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Botany > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the equation for photosynthesis?

A

6CO2 + 12H2O (light energy) –> C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O

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2
Q

What are the two reactions involved in photosynthesis?

A

Light and dark reactions

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3
Q

Where do the two reactions of photosynthesis occur?

A

Light reaction –> thylakoid membranes
Dark reaction (Calvin cycle) –> stroma

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4
Q

What is the stroma?

A

The liquid center in chloroplast

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5
Q

Where do the thylakoid membranes exist?

A

In chloroplasts

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6
Q

Electromagentic spectrum

A

All types of electromagnetic radiation such as UV light, X rays, gamma rays, etc.

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7
Q

What are pigments plants use?

A

Chlorophyll a and b, and beta-carotene.

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8
Q

What are pigments?

A

Proteins that are light absorbing molecules (only specific wavelengths and reflect others).

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9
Q

Absorption spectrum

A

Set of wavelengths absorbed by a pigment

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10
Q

What colour are we seeing when we look at leaves (in terms of the absorption spectrum)?

A

The reflected wavelengths, thus chlorophyll a/b reflect large amounts of green and yellow (most abundant pigment masking others).

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11
Q

What gives the orange colour of leaves?

A

Chlorophyll a and b break down in the fall, but amounts of B-carotene remain that reflect orange.

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12
Q

What are the components of mesophyll tissue?

A

Two mesophyll cells: palisade and spongy cells; stoma; and vascular bundles.

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13
Q

What is the purpose of cuticle in plant leaves?

A

A waxy component that covers the outermost layer of plants protecting it from its environment (temperature and drought).

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14
Q

List the components of a chloroplast.

A

Double membrane (outer and inner), thylakoid (flattened sacs), granum (stacks of thylakoid), and stroma (fluid part). There is a double membrane of the thylakoid with a thylakoid space in between.

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15
Q

What are the components of the photosynthesis process?

A

Electrons pass through PS II, then PS I, and then CO2 is fixed by RUBISCO and sugar is produced.

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16
Q

Where is the photosystem located?

A

The thylakoid membrane.

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17
Q

What are the two components of a reaction center complex?

A

Chlorophyll a molecules and a primary electron acceptor

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18
Q

Explain the general process of a photosystem.

A

Pigments absorb incoming photons (light) and a light-harvesting antennae complex (loads of pigments) transfers it to adjacent pigments until it reaches the reaction center complex. Here the energy reaches a chlorophyll a molecule, which excites an electron moving to the primary electron acceptor and then the electron transport chain.

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19
Q

What is cyclic photophosphorylation?

A

The continued cycle of using photons (continuously absorbed by pigments) to phosphorylate an ADP to make ATP.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of P680 and P700?

A

Is the wavelength that each photosystem absorbs best at.

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21
Q

What happens after the electron leaves the primary acceptor?

A

It gets passed down an electron transport chain where it loses energy it time.

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22
Q

What happens to the energy that the electron loses as it moves down the electron trasnport chain?

A

Used to make ATP or NADPH

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23
Q

What reactions are the electrons involved in the photosystems?

A

Redox reactions.

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24
Q

OIL RIG

A

Oxidation is losing electrons while reduction is gaining electrons.

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25
Q

What is the first redox reaction in photosystem 1?

A

An oxidized form of Fd is given high energy from the electrons to turn it into a reduced form.

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26
Q

What is the second redox reaction in photosystem 1?

A

The reduced form of Fd + oxidized NADP+ + H+ transfer electrons to make an oxidized form of Fd and reduced NADPH (2 more high energy electrons).

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27
Q

What type of photophosphorylation occurs when there are two photosystems?

A

Non-cyclic photophosphorylation as an electron supply must be made for the reaction center complex (as it’s sent to PSI).

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28
Q

What are the products of the two photosystems?

A

PSII = ATP
PSI = NADPH
(both energy rich molecules)

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29
Q

How is an electron supplied to PSII?

A

Hydrolysis of H2O (1/2O2 + 2H+ + e-)

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30
Q

What is the optimal wavelength of PSII?

A

P680

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31
Q

What is the optimal wavelength of PSI?

A

P700

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32
Q

What electron acceptors are involved in PSI?

A

Fd and NADP+ reductase

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33
Q

What electron acceptors are involved in PSII?

A

Pq, cytochrome complex, and Pc (passes e- to PSI).

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34
Q

How do the two photosystems work together?

A
  • pigments of PSII absorb and transfer photons until they reach P680 (reaction center complex)
  • simultaneously electrons are supplied to P680 by the hydrolysis of H2O
  • excited e- passed through electron transport chain of PSII until it reaches P700 (PSI) - ATP is made
  • PSI has pigments that absorb photons to excite the electron it received which is then passed down an electron transport chain where NADPH is made
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35
Q

What is photophosphorylation?

