Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychology 101 > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards Physics 101 flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards Sociology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is Associative Learning? (7)

A

change as a result of experience where two or more stimuli become connected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Non-Associative Learning? (7)

A

learning that results from a single sensory cue, not associations between stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Habituation (7)

A

the weakening of a response to a stimuli after repeated exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Dishabituation? (7)

A

recovery of a response to a stimuli after habituation. non-associative learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Sensitization? (7)

A

a strong response to a small stimulus that has previously been exposed to in larger amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Conditioning? (7)

A

the association between stimuli and the response to said stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Classical Conditioning? (7)

A

the association of one stimuli to another that can result in a response of the first to the second (scared of dogs, may react in fear to foxes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Pavlov’s Apparatus? (7)

A

apparatus that holds dogs upright and collects saliva samples. used to show that dogs react psychologically and biologically to food before tasting or smelling it. shows classical conditioning in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Unconditioned Stimulus or US? (7)

A

the stimulus that elicits a response without learning. the initial stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Unconditioned Response or UR? (7)

A

the response to a stimulus in the absence of learning. the initial reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Neutral Stimulus or NS? (7)

A

a stimulus that does not elicit a response through learning or conditioning. can turn into a conditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Conditioned Stimulus or CS? (7)

A

a stimulus that elicits a response through learning and association to the unconditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Conditioned Reaction or CR? (7)

A

a reaction that is elicited by the conditioned stimulus through association and learning. usually similar to the unconditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain the Classical Conditioning Process (7)

A

Step 1: US -> UR
Step 2: NS + US -> UR
Step 3: CS (previously NS) -> CR (similar to UR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Extinction? (7)

A

The weakening and disappearance of a conditioned reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Spontaneous Recovery? (7)

A

The sudden reappearance of a conditioned response after the extinction of said response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Higher-Order Conditioning? (7)

A

The use of a conditioned stimulus to change another neutral stimulus to a conditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Stimulus Generalization? (7)

A

happens when a new stimulus that is similar to the conditioned stimulus elicits the conditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Stimulus Discrimination? (7)

A

the tendency to have different responses to similar stimuli. happens in classical conditioning when a stimulus similar to the unconditioned or conditioned stimulus doesn’t create a conditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What order should the neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus be presented in? (7)

A

to be most effective, the neutral stimulus should be presented before the unconditioned stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What was the Little Albert experiment? (7)

A

he little albert was a conditioning experiment on a young boy to be afraid of white rats. They used a loud noise (US), white rats (NS), and crying/fear (UR). Within days Albert had also become afraid of other furry objects and animals. Because the experiment did not use counter conditioning, this fear could not be undone and spread rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Counter Conditioning? (7)

A

a process to change the conditioned reaction to a new, typically more positive, one. uses a new unconditioned stimulus to create association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is Classical Conditioning Associated with Advertising? (7)

A

Attractive celebrities can be partnered with products to elicit excitement, the association connects from the celebrity to the product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Operant Conditioning? (7)

A

when a response becomes more/less likely to happen based on external environment responses (punishment/reward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a Neutral Consequence? (7)

A

a consequence that does not change the likelihood of a target response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a Reinforcement? (7)

A

a consequence that increases the likelihood of a target response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a Punishment? (7)

A

a consequence that decreases the likelihood of a target response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the Law of Effect? (7)

A

states that rewards are more likely to replicate behaviour and punishments are less likely to replicate behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a Primary Reinforcer? (7)

A

a reinforcement that satisfies a physiological need (food)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a Secondary Reinforcement? (7)

A

a reinforcement stimuli that have positive values from associations with other reinforcers (money)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Explain Positive vs Negative Reinforcement? (7)

A

Positive reinforcement gives something (good grade) that increases behaviour (study). Negative reinforcement takes something away (mom stops nagging if you study) that increases behaviour (study).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a Primary Punisher? (7)

A

something that is naturally punishing (electric shock)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a Secondary Punisher? (7)

A

something that is punishing through association with another punisher (criticism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Explain Positive vs Negative Reinforcement? (7)

A

Positive punishment is when an unpleasant stimulus increases to discourage behaviour (getting sick after eating too much). Negative punishment is when a pleasant stimulus decreases to encourage behaviour (food doesn’t taste as good so you don’t want to eat it).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What was B.F. Skinner’s Operant Chamber? (7)

A

an apparatus where behaviour of animals can be easily recorded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Continuous Reinforcement? (7)

A

when a behaviour always encourages/discourages a certain response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Intermittent or Partial Reinforcement? (7)

