

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22
Q

Dislocation

A

total loss of contact between articular cartilage

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23
Q

Subluxation

A

Partial loss of contact between articular cartilage and surface of bone

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24
Q

Strain

A

Injury or tear in a tendon/muscle

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25
Q

Sprain

A

Injury or tear in a ligament

26
Q

Most common fractures in osteoporosis?

A

Compression fractures

27
Q

Most common location of fractures in osteoporosis?

A

Thoracic vertebrae

28
Q

Osteoporosis is more obvious in ____

A

trabeculae bone

29
Q

Explain the mechanisms of OPG, RANKL, RANK

A

Osteoblasts produce OPG and RANKL
Osteoclasts have RANK receptors
OPG is increased by the presence of estrogen

30
Q

Explain DMD

A

Loss of dystrophin which leads to slow motor development, progressive weakness, muscle wasting. X-linked recessive disease

31
Q

Explain DDH

A

Congenital abnormality of the femoral head, acetabulum or both. Risk factors include: female, oligohydramnios. Barlow vs Ortolani test. Treatment includes Pavlik harness

32
Q

Where does OA occur more frequently?

A

hips, knees, lower lumbar +cervical vertebrae, CMC, TMT joints

33
Q

In RA activation of CD4 helper cells leads to what?

A

stimulation of macrophages, fibroblasts, RANKL and osteoclasts which leads to pannus formation and joint destruction

34
Q

What is the chronic form of gout called?

A

Tophaceous gout

35
Q

Which bacteria causes osteomyelitis?

A

Staph. aureus

36
Q

What are the secondary causes of bone cancer?

A

Prostrate cancer, breast cancer, kidney cancer, lung cancer, thyroid cancer

37
Q

Osteosarcoma is located where?

A

Metaphysis region of long bone

38
Q

Chondrosarcoma presents itself where?

A

Joint space and can expand to surrounding tissue

39
Q

Where does Ewing Sarcoma presents itself?

A

Diaphysis of long or flat bones

40
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

caused my MI, LHF, VFIB

41
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

insufficient intravascular fluid volume due to hemorrhage, burns or diarrhea

42
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

alterations of the CNS from SC injury

43
Q

Anaphylactic Shock

A

type of hypersensitivity reaction(type 1) caused by bees, peanuts latex etc.

44
Q

Compensation for cardiogenic shock

A

RAAS, ADH, catecholamine release

45
Q

Massive vasodilation is seen in which type of shock?

A

neurogenic

46
Q

Bleeding from venipuncture sites due to simultaneous clotting and hemorrhage is known as what?

A

DIC

47
Q

What is an ectopic source of a hormone?

A

Nonendocrine source independent of biological controls

48
Q

What is the primary cause of kidney failure?

A

Diabetes mellitus

49
Q

What is allergic contact dermatitis?

A

Type 4 T-cell/ delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Due to metals, poison ivy, latex

50
Q

What is irritant contact dermatitis?

A

Non-immunological, non-specific irritants such as acids, detergents and water

51
Q

Where does seborrheic dermatitis develop?

A

sebaceous glands of scalp, eyebrows, eyelids,

52
Q

What is koebner phenomenon?

A

plaque and papule formation at the site of trauma

53
Q

Where are the bumps most likely to form in herpes-zoster?

A

dermatomes along the thoracic and lumbar back region

54
Q

Which ringworm infection is resistant to topical anti-fungals?

A

Tinea capititis

55
Q

Where is candidiasis most likely to form?

A

Mucous membranes and skin folds

56
Q

Seborrheic keratosis is___

A

benign proliferation of basal cells. No increased cancer risk but worsens with UV exposure

57
Q

Actinic keratosis ______

A

proliferation of keratinocytes due to prolonged UV exposure. Premalignant condition

58
Q

Keratoacanthoma

A

Growth of squamous cells arising from hair follicles. Pre-malignant condition

59
Q

Risk of cancer with nevi is ___-

A

possible

60
Q

Which pre-malignant conditions will lead to squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Actinic keratosis and keratoacanthoma

OTU (3 decks)

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