A

The use of energy from photons (light) to phosphorylate molecules (add P to ADP = ATP).

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36
Q

Where is the concentration gradient in the chloroplasts?

A

Thylakoid space has a high concentration of H+ while the stroma has a low concentration.

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37
Q

How does H+ move into the thylakoid space?

A

An integral protein uses the energy lost from the passing electron to transport H+ from a low to high concentration (active transport).

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38
Q

How does H+ move back into the stroma?

A

An integral protein, ATP synthase, allows H+ to move from high to low concentrations (facilitated diffusion).

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39
Q

What happens when the H+ is transported by ATP synthase?

A

Energy is released from this now reduced concentration gradient, thus turing ADP + P into ATP.

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40
Q

What is the purpose of RUBISCO in the Calvin Cycle?

A

Allows 6CO2 (single carbon) and 6 RUBP (five carbon) to bind to each other.

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41
Q

What do 6CO2 and 6 RUBP form?

A

Forms 3 carbon molecules of 12 PGA (lowe energy), due to the larger molecules breaking down from instability.

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42
Q

What is the PGA molecule provided with?

A

12 ATP and 12 NADPH to provide energy

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43
Q

What does PGA form when energized?

A

12 3 carbon PGAL molecules

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44
Q

What happens to the PGAL molecules?

A

10 go on to be energized by 6 ATP to form 6 RUBP again (5 carbons) and 2 form a six carbon molecule, known as glucose.

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45
Q

How much energy is needed to make glucose?

A

18 ATP and 12 NADPH

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46
Q

What is the problem with RUBISCO?

A

It can bind to oxygen as well thus decreasing its efficiency in photosynthesis (reduces the amount of CO2 that can combine to form glucose).

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47
Q

What is the transpiration-photosynthesis compromise?

A

A balancing mechanism with the stoma to allow for enough water to leave cell (also staying to keep cells turgid) and enough CO2 to enter.

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48
Q

Where are most stomata located? Why?

A

Under a leaf because it’s away from the sun so that it reduces the amount of H2O that will leave (drain and wilt leaf).

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49
Q

What time of day does the stomata open?

A

Daylight as it provides photons for light energy. Early morning as well since not too much light to fully drain the plant.

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50
Q

What time of day does the stomata close?

A

At night because no sunlight to pull water out.

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51
Q

How do C4 result in more efficient photosynthesis?

A

Takes in CO2 from a mesophyll cell, specifically the stomata, and converts it into a 4 carbon compound where it’s taken to a different cell (bundle-sheath cells). There is a lower concentration of oxygen here, thus RUBISCO works bette (C4 back to CO2).

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52
Q

Where do C4 plants exist? Give an example.

A

In warmer conditions.
ex. sugarcane

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53
Q

How do CAM plants work?

A

They keep their stomata open during night (allow CO2 to come in) to make a C4 compound and during daytime it closes so that a high concentration of CO2 remain near RUBISCO for photosynthesis to occur.

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54
Q

Where are CAM plants located? Give one example.

A

In hot and very dry environments.
ex. pineapple and cacti

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55
Q

What the chemical formula for cellular respiration?

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

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56
Q

Photolysis

A

Breakdown of water with light

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57
Q

Where does cellular respiration occur?

A

Mitochondria

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58
Q

What is the purpose of cristae in mitochondria?

A

Highly folded to increase SA for cellular respiration.

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59
Q

What exists between the double membrane in mitochondria?

A

Intermembrane space

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60
Q

How much ATP are made in total during cellular respiration?

A

36 ATP

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61
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

In the cytoplasm.

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62
Q

Where does the CAC occur?

A

Matrix of mitochondria.

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63
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport chain and chemiosmosis) occur?

A

Across the inner membrane of mitochondria.

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64
Q

What enzymes are important in cellular respiration?

A

NADH and FADH2

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65
Q

What are the reactants of glycolysis?

A

Glucose (6C molecule), 2ATP, 2NAD+, and 4ADP

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66
Q

What are the products of glycolysis?

A

2 molecules of 3C pyruvate, 2 ADP, 4 ATP, and 2 NADH

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67
Q

What is pyruvate oxidation?

A

A grooming step before CAC to reduce a 3C pyruvate to a 2C acetyl-CoA.

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68
Q

What are the reactants in pyruvate oxidation?

A

2 pyruvates, 2 NAD+, 2CoA.

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69
Q

What are the products of pyruvate oxidation?

A

2 NADH, 2 acetyl-CoA and 2 CO2.

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70
Q

What are the products of CAC?

A

6 NADH, 2FADH2, 4 CO2, and 2 ATP.

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71
Q

What are the reactants of CAC?

A

2 molecules of 2C acetyl-CoA.

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72
Q

What type of phosphorylation does glycolysis and the CAC use?

A

Substrate-level phosphorylation.