A

when a desired response is sometimes reinforced but not always. this is the best choice for response to continue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

List the Reinforcement Schedules from Most Effective to Least Effective (7)

A

Fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed interval, variable interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Shaping? (7)

A

used to teach complex behaviours by working up to certain steps instead of the final goal all at once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Instinctive Drift? (7)

A

Animals are likely to revert back to instinctive behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Behaviour Modification? (7)

A

the application of conditioning techniques to teach new responses or to reduce or eliminate undesirable ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is Learned Helplessness? (7)

A

where repeated exposure to inescapable punishment leads to a failure to make escape attempts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Observational Learning? (7)

A

Learning hat occurs in response to watching others model behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What was the Bobo Doll Study? (7)

A

Study where children watched an adult beat up a doll and then were more likely to be violent towards it themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Implicit Learning? (7)

A

learning that happens without the learner’s awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Spatial Navigation Learning? (7)

A

learning that involves stimuli involving space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Insight Learning? (7)

A

a sudden realization that creates understanding in new concepts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is Semantic Learning? (7)

A

learning facts or concepts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Episodic Learning? (7)

A

remembering information from our past

50
Q

What is the Context Effect? (7)

A

studying in multiple locations increasing the likelihood you will remember the information

51
Q

What Happens when Multi-Tasking with Contradictory Information? (7)

A

when information is contradictory attending to one stimulus may block our ability to attend to the relevant stimulus

52
Q

What is the Stroop Effect? (7)

A

the delay i reaction times between congruent an incongruent stimuli (the word pink written in blue)

53
Q

What is a Specific Learning Disorder? (7)

A

a disorder that interferes with the use of basic psychological processes involved in academic skills

54
Q

What is Reading Disorder or Dyslexia? (7)

A

a deficit in ability to understand written language

55
Q

What is Mathematic Disorder or Dyscalculia? (7)

A

a deficit in ability to understand mathematical concepts

56
Q

What is Personality? (12)

A

unique characteristics that account for internal experiences and external behaviour

57
Q

What do Psychodynamic Theories do? (12)

A

explain behaviour and personality in terms of unconscious energy dynamics

58
Q

What is Psychoanalysis? (12)

A

a theory for personality by Sigmund Freud that emphasizes motive and conflict

59
Q

What are the Structures of Personality in Psychoanalysis? (12)

A

Id- operates according to pleasure (primitive and unconscious)
Ego- operates according to reality principle (balances id with superego)
Superego- moral ideas and conscious

60
Q

What are Freud’s Psychosexual Stages? (12)

A

(OAPLG) Oral - Anal - Phallic - Latency - Genital
(MAGNG) Mouth - Anus - Genitals - None - Genitals
(WTPSE) Weaning - Toilet Training - Parent Attraction - Sexual Repression - Emotional Intimacy

61
Q

What are Defense Mechanisms? (12)

A

unconscious tactics made by the ego to protect oneself from anxiety

62
Q

What is Denial? (12)

A

a defense mechanism based on refusing to recognize unpleasant realities

63
Q

What is Repression? (12)

A

a defense mechanism where one ignores and buries distressing thoughts and feelings, pushing them into the unconscious

64
Q

What is Rationalization? (12)

A

a defense mechanism where one creates false but potentially realistic excuses to justify poor behaviour

65
Q

What is Projection? (12)

A

a defense mechanism where someone pushes their own thoughts/feelings onto someone else

66
Q

What is Displacement? (12)

A

a defense mechanism where one switches a source of anger to a more convenient source

67
Q

What is Reaction Formation? (12)

A

a defense mechanism where one behaves in the opposite way of how they feel to ignore their feelings

68
Q

What is Regression? (12)

A

a defense mechanism where someone reverts back to immature patterns of behaviour

69
Q

What is Identification? (12)

A

a defense mechanism where one boosts self esteem by forming connections (imaginary or real) with a person or group

70
Q

What is Sublimation? (12)

A

occurs when unconscious, unacceptable impulses are changed into more socially acceptable ones

71
Q

What are the Reasons for Supporting Freud’s Ideas? (12)

A
  • unconscious forces can influence behaviour
  • internal conflict does play a role in psychological distress
  • early childhood experiences do affect adult personality
  • people do use defense mechanisms to reduce unpleasant emotions
72
Q

What are the Reasons for Criticizing Freud’s Ideas? (12)

A
  • hard to test
  • not a lot of evidence
  • sexist ideas
  • unrepresentative samples
73
Q

Are Geniuses More Prone to Emotional Disorders? (15)

A

No, false

74
Q

What are the 3 Models for Defining Disorders? (15)

A

-mental disorder as a violation of cultural standards
-mental disorder as maladaptive or harmful behaviour
-mental disorder as emotional distress (one problem with this model is that it doesn’t include those that do not care about their condition)

75
Q

What is a Mental Disorder? (15)

A

any behaviour or emotional state that causes the individual suffering or worry, is self defeating/destructive, or is maladaptive and disrupts the individual’s relationships or larger community

76
Q

What are the Statistics for Mental Disorders in Canada? (15)

A

1 in 5 Canadians will experience one in their lifetime, women are 1.5 times more likely to experience mood/anxiety disorder than men, lower income is associated with mental illness, 1/3 people with mental illness receive treatment, 71% of physicians rated access to psychiatrists as poor, mental illness constitutes more than 15% of disease but gets only 5.5% of health care funding, people are less likely to tell others about mental illness than physical illness, mental health is the number one cause of disability in Canada

77
Q

What is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual or DSM? (15)

A

The primary guide to diagnosing mental disorders

78
Q

What is Axis 1 of the DSM? (15)

A

primary clinical problems, actual symptoms that are shown

79
Q

What is Axis 2 of the DSM? (15)

A

personality disorder, anything that may hinder a person’s ability to be treated

80
Q

What is Axis 3 of the DSM? (15)

A

general medical conditions, any medica problems or medication that may be contributing

81
Q

What is Axis 4 of the DSM? (15)

A

social and environmental stressors, what are they exposed to that may be contributing

82
Q

What is Axis 5 of the DSM? (15)

A

global assessment of overall functioning, how their condition is affecting them

83
Q

What Happens When a New Disorder is Added to the DSM? (15)

A

the incidence rate of that disorder goes up

84
Q

Why is Over-Diagnosis Dangerous? (15)

A

-diagnostic labels can lead someone to feel more anxious or more likely to exhibit these symptoms
-confusion of serious mental disorders with normal problems (i.e. I have symptoms of that, maybe I have it)

85
Q

List Pros/Cons of DSM (15)

A

con -the illusion of universality (the DSM is subjective, and cannot be perfectly applied universally)

pro- when used correctly, DSM improves reliability and agreement of clinicians, as well as listing clear differences between two similar disorders

86
Q

What is the Neuroscience Model? (15)

A

looks at the genetic and biological traits of mental disorders like genetic inheritance, viral infection (viruses cause disorders(, or too much/little of a neurotransmitter

87
Q

What is the Cognitive-Behavioral Model? (15)

A

believes disorders are the result of maladaptive learned behaviours, behaviours and interactions influence each other. acknowledges that emotions and biological factors also play a part. believes disorders are learned based on learning principles from classical conditioning, operant conditioning and modelling.

also looks at fault cognition: selective perception (only see negative), magnification (exaggerates bad things), overgeneralization

88
Q

What is the Psychodynamic Model? (15)

A

unconscious psychological forces cause conflict, rooted from Freud

89
Q

What is a Mood Disorder? (15)

A

disorders that are marked by emotional disturbances that disrupt physical, perceptual, social and thought processes

90
Q

What is Major Depression? (15)

A

a mood disorder that disturbs emotion (sadness), behaviour (loss of interest), cognition (thoughts of hopelessness), and body function (fatigue/appetite).
Women are 2-3 times more likely to be depressed, but are also more likely to seek help

91
Q

What is Bipolar Disorder? (15)

A

a mood disorder where on switched from episodes of mania (energy) and depression (no energy).

92
Q

Why Would Someone Have a Mood Disorder? (15)

A

Genetic factors- mood disorders are moderately heritable
Biological/Neurochemical factors- mood disorders are linked with lower levels of norepinephrine and serotonin
Dispositional factors- perfectionism
Cognitive habits- attribute the learned helplessness theory (attributional helplessness) and ruminating about the negatives
Interpersonal roots- people with poor social support are more prone to depression (can lose social network from depression)
Vulnerability-Stress Model- combination of upsetting events and individual vulnerability lead to depression

93
Q

What are Anxiety Disorders? (15)

A

disorders revolved around stress and anxiety

94
Q

What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder? (15)

A

a chronic, high level of anxiety that isn’t tied to any one event. not caused by physical causes like drugs

95
Q

What is Social Anxiety Disorder? (15)

A

severe, persistent fear of embarrassment in social situations (fear of talking in public or performing poorly in front of people)

96
Q

What are Phobias? (15)

A

an anxiety disorder with a persistent and irrational fear of something that has no danger

97
Q

What is Agoraphobia? (15)

A

a phobia of being away from a place or person

98
Q

What is Panic Disorder? (15)

A

an anxiety disorder where a person experiences recurring panic attacks (moments of intense fear, impending doom/death, rapid heart rate and dizziness).