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73
Q

Substrate-level phosphorylation

A

The production of ATP from the transfer of a phosphate group from a substrate to ADP.

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74
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in the ETC?

A

Water, from the formation of oxygen and H+.

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75
Q

Explain the ETC.

A

Uses electrons from reduced NADH and FADH2 to pass along to each electron carrier molecules (protein) in the folds of the cristae, where the energy lost from the electron is used to power H+ across the membrane from ATP synthase to phosphorylate ADP.

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76
Q

How many electron carrier molecules are there?

A

Five

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77
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation

A

A process in which ATP is formed from electron transport from NADH and FADH2 to oxygen.

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78
Q

Chemiosmosis

A

Movement of ions across a membrane along the concentration gradient (high to low).

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79
Q

Where does chemiosmosis occur?

A

In ETC where there is a higher concentration of H+ in the intermembrane space, thus using energy to pass it through ATP synthase to lower H+ concentrations in the matrix, where ATP is simultaneously made.

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80
Q

How many ATP does NADH yield? Exception?

A

3 ATP, but in glycolysis the NADH made produces 2 ATP.

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81
Q

How many ATP does FADH2?

A

2 ATP

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82
Q

When was the transition to agriculture?

A

10,000 years ago

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83
Q

Agriculture

A

The science or practice of farming, including the cultivation of the soil for growing crops.

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84
Q

What problems were associated with hunting-gathering?

A

Needed to allows be mobile to get food; sometimes unreliable sources depending of yield, time of day or year; and needed an expertise in plants/collecting of them.

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85
Q

How were origins of agriculture identified?

A

These areas have a stable supply of food where explorers looked for dumping sites (food waste proved what they ate and if domesticated or wild products).

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86
Q

What is the difference between Old and New World?

A

Old World was Afro Eurasia where the explorers believed it was the only part of the universe until they ventured and discovered the Americas (New World).

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87
Q

What were the different origins in the Old World? Most important?

A

Near east, like the Fertile Crescent which was one of the most important origins, and the far eat for Yellow River Basins.

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88
Q

What were origins in the New World?

A

Eastern North America, Mesoamerica, and South American Highlands.

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89
Q

Agricultural revolution

A

A change due to noticing that crops will grow if seeds are planted, thus producing a rapid and dramatic change in human lifestyle.

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90
Q

Cultural evolution

A

A change due to a gradual inclusion of farming with hunting-gathering (forming food-collection strategy), with an increased reliance on plant cultivation over time.

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91
Q

Which revolution suggested evidence for the switch to farming?

A

A closer look at the time scale indicates existence of transitional stage as required by cultural evolution.

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92
Q

Why was there a switch to farming?

A

Farming allowed communities to grow and prosper, thus overtaking the small groups formed for hunting/gathering.

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93
Q

Why is it important to know the origins of plants?

A

Avoids inbreeding depression of domesticated plants because we grab genes from the original plants, resulting in hybrids (no deleterious recessive alleles).

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94
Q

What is the difference between shattering and non-shattering heads?

A

Shattering heads means that grains can easily come off the main head, resulting in poor collection, while non-shattering heads are almost stuck to the main head, thus easier collection.

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95
Q

How does the dormancy period compare in wild and domesticated barley?

A

Wild barely have a dormancy period, thus they can only be grown at certain times whereas domesticated barley don’t have a dormancy period, thus growing whenever.

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96
Q

How does the size and number of grains compare in wild versus domesticated barley?

A

Since we want mass production, domesticated barley has more grains that are larger than wild ones.

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97
Q

What family do all grass members belong to?

A

Poaceae family

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98
Q

What are the types of inflorescence on grasses?

A

Spike or panicle.

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99
Q

What is inflorescence?

A

An arrangement of a cluster of flowers.

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100
Q

What is a spike inflorescence?

A

Non-existent or no real stem, so that CLOSED flowers are directly attached to the stem.
ex. wheat, barley

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101
Q

What are panicle inflorescence?

A

Branching off the main stem of OPEN flowers that are connected by a pedicel, so they are multiple flowers off one pedicel.
ex. oats

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102
Q

Explain the composition of a leaf and stem in grass plants.

A

A monocot with parallel veined leaves and a hollow stem.

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103
Q

Explain the composition of a root system in grass plants.

A

Fibrous root systems due to being a monocot.

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104
Q

Monoecious

A

Female and male reproductive parts exist in the same plant (can be on different flowers)
ex. corn

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105
Q

What is corn an imperfect plant?

A

Only has one reproductive system.

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106
Q

How many florets does a spikelet in grass plants contain?

A

1-12

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107
Q

Stolon

A

A horizontal stem in a grass plant that exists above ground.

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108
Q

Rhizome

A

A horizontal stem in a grass plant that exists underground.

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109
Q

What does a floret contain?

A

An awn, lemma, palea, stamen, and stigma.

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110
Q

What are glumes? Where do they exist?

A

Underneath a floret to protect them.

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111
Q

What is the purpose of the lemma and palea?

A

2 coverings that protect the reproductive parts inside a floret.

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112
Q

How many stamen does a grass plant contain within a floret?

A

3

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113
Q

How many stigma does a grass plant contain within a floret?

A

2

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114
Q

What does an ovary in a grass plant give?

A

A grain

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115
Q

What are the components of a grain?

A

Endosperm (large makeup), embryo/germ (small part), aleurone layer, and fused seed coat and fruit wall.

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116
Q

What does an aleurone layer do?

A

Contains enzymes that are needed for development of the plant.

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117
Q

What type of inflorescence does wheat contain?

A

Spike

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118
Q

What is a grain?

A

Fruit containing a seed that produces one cotyledon.

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119
Q

Why do the nutritional values in wheat flour and refined flour differ?

A

Refined flour is produced from just the endosperm while wheat flour is produced for the whole grain (+germ), so that all nutrients are provided.

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120
Q

What is the purpose of white enriched flour?

A

Puts nutrients back into refined white flour, to bring it’s losses back up.

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121
Q

What type of speciation occurs during the evolution of wheat?

A

Sympatric speciation

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122
Q

Sympatric speciation

A

Species have a reproductive barrier so that they can’t interbred, but there is no physical barrier that separates them (in close proximity).

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123
Q

Allopatric speciation

A

A population becomes separated by a geographic barrier, thus reproductive isolation occurs and it results in two new species.

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124
Q

Polyploidy

A

An organism has more than one full set of chromosomes.

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125
Q

What is an error that occurs in breeding of domesticated and wild plants? How is it solved?

A

In polyploidy, the new product receives chromosomes that don’t pair resulting in a sterile hybrid, but fixed due to a duplication of chromosomes from self-fertilization (pair up now) and then forms hybrids again.

126
Q

How many chromosomes does wheat have?

A

42 chromosomes (a double hybrid).

127
Q

What is the purpose of gluten in wheat?

A

Binds ingredients together, thus trapping the air bubbles in yeast, causing the bread to rise and become spongy.

128
Q

What is Celiac Disease?

A

An autoimmune response that attacks gluten fragments crossing small intestine walls and damaging intestinal lining.

129
Q

Why is corn grow in alternating crops? Grown with what?

A

Alternates crops with soybean as they replenish nitrogen in the soil, so that corn can grow.

130
Q

Why do the 3 sister crops (corn, bean, and squash) work well together?

A

Corn grows straight up, while squash spreads out more due to bigger leaves, and beans grow low/replenish nitrogen in the soil for corn to grow.

131
Q

Where does each corn kernel come from?

A

A different flower.

132
Q

Where are the female reproductive structures in the corn?

A

The ears (carpellate inflorescence) of corn cobs, where each kernel produces a style (silk -stringy projections).

133
Q

Where are the male reproductive structures in the corn?

A

The tassel (staminate inflorescence) where pollen is produced from anthers.

134
Q

What is the structure of inflorescence in tassels?

A

Panicle

135
Q

What is the structure of inflorescence in ears?

A

Spike

136
Q

What is the purpose of the endosperm?

A

To provide nutrients for the development of the grain.

137
Q

What does the embryo consist of in the corn kernel (grain)?

A

Cotyledon (only 1), shoot and root apex.

138
Q

Why is corn not used to make more bread products?

A

It doesn’t contain gluten for bread to rise.

139
Q

How much is the percentage of processed foods that contain corn?

A

70%

140
Q

Where do eggs, dairy, and meat come from in relation to corn?

A

Feed corn

141
Q

How is hybrid corn produced?

A

Alleles are continuously mixed up to avoid inbreeding depression from clone products. In the steps, one corn is detasseled so that it can’t produce grains and is then pollinated with another corn plant to produce a hybrid.

142
Q

What is corn low in (in terms of essential amino acids)?

A

Lysine and tryptophan (essential amino acids).

143
Q

What are essential amino acids?

A

Those that we need to get in our diet as we can not make them ourselves.

144
Q

Why is brown rice healthier than white rice?

A

Brown rice contains the endosperm and germ, so it has more nutrients while the white rice just contains the germ (embryo).

145
Q

Where is rice grown? How?

A

A single species is grown in a paddie, which is a watery environment.

146
Q

What plant is grown with rice? Why?

A

Azolla, an aquatic fern plant, which lives in these paddies where rice grow. It forms a symbiotic relationship with cyanobacteria (nitrogen fixer), so that the soil can gain these nutrients (less expensive fertilizer).

147
Q

What is an advantage of lawn grass?

A

Very abundant, thus allowing a great deal of photosynthesis.

148
Q

What are disadvantages of lawn grass?

A

Since they are all grown close together, there is no diversity, so any competitor or disease wipes out the whole crop. In addition, they consume a lot of water (very expensive to maintain).

149
Q

What grass plants are used in biofuels?

A

Switchgrass, corn, and sugarcane.

150
Q

What is the disadvantage of using plants for biofuel?

A

A lot of energy is put into the process, which is usually more than we received in the end (wasteful conversion). Also, we have to maintain a sustainable source for both people and fuels (pick between who gets what; corn).

151
Q

Why is sugarcane a good biofuel?

A

Biofuel uses sugarcane’s cellulose rather than sugar (don’t have to pick between people or fuel for production).

152
Q

What family do all legumes belong to?

A

The Fabaceae family.

153
Q

What inflorescence do legumes have?

A

Raceme

154
Q

What is raceme inflorescence?

A

Each flower is on a separate stock (pedicel) attached to the main stem.
ex. black locust and alfalfa

155
Q

Umbel inflorescence

A

From one stalk, multiple flowers branch off one section (upside down umbrella).

156
Q

Compound umbel inflorescence

A

From one stalk, it branches it other stalks that have multiple flowers (multiple upside down umbrellas).

157
Q

Head inflorescence

A

A short, dense spike in which flowers (petals) directly emerge from a flat peduncle to give an appearance of a single flower.

158
Q

Catkin inflorescence

A

A unisexual arrangement where it’s a cylindrical flower cluster.
ex. willows

159
Q

What symmetry do legumes have?

A

Bilateral (irregularly flower).

160
Q

What is indeterminate flowering? Who has it?

A

Legumes have indeterminate flowering where the flowers blossom at different times. Since there is no terminal bud, the ones at the bottom grow first and it’s a transition as nearer to the top are earlier stages of flowers OR buds.

161
Q

What do legumes contain on their roots?

A

Nodules each with a rhizobium.

162
Q

What is the importance of rhizobium?

A

It has a symbiotic relationship where the rhizobium gets carbohydrates from the plant and then it provides N2 fixation back for the plant + into the soil as well.

163
Q

What is usable nitrogen for plants and animals?

A

NO2-

164
Q

What do legumes convert nitrogen gas into?

A

Ammonium

165
Q

How does ammonium get converted into NO2- or NO3-?

A

By nitrate-producing bacteria.

166
Q

What is the seed in legumes?

A

The pea itself

167
Q

What is the fruit in legumes?

A

The outside covering the pea, known as the pod.

168
Q

Explain dry dehiscent in legumes.

A

All legumes are dry dehiscent where the covering (fruit) becomes dry, thus allowing it to open and release the seeds to grow in the environment.

169
Q

What is meant by indehiscent?

A

The fruit doesn’t separate from the cell when it’s released into the environment. For example, wheat or barley, as their seed coat is fused to a fruit wall.

170
Q

How much oil do legumes provide?

A

Up to 34% of vegetable oils with soybean producing 30% and peanuts producing 4%.

171
Q

From what part of the plant do peanuts develop and where?

A

Flowers and underground, as the fruit (protective shell) develops from the flower which falls and develops in the soil.

172
Q

Why do peanuts have a brittle shell?

A

Due to them being grown underground (dealing with abrasion from soil).

173
Q

What is the dark part of the peanut?

A

The seed coat

174
Q

Where is the fruit in the peanut?

A

The light brown shell that surrounds the seed coat (must be cracked open).

175
Q

How many peanut seeds exist within a peanut shell?

A

1 (underdevelopment), 2 (typical = dicot), or 3.

176
Q

What is the small bump of the peanut?

A

The germ (embryo).

177
Q

What is the indent in the peanut seed (two halves)?

A

Endosperm

178
Q

Why were soybeans known as cinderella crops?

A

Rags to riches where they were known as a garbage crop, but has become one of the most influential legume crop today.

179
Q

Why can’t soybeans be eaten raw?

A

Contain a trypsin inhibitor that if not heated to break down prevents enzymes from breaking down protein.

180
Q

How are soybeans dicots?

A

They contain net-veined leaves.

181
Q

What is important in nutrients of the soybean?

A

Contain all essential amino acids.

182
Q

Why are soybeans grown in the same crops as corn?

A

Alternate where it provides nitrogen fixation to the soil.

183
Q

What is the purpose of the pidgeon pea?

A

A breeding for hybrid legumes, so inbreeding depression doesn’t occur.

184
Q

Why is kudzu (a legume) bad?

A

It grows immensely in warmer climates on top of other plants, thus trapping sunlight from reaching them (dead plants).

185
Q

Where are starches stored?

A

In modified stem and roots.

186
Q

What happens to starch when it’s needed by the plant?

A

Released as sugar to use for cellular respiration.

187
Q

What are types of modified stems?

A

Rhizome, stolon, tuber, bulb, and corm.

188
Q

Stolon

A

An above ground horizontal modified stem.

189
Q

Rhizome

A

An underground modified stem.

190
Q

Tuber

A

A modified stem in potato plants where it grows off of a rhizome.

191
Q

Where is the starch in the tuber?

A

Throughout the modified stem.

192
Q

Bulb

A

An underground modified stem of an onion where fleshy leaves and paper thin leaves surround a stem centered in the middle.

193
Q

Where is starch located in a bulb?

A

The fleshy leaves.

194
Q

Corm

A

An underground modified stem surrounded by harder leaves on the outside.

195
Q

Where is starch located in a corm?

A

In the stem (center).

196
Q

List the types of modified roots.

A

Taproot and tuberous roots.

197
Q

Tuberous root

A

An enlarged fleshy root in sweet potatoes that has a separate stem located above ground.

198
Q

Taproot

A

A main root that has peripheral ones attached normally in carrot.

199
Q

How do white potatoes reproduce?

A

Asexually also known as vegetatively.

200
Q

What is the problem with producing asexually?

A

Can lead to an inbreeding depression and no diversity due to an increase in clones is poor is one viral disease were to enter one plant (in close proximity the rest are dead).

201
Q

Why doesn’t the white potato reproduce sexually?

A

They climates they are no grown in aren’t suited for this type of reproduction as they don’t produce any seeds.

202
Q

Why is a potato a dicot plant?

A

It has leaves arranged in multiples of five.

203
Q

How are leaves arranged in a white potato plant?

A

Pinnately compound.

204
Q

What is the problem with the shoot system in potatoes?

A

It’s poisonous due to containing solanine, thus we are not able to eat this part of the potato plant.

205
Q

Where did white potatoes first orginate?

A

South America due to the tropical climate.

206
Q

Why did Ireland grow an abundance of white potatoes?

A

They were inexpensive to grow a hanging potatoes could have a bud from the eyes that would then produce another potato plant.

207
Q

How severe was the Late Blight of Potato? When did it occur?

A

It occured in the 1840s and killed 25% of the population in Ireland.

208
Q

What was the Late Blight of Potato?

A

A fungal-like pathogen spread to potato plants and resulted in them being inedible.

209
Q

Why is it bad that companies manipulate potatoes to develop resistance to pest and other viral diseases?

A

More expensive for customers as we can’t produce them ourselves.

210
Q

What plant is a sweet potato plant?

A

A viney, dicot plant (net like leaves).

211
Q

What gives sweet potato their orange colour?

A

Beta-carotene.

212
Q

What roots does a sweet potato have?

A

Tuberous roots.

213
Q

What type of plant is cassava?

A

A starch, shrub plant.

214
Q

How are leaves arranged in a cassava?

A

Palmately compound.

215
Q

What are the roots of a cassava plant?

A

Tuberous roots.

216
Q

Why is a cassava root flushed with water?

A

Soaking caused fermentation of HCN, which is then flushed with water where it dissolves and is then evaporated by air, thus allowing us to use/eat the safley.

217
Q

What does cyanogenic glycoside in a cassava plant produce? Why is it bad?

A

Cyanogenic glycoside is broken down by enzymes (these ruptured cells produce is from a process known as grating) to give hydrocyanic acid (HCN), which is bad as this leads to cyanide poisoning.

218
Q

What stem do yams produce?

A

An edible tuber.

219
Q

What modified stem does taro produce?

A

Edible corm.

220
Q

What plant stores starch above ground?

A

Bananas

221
Q

Why is banana production controlled?

A

Due to its asexaul production, any disease produced from home grown bananas could get out and kill domesticated ones.

222
Q

What was tulipomania?

A

A period where everyone invested into tulips because they weren’t well known but appreciated flowers. However, they sadly realized these flowers (red and white) were diseased and lost all investments.

223
Q

Where does the majority of mitosis occur in the plant life cyle?

A

The zygote after fertilization as this is the very first cell that will allow for development of an entire new plant.

224
Q

Complete flower

A

Contains the 4 whorls (sepal, petal, stamen, and carpel).

225
Q

Pistil

A

Another name for the carpel.

226
Q

What is the whorl of sepals?

A

Outer calyx

227
Q

What is the whorl of petals?

A

Corolla

228
Q

What is the whorl of stamen?

A

Androecium

229
Q

What is the whorl of carpels?

A

Gynoecium

230
Q

Incomplete flower

A

Lacks a whorl.

231
Q

Dioecious

A

2 homes for each of the reproductive parts, thus male reproductive part on one flower whereas female on another flower that are separate from each other.
ex. kiwis

232
Q

Why is corn an imperfect flower?

A

Because one flower lacks a carpel whereas the other lacks a stamen (due to differeing reproductive parts).

233
Q

Tepals

A

A combination of speal and petals where they can’t be differentiated (equal to the number of petals).

234
Q

What is the ovary position in alstroemeria flower? Symmetry?

A

Radial symmetry and an inferior ovary (stamen is higher than ovary).

235
Q

Why artifical pollination intentional in the 19th century?

A

Yes it was intentional due to carvings of breeding date flowers.

236
Q

What did corn evolve from?

A

Teosinte

237
Q

How does corn and teosinte differ in size and number of spikes (ears)?

A

Larger and more spikes in corn than teosinte (goes the same with kernels).

238
Q

How are seeds dispersed in teosinte?

A

By shattering heads.

239
Q

How are seeds dispersed in modern corn?

A

The husks can’t be shattered, so humans must open them up for dispersal (dependant on human survival).

240
Q

How do seed coverings differe in corn and teosinte?

A

In corn there are naked seeds where in teosinte they are covered.

241
Q

Why is brassica oleracea (mustard species) good for artificial selection?

A

It can produce six different plants, such as kale, cauliflower and brussel sprouts, based on what organ is selected for breeding.

242
Q

Why are molecular technqiues used over artifical selection?

A

Speed up the process and can even produce new species.

243
Q

How are crops grown?

A

Monoculture where they are grouped into the same plant.

244
Q

What is the green revolution?

A

Large increase in crop production due to research and development of high-yield crops and agricultural techniques.

245
Q

When did the green revolution start?

A

The 1960s

246
Q

What are the inputs for the green revolution?

A

High inputs of water, fertilizers, pesticides, ensuring artificial selection, irrigation, etc.

247
Q

What is the goal of the green revolution?

A

Produce the greatest yield.

248
Q

What is a problem involving the green reviolution?

A

High population can impact soil processing and how much work is needed for the food.

249
Q

How are high-impact crops solved?

A

Tillage

250
Q

Tillage

A

The amount of porcessing of soil needed.

251
Q

What is the purpose of tillage?

A

Helps with seed bed preparation, burying crop residue, leveling soil, spreading nutrients, mixing in fertilizer, and activating pesticides.

252
Q

Conventional tillage

A

Plowing, disking, field cultivating, planting, and cultivating.

253
Q

Reduced tillage

A

Field cultivaing, planting, and cultivating.

254
Q

What is no tillage?

A

Planting and spraying ONLY.

255
Q

Conservation tillage

A

Combination of reduced and no tillage.

256
Q

What effects does tillage look at?

A

Soil erosion, water use efficiency, fertilizer use, and pesticide use.

257
Q

What is biotechnology?

A

Use of living organisms to provide products for humanity by using cell culture or molecular techniques to create plants with new/useful traits.

258
Q

What is the advantage of biotechnology over typical breeding?

A

Works much faster to enhance the development of the new trait into a crop plant.

259
Q

What are types of biotechnology?

A
  1. Micropropagation
  2. Molecular plant breeding (transgenic and gene editing)
260
Q

What does micropropagation involve?

A

Using plant tissue culture methods to regenerate new shoot systems from small pieces of plant tissue.

261
Q

How are tissues grown in micropropagation?

A

A small piece of plant tissue forms a callus where these cells grow into a plant/plantlet.

262
Q

Plantlet

A

Clone of the original plant tissue unless mutation.

263
Q

Callus

A

A group of undifferentiated cells formed from parenchyma cells.

264
Q

What diploid plants are used in micropropagation?

A

Seeds, embryos, shoot-tips, and stem tissue.

265
Q

What halpoid plants are used in micropropagation?

A

Pollen grains

266
Q

How can haploid plants be manipulated in micropropagation? What are they called?

A

Cells can be manipulated to produce double chromosomes, thus producing homozygous plants/cells.

267
Q

What are plant tissue grown in for micropropagation?

A

Nutrient media

268
Q

What does nutrient media contain?

A

Mineral salts, sugar, vitamins, and growth regulators like auxins that provide optimal conditions.

269
Q

What does one type of genetic engineering involve (transgenic)?

A

Allows for transfer of useful genes from one organism to a totally unrelated plant species.

270
Q

Transgenic

A

Organism that contains a foreign gene in its cells.

271
Q

What does transgenic technqiues require?

A

Identification and isolation of gene, and an appropriate vector (usually plasmid).

272
Q

What does transgenic techniques create?

A

A genetically modified (GM) plant.

273
Q

What are the steps to make a transgenic plants?

A
  1. Incorporate gene of interest into plasmid
  2. Introduce plasmid (containing gene) into host plant cell
  3. Hope gene is incorporated into plant DNA (transformed)
  4. Observe expressed trait in resulting plant
274
Q

What is a common genetic engineered transgenic plant?

A

Bt cotton

275
Q

What is the advantage of Bt cotton?

A

The cotton has a toxin-producing gene from a bacterial species that causes the plant to express insecticide (fighting insect pests), so money is saved on pesticide and reduces crop losses (increase in harvest).

276
Q

What is the disadvantage of Bt cotton?

A

No guarantee that it is safe for the environment.

277
Q

What new cotton plant is transgenic techniques working on?

A

Cotton that produces cotton-polyester fiber.

278
Q

What is the foundation of gene editing?

A

DNA modified by deletion, insertion, and/or changing nucleotides in vivo (within the whole organism).

279
Q

What species does insertion involve?

A

Introduces a gene from naturally interbreeding species relative.

280
Q

Explain gene editing process.

A
  • CRISPR is identified in both separated strands (palindromic repeats)
  • Cas9 is an endonuclease that cuts both strands of DNA before PAM
  • Cas9 is guided by gRNA
  • repair of the strands occur where the change/modification happens
281
Q

CRISPR

A

Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats

282
Q

What are examples of CRISPR/Cas9 system?

A

Diseases resistance, growth and productivity, and food quality.

283
Q

What are crops modified by transgenics (GM)?

A

Corn, cotton, soybeans, and canola.

284
Q

What are crops modified by CRISPR?

A

Rice and tomatoes.

285
Q

What are the problems with the green revolution?

A

Inputs of reduced water availability, fertilizer runoff creating algae blooms, soil irritation, etc.

286
Q

Compare soil erosion in conventional versus conservation tillage.

A

Reduced soil erosion in a conservation tillage as there are less steps versus conventional.

287
Q

Compare water use efficiency in conventional versus conservation tillage.

A

Increased WUE in conservation since less moving of soil, thus less evaporation of water.

288
Q

Compare fertilizer use in conventional versus conservation tillage.

A

Reduced fertilizer use in conservation as less eroded soil, so more nutrients stay.

289
Q

Compare pesticide use in conventional versus conservation tillage.

A

Increased pesticide use in conservation since the soil isn’t worked as much, allowing pests to survive and reproduce.

290
Q

How to solve the pesticide problem in conservation tillage?

A

Grow with other crops that attract the pests or introduce a pest that will eat them (biological control).

291
Q

How to solve WUE in conventional tillage?

A

Do watering at night; vertical farming (more watered plants at top); garden hose; and using rainwater.

292
Q

What is the advantage of biotechnology?

A

Provides product to improve society (human antibodies, insulin) or provide resistance to infection/environment (herbicide, drought, and virus).

293
Q

What are the disadvantages of biotechnology?

A

Unknown side effects (can kill a plant, provide bad environmental impact, humans).

294
Q

At the end of meiosis I, are the cells haploid or diploid?

A

Haploid due to having 23 chromosomes.

295
Q

What is the orginal cell in meiosis?

A

Microspore mother cell (anther) or megaspore mother cell (ovary).

296
Q

Explain the process of meiosis.

A

Prophase 1 - The nuclear envelope and nucleolus are dissolved; chromosomes are duplicated; paired in homologous chromosomes; coiling and pairing up; around the synapse is where genetic recombination occurs.
Metaphase 1 - homologous chromosomes line up along equatorial plate and spindle fibers attach to each centromere
Anaphase 1 - Spindle fibers shorten pulling apart homologous chromosomes
Telophase 1 - sister chromatids end up in opposite poles
Prophase 2-Telophase 2
- same things but 4 haploid daughter cells are made

297
Q

Cytokinesis

A

Vesicles from the Golgi apparatus appear on the equatorial plate and fuse to form plasma membrane where the contents from a cell plate.

298
Q

What forms from a microspore mother cell?

A

4 microspores (tetrad)

299
Q

What does each microspore mature into?

A

A pollen grain (4 in total)

300
Q

What makes up a pollen grain?

A

Vegetative cell and generative cell

301
Q

What does the vegetative cell do?

A

When the pollen grain binds to the megaspore, it creates a pollen tube to the egg.

302
Q

What is the entrance of the ovule?

A

At the bottom of the megaspore known as the micropyle.

303
Q

What does the generative cell do?

A

Creates sperm cells that fall down the pollen tube to the egg.

304
Q

Mature microgametophyte

A

Pollen grain

305
Q

Mature megagametophyte

A

Embyro sac

306
Q

What does the megaspore mother cell produce?

A

4 megaspore, but only 1 survives

307
Q

How many times does the megaspore undergo mitosis? How many nuclei produced?

A

3 times with 8 nuclei in the end

308
Q

What are the 8 nuclei?

A

3 antipodals, 2 synergids, 2 polar nuclei, and one egg cell.

309
Q

How much sperm does a generative cell produce? What does this mean?

A

2, thus double fertilization

310
Q

What does the ovary develop into?

A

Fruit

311
Q

What does the ovule develop into?

A

A seed

312
Q

What does the 2nd sperm cell fertilize? What forms?

A

Both polar nuclei to form a triploid endosperm.

Botany (3 decks)

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