99
Q

What is Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder or OCD (15)

A

an anxiety disorder where a person is trapped in repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviours (compulsions) to reduce anxiety. the person knows that the ritual is senseless but relies on them to mitigate behaviour

100
Q

What is Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder or PTSD? (15)

A

an anxiety disorder where someone who experienced a traumatic event resulting in psychic numbing, reliving the trauma and increased physiological arousal. diagnosed only if symptoms occur for 6 or more months

101
Q

What are the Causes/Etiology of Anxiety Disorders

A

Biological factors- moderate genetic component. disturbances in neural circuits for making GABA and serotonin. children with an inhibited (shy) temperament are at higher risk
Cognitive factors- focusing on threats, selectively recalling threatening information, misinterpret harmless situations as threatening

102
Q

What is Schizophrenia (15)

A

a mental disorder characterized by disorganized thoughts, disconnection from reality and sometimes hallucinations

103
Q

What are the Positive Symptoms of Schizophrenia? (15)

A

hallucinations, bizarre delusions, incoherent speech, disorganized behaviours

104
Q

What are the Negative Symptoms of Schizophrenia? (15)

A

loss of motivation, emotional flatness, social withdrawal, slowed speech

105
Q

What causes Schizophrenia? (15)

A

Genetics- there is a genetic component of inheritability, excessive dopamine activity, structural abnormalities in the brain (larger brain ventricles)
Neurodevelopment- damage to fetal brain, maternal malnutrition/illness, oxygen deprivation at birth

106
Q

What are Dissociative Disorders? (15)

A

disorders where people lose contact with consciousness or memory causing disruptions to their sense of identity

107
Q

What is Dissociative Amnesia? (15)

A

a dissociative disorder causing sudden loss of memory for important personal information in excess

108
Q

What is Dissociative Fugue? (15)

A

a dissociative disorder where people lose their memory for their entire lives

109
Q

What is Dissociative Identity Disorder? (15)

A

a dissociative disorder involving multiple people coexisting in one person, usually having very different personalities. used to be called multiple personality disorder

110
Q

What are the 3 Proposed Reasons for DID? (15)

A

View 1- starts in childhood as a means to cope producing a mental splitting
View 2- created through pressures and suggestions by clinicians
Sociologies explanation- an extreme form of presenting many aspects of our personality to others and to make sense of problems

111
Q

What are Personality Disorders? (15)

A

disorders that disrupt one’s sense of and interaction with personality

112
Q

What is Antisocial Personality Disorder? (15)

A

personality disorder characterized by lying, steaking, manipulating, violence, and lack of guilt/shame/empathy

is not psychopathy

113
Q

What causes Antisocial Personality Disorder? (15)

A

abnormalities in the central nervous system, genetically influenced impulse control problems, brain damage

114
Q

What is Borderline Personality Disorder? (15)

A

a personality disorder characterized by intense but unstable relationships, fear of abandonment, unrealistic self-image and emotional volatilily

115
Q

What did the Minnesota Study on Behavioral Genetics Discover about Twins? (12)

A

Found that identical twins raised apart were more similar than fraternal twins raised together.
Found the 5 personality traits to have varying hereditability, ranked most heritable to least heritable below:
1. conscientiousness
2. neuroticism
3. extraversion
4. open to experience
5. agreeableness

116
Q

What is Cerebral Hemisphere Dominance? (12)

A

dominance of one side of the cerebral hemisphere over the other.
right side dominance- more negative emotions
left side dominance- more positive emotions

117
Q

What is Positive Emotionality? (12)

A

positive emotionality is a scale determining either social/enthusiastic individuals (high scores) or shy/low confidence (low scores) individuals. Looks for high dopamine levels

118
Q

What is Negative Emotionality? (12)

A

negative emotionality is a scale determining negative emotions/distress (high scores) or life satisfaction and positive emotions (low scores).looks for low serotonin levels

119
Q

What is Disinhibition vs Restraint? (12)

A

a scale looking at impulsivity/reactivity (high scores) or careful/controlled lifestyles (low scores). Looks for low levels o dopamine and serotonin with high levels of testosterone

120
Q

What are the Emotional Differences Found in Men and Women? (12)

A

-women are more accurate at assessing emotion
-men are more aggressive than women
-men are more open to casual sex than women

Psychology 101 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions