Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychology 101 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards Sociology 101 flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards Physics 101 flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is structuralism? (1)

A

focuses on immediate experience; the HOW we experience the world. Used INTROSPECTION to simplify experiences down to physical attributes (feelings, sensations, images)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is functionalism? (1)

A

focuses on the purpose of behaviour; the HOW and WHY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is behaviourism? (1)

A

focuses on observable behaviours; WHAT we do. only study to be verified by observation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is psychoanalysis? (1)

A

Focuses on unconscious thoughts that guide behaviour. relied on CASE STUDIES. Proposed that we are unaware of why we do what we do. SIGMUND FREUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is humanism? (1)

A

emphasizes the “unique” qualities of humans. focuses on our FREEDOM and POTENTIAL FOR GROWTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 7 themes of psychology? (2)

A
  1. Psychology is empirical- based on evidence, not a pseudoscience
  2. Psychology is theoretically diverse- different perspectives my interpret behaviour differently
  3. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context- psychology developments are affected by society
  4. Behaviour is determined by multiple cases- there is more than one reason why we act the way we do
  5. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage- different cultures have different norms
  6. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour- nature vs nurture
  7. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective- our experiences shape what we see
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 5 Perspectives in Psychology (2)

A

Biological- physiological influences
Learning- environmental influences
Cognitive- thinking/perception
Sociocultural- social and cultural values
Psychodynamic- unconscious conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 5 Characteristics of the Ideal Scientist (2)

A
  1. Precision- uses theory, hypothesis, and operational definitions
  2. Skepticism- willing to doubt what others say as true in pursuit of greater truth
  3. Reliance on Empirical Evidence- look at the evidence, not just ideas
  4. Willingness to make Risky Decisions- provides a possibility of their ideas being questioned
  5. Openness- open to new/conflicting ideas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the Steps in a Scientific Investigation (2)

A
  1. Identify Questions of Interest and Review Past Literature
  2. Develop a Testable Hypothesis and Make Operational Definition
  3. Select a Research Method
  4. Analyze the Data, Accept/Reject Hypothesis
  5. Seek Scientific Review
  6. Build a Theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the Two Basic Types of Research Methods (2)

A
  1. Experimental- demonstrates a cause and effect relationship between variables (explanatory)
  2. Descriptive- used to observe and describe behaviour, determines the existence of a relationship between the variables (descriptive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the Independent Variable vs the Dependent Variable (2)

A

Independent- variable manipulated by the researcher
Dependent- variable that is to be affected by the independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the Experimental vs the Control Condition (2)

A

Experimental- group that receives special treatment based on the independent variable
Control- group that does not receive special treatment, used to compare to the experimental group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a Single-Blind Study (2)

A

When the researchers knows who is in what group, but the participants do not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a Double-Blind Study (2)

A

Neither the researcher nor the participants know who is in what group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a Random Assignment Study (2)

A

Groups are decided randomly and have the same probability of assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a Naturalistic Observation Study (2)

A

Study where the researcher observes behaviour without interacting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Case Study (2)

A

A detailed description of a particular individual under treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Survey (2)

A

Questionnaires and interviews that ask people for opinions/experiences/attitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a Correlational Study (2)

A

A descriptive study that looks for a relationship between two phenomena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain the Coefficient of Correlation (2)

A

A coefficient that describes the relationship between two variables. Ranges from -1.00 to +1.00. The size represents the strength (-/+0.80 is a stronger relationship than -/+ 0.60). The sign represents the direction of the relationship (positive means as one variable increases, the other increases. negative means that as one increases, the other decreases).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 3 Statistical Methods (2)

A

Organizing data- frequency distributions (orderly arrangements indicating frequency of farms), and graphing data (visible display of data)
Descriptive statistics- measures of central tendency (mean, median, mode), measures of variability (range), standard deviation (how much, on average, the scores differ from the mean), the normal curve (a curve that shows equal increases/decreases as you move away from the mean)
Inferential statistics- statistical procedure that lets researchers determine how statistically meaningful results are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain the Risks-Verses-Benefits Ratio (2)

A

A comparison of the risks to the benefits of the results of a research question to determine ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain the Participant’s “Protection from Harm” (2)

A

the rights of participants to be protected from physical or psychological harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain Informed Consent (2)

A

The right of research participants to be fully explained to and understand all aspects of a study that may impact their willingness to participate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain Debriefing (2)

A

The providing of a full account and justification of research activities to participants in studies where deception was used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an Electroencephalograph or EEG (3)

A

a device that monitors the electrical activity in the brain by recording electrodes attached to the scalp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation or TMS (3)

A

process that involves stimulating the brain with a large current through a wire coil on someone’s head that lets scientists temporarily increase or decrease activity in a specific area oof the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a Positron-Emission Tomography or PET Scan (3)

A

scan that allows scientists to examine brain function and map activity in the brain over time. patients are injected with a substance that has radioactive properties and when a certain area of the brain is active the liquid can be seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a Neuron (3)

A

Individual cells in the nervous system that receive, integrate and transmit information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are Glia (3)

A

Cells that support, nurture and insulate neurons, remove debris when neurons die, enhance the formation and maintenance of synapses and modify neural functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are Dendrites (3)

A

Part of the neuron. Branches that receive information from other neurons and transmit it toward the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Soma or Cell Body (3)

A

Part of the neuron. Keeps the neuron alive and decides whether it will fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is an Axon (3)

A

Part of the neuron. An extending fibre that conducts impulses away from the cell body and transmits them to other neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the myelin Sheath (3)

A

Part of the neuron. Fatty insulation that may surround the axon of a neuron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Neurogenesis (3)

A

the production of new neurons from immature stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are Stem Cells (3)

A

immature cells that renew themselves and have the potential to develop into mature cells; given encouraging environments, stem cells from early embryos can develop into any cell type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are Synaptic Clefts (3)

A

minuscule spaces between neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Synapse (3)

A

The site where transmission of a nerve impulse from one nerve cell to another occurs. includes the axon terminal, the synaptic cleft and receptor sites in the membrane of the receiving cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Action Potential (3)

A

A brief change in electrical voltage that occurs between the inside and the outside of an axon when a neuron is stimulated. serves to produce an electrical impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a Neurotransmitter (3)

A

A chemical substance that is released by a transmitting neuron at the synapse that alters the activity of a receiving neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Serotonin (3)

A

A major neurotransmitter that affects neurons involved in sleep, appetite, pain, suppression and mood. Low levels of serotonin are associated with severe depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is Dopamine (3)

A

A major neurotransmitter that affects neurons involved in voluntary movement, learning, memory and emotion. Loss of cells that produce dopamine may contribute to Parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Acetylcholine (3)

A

A major neurotransmitter that affects neurons involved in muscle action, cognitive function, memory and emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is Norepinephrine (3)

A

A major neurotransmitter that affects neurons involved in increased heart rate and the slowing of intestinal activity during stress, the neurons involved in learning, dreaming, and waking up from sleep. Low levels of norepinephrine are associated with severe depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is GABA (3)

A

the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Abnormal GABA levels are related to sleep/eating disorder and to convulsive disorders like epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Glutamate (3)

A

The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are Neural Networks (3)

A

Circuits or networks of neurons that expand the communication among different brain regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is Long-term Potentiation (3)

A

A phenomenon where repeated stimulation of certain nerve cells in the brain greatly increases the likelihood that the cells will respond strongly to future stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the 2 Parts of the Nervous System (3)

A

Central and peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the Central Nervous System or CNS (3)

A

Consists of the brain and the spinal cord. Receives, processes, interprets and stores incoming sensory information. Sends out messages destined for muscles, glands and internal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the Peripheral Nervous System or PNS (3)

A

Consists of all portions of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord; it includes sensory and motor nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do Sensory Nerves do (3)

A

Sensory nerves carry messages from special receptors in the skin, muscles and other internal and external sense organs to the spinal cord, which sends them along to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What do Motor Nerves do (3)

A

Motor nerves carry orders from the central nervous system to muscles, glands and internal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the Somatic Nervous System or SNS (3)

A

Part of the PNS. Connects to sensory receptors and skeletal muscles to control voluntary movements (aka skeletal nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the Autonomic Nervous System or ANS (3)

A

Part of the PNS. Regulates the internal organs and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the Sympathetic Nervous System (3)

A

Part of the ANS. Mobilizes bodily resources and increases the output of energy during emotion and stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the Parasympathetic Nervous System (3)

A

Part of the ANS. Operates during states of relaxation to conserve energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What Does the Hindbrain Consist of (3)

A

The pons, medulla reticular formation, and cerebellum. Lower part of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the Pons (3)

A

Part of the hindbrain involved in sleeping, waking and dreaming

60
Q

What is the Medulla (3)

A

Part of the hindbrain responsible for some automatic functions like breathing and heart rate

61
Q

What is the Reticular Formation (3)

A

Part of the hindbrain that arouses the cortex and screens incoming information

62
Q

What is the Cerebellum (3)

A

Part of the hindbrain that regulates movement and balance, is involved in remembering simple skills and acquired reflexes, helps analyze sensory information, helps solve problems and is responsible for understanding words

63
Q

What is the Midbrain (3)

A

Middle part of the brain, located above the pons, that contains nuclei like substantia nigra which produce dopamine

64
Q

What does the Forebrain Consist of (3)

A

Upper part of the brain that consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, amygdala, hippocampus, basal ganglia and the cerebral cortex

65
Q

What is the Thalamus (3)

A

Part of the forebrain that relays all sensory information to the cerebral cortex except those from the olfactory bulb

66
Q

What is the Hypothalamus (3)

A

Part of the forebrain involved in emotion and survival instincts (fear, huger, thirst, and reproduction). Also helps regulate the autonomic nervous system

67
Q

What is the Pituitary Gland (3)

A

A small endocrine gland that is a part of the forebrain. Releases hormones and regulates other endocrine glands

68
Q

What is the Amygdala (3)

A

Part of the forebrain that is responsible for the arousal and regulation of emotion as well as the initial emotional response to sensory inputs. Plays an important part in mediating anxiety and depression

69
Q

What is the Hippocampus (3)

A

Part of the forebrain that is responsible for the storage of new memory information, as well as comparing information with what the brain has come to expect. Called the “Gateway to Memory” because it allows us to navigate through environments

70
Q

What is the Basal Ganglia (3)

A

A group of nuclei in the forebrain that work as a unit. Involved in cognition and coordination of voluntary movement

71
Q

What is the Nucleus Accumbens (3)

A

Area in the basal ganglia that is involved in motivation and reward

72
Q

What is the Cerebral Cortex (3)

A

Largest structure in the brain. Part of the forebrain that consists of the upper part of the brain. Has 2 cerebral ‘hemispheres’ that are connected by the corpus callosum. Is in charge of most sensory, motor and cognitive prcesses

73
Q

What are the 4 Lobes of the Cerebral Cortex (3)

A

Occipital lobes, parietal lobes, temporal lobes and frontal lobes

74
Q

What are the Occipital Lobes (3)

A

Lobes of the cerebral cortex responsible for vision

75
Q

What are the Parietal Lobes (3)

A

Lobes of the cerebral cortex responsible for the sensation of physical touch

76
Q

What are the Temporal Lobes (3)

A

Lobe of the cerebral cortex that area responsible for memory, perception, emotion and hearing.

77
Q

What is Wernicke’s Area (3)

A

Part of the left temporal lobe that is responsible for language comprehension

78
Q

What are the Frontal Lobes (3)

A

Part of the cerebral cortex responsible for creativity, emotion, perception and voluntary movements

79
Q

What is Broca’s Area (3)

A

Part of the left frontal lobe that is responsible for speech production

80
Q

What is the Right Hemisphere (3)

A

Right side of the cerebral cortex that controls the left side of the body. Is responsible for spatial abilities and negative emotions

81
Q

What is the Left Hemisphere (3)

A

Left side of the cerebral cortex that controls the right side of the body. Is responsible for verbal abilities and positive emotions

82
Q

What is Brain Lateralization (3)

A

Brain lateralization is the tendency for certain neurological functions to happen primarily in one side of the brain or the other

83
Q

Where are the Language Centers in the Brain (3)

A

Primarily found on the left side of the brain (right handed people), although some left handed people have them on the right side or on both sides

84
Q

What is Evolutionary Psychology (3)

A

Field of study that looks at the evolution of the brain and how it has changed

85
Q

What is Natural Selection (3)

A

The understanding that only strong individuals will naturally survive, making those with better genes more likely to live and reproduce, increasing the gene’s popularity

86
Q

What is Heritability (3)

A

A statistic used to determine the likelihood of a trait being passed down from one parent to another

87
Q

What is the Twin Study Method (3)

A

An experiment done to determine heritability where they compare monozygotic (identical) twins and dizygotic (fraternal) twins to see if environment or genetics play a part in certain traits. Can also be done on pairs of monozygotic twins that have been adopted

88
Q

What is Consciousness (6)

A

The awareness of stimulation inside and outside the body

89
Q

What is Selective Attention (6)

A

The focusing of attention on certain aspects of an environment but not others

90
Q

What is Inattentional Blindness (6)

A

The failure to perceive something in your environment because you are not paying attention to it

91
Q

What is Conscious Awareness (6)

A

The awareness of having attention, believed to develop around 18 months. Is determined to be had when children can recognize themselves in mirrors as themselves.

92
Q

What is Preconsciousness (6)

A

The level of awareness where information can become readily available to the consciousness if needed

93
Q

What did Freud Believe About the Levels of Awareness (6)

A

He believed that a majority of our emotions, wishes and desires were below the preconscious and in the unconscious. He believed that they were repressed and could slowly rise to consciousness and that’s what psychological conditions were

94
Q

What are Biological Rhythms (6)

A

Natural fluctuations in biological systems. Can have psychological implications.

95
Q

What is Entrainment (6)

A

The natural synchronization of biological rhythms with external cues (time, light, etc)

96
Q

What is a Circadian Rhythm (6)

A

Biological rhythms that align with in 24h cycle. They are studied by isolating volunteers from time cues

97
Q

What is the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus or SCN (6)

A

The suprachiasmatic nucleus, located in the hypothalamus, is receives information about light levels from the eye and transmits them to the brain. It is nicknamed the “biological clock”

98
Q

What is Internal Desynchronization (6)

A

The state when our biological rhythms are not synchronized (i.e. jet lag)

99
Q

Why do we Sleep (6)

A

Sleep is when our body eliminates waste from cells, repairs cells, replenishes energy stores and strengthens our immune system. Sleep also improves memory and problem-solving ability

100
Q

What are the Side Effects of Sleep Deprivation (6)

A

Depression, lower productivity, increased distractibility, higher odds to make mistakes, larger emotional responses

101
Q

Explain the 5 Stages of the Sleep Cycle (6)

A

Stage 1- beginning to drift out of consciousness. brain emits theta waves
Stage 2- minor noises no longer disturb you. brain waves begin to spindle and mixed EEG activity starts
Stage 3- breathing and heart rate slow down. delta waves begin to start
Stage 4- deep sleep. even more delta waves
REM- increased eye movement with loss of muscle tone, dreams begin. low-voltage, high frequency waves

102
Q

How Much Sleep do Humans Need (6)

A

Newborns (1-4 months): 14-17h
Toddlers (1-5 years): 12-15h
Children (5-11 years): 10-11h
Teens (11-17 years): 8-9h
Adults: 7-9 hours

103
Q

What is Insomnia (6)

A

Insomnia is a sleep disorder that results in a difficult falling asleep (typically in younger people) or staying asleep (typically in older people). Can be caused by anxiety, tension, or imbalanced emotions. Some people have a hyperarousal model of insomnia where there brain is releasing arousal hormones that keep them awake

104
Q

What is Sleep Apnea (6)

A

Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder where breathing briefly stops during sleep, resulting in the person to waken throughout the night choking or gasping

105
Q

What is Narcolepsy (6)

A

Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder where the body unpredictably lapses into REM sleep causing daytime sleepiness

106
Q

What are nightmares (6)

A

Nightmares are anxiety causing dreams, typically from REM sleep, that lead to a person waking up

107
Q

What are night terrors (6)

A

Night terrors are sudden moments of being awake from non-REM sleep that cause arousal and panic

108
Q

What is sleep walking (6)

A

Sleep walking happens during stage 4 sleep where people can react with their physical environment while not being consciously aware of it

109
Q

What sleep stage gets longer as the night goes on (6)

A

REM sleep stages get longer, stages 3 and 4 get shorter

110
Q

What stage of sleep does the body prioritize (6)

A

The body does not prioritize any one stage of sleep over the others, they are seen to be viewed with equal importance

111
Q

What is sleep pressure (6)

A

Sleep pressure is an unconscious biological desire to go to sleep that builds as we stay awake

112
Q

What is Freud”s psychoanalytical approach to dreams (6)

A

Freud believes that dreams are unconscious desires that have representing symbols. He claimed that dreams are the “royal road to the unconscious”

113
Q

What is the information processing approach to dreams? (6)

A

A hypothesis that dreams are the mind’s way of processing event that happened throughout the day before

114
Q

What is the activation-synthesis theory for dreams? (6)

A

A hypothesis that dreams are only our brain activity, and are our brain’s way of trying to understand randomized signals sent out

115
Q

What is hypnosis? (6)

A

A procedure where a practitioner tries to alter changes in the sensations of a participant by proposing suggestions.
-Hypnosis is not sleep, and relies more on the person being hypnotized that the hypnotizer.
-Hypnosis does not do more than cause increased motivation, so nothing done during hypnosis is impossible to do outside of hypnosis.
-Hypnosis does not increase the accuracy of memory

116
Q

What are the dissociation theories of hypnosis? (6)

A

That hypnosis is a split in consciousness where one part of the mind acts independently of another. Hypnosis causes a dissociation between an executive control system in the brain and other systems involved in thinking/acting

117
Q

What are the sociocognitive theories of hypnosis? (6)

A

Belief that the effects of hypnosis are caused by the social influence of the hypnotists, and the abilities/beliefs/expectationa of the subject

118
Q

How does hypnosis works in the brain? (6)

A

Neuroimaging suggests that the anterior cingulate cortex may be involved during hypnosis to induce relaxation and reduce pain

119
Q

What is meditation? (6)

A

A technique used to turn attention towards one’s inner awareness

120
Q

What is the opening up approach to meditation? (6)

A

When someone clears their mind to allow new experiences and thoughts

121
Q

What is mindfulness meditation? (6)

A

When someone focuses on thoughts and experiences that are already in their head

122
Q

What is concentrative meditation? (6)

A

When someone focuses on a word or idea called a mantra to meditate

123
Q

What is addiction? (6)

A

A physical or psychological dependance on a substance that happens after use over a period of time

124
Q

What is physical dependence? (6)

A

A physical state that happens when the body adapts its normal function to account for the intake of a substance

125
Q

What is tolerance? (6)

A

A process in which the body adapts to use of a substance and requires more of the substance to experience the same previous effects

126
Q

What is a craving? (6)

A

A strong desire to consume a substance that typically results from physical dependence

127
Q

What is withdrawal? (6)

A

Undesirable symptoms (both psychological and physical) that can happen when someone stops using a substance they had a dependence on.

128
Q

What are psychoactive drugs? (6)

A

Substances that cause chemical reactions in the brain altering awareness, behaviour, sensation and mood.

129
Q

What are the 3 types of psychoactive drugs? (6)

A

Depressants, stimulants and hallucinogens

130
Q

What are depressants? (6)

A

Substance that lower the activity of the central nervous system.

131
Q

What is alcohol? (6)

A

Alcohol is the most commonly used depressant. It is absorbed into the blood through the lining in the stomach. Small amounts slow down judgement and inhibition, causing relaxation.

132
Q

What is binge drinking? (6)

A

Binge drinking is the infrequent consumption of alcohol in large amounts. It is considered 5 drinks for men and 4 drinks for women

133
Q

What are sedatives? (6)

A

Sedatives are hypnotic drugs that reduce tension in the body but interfere with judgement, motor activity and concentration

134
Q

What are opioids? (6)

A

Opioids relieve pain and mimic the feelings of endorphins. Quick intake results in a sudden feeling of “euphoria”. Examples include opium, morphine, heroine and codeine

135
Q

What are stimulants? (6)

A

Stimulants are substances that speed up activity in the central nervous system. They increase blood pressure, heart rate, alertness, thinking and behaviour

136
Q

What are the symptoms of stimulants? (6)

A

Moderate amounts cause excitement, confidence and euphoria.
Large amounts cause anxiousness and jitteriness.
Extra large amounts can be fatal

137
Q

What is caffeine? (6)

A

Caffeine is a stimulant that is commonly used to feel energized

138
Q

Why is the consumption of both caffeine and alcohol dangerous? (6)

A

Consumption of both caffeine and alcohol is dangerous because the energized feeling of caffeine can hide the symptoms of the alcohol. This can cause the consumer to be unaware of how much alcohol they have consumed and can lead to overdoses

139
Q

What is nicotine? (6)

A

Nicotine is a stimulant that activates the nicotine receptors in the brain, releasing feelings of pleasure and increasing metabolic function. It is highly addictive because of your body’s specialized receptors and the quick ability to feel side effects

140
Q

What is cocaine? (6)

A

Cocaine is a natural stimulant that comes from coca plant. It has a short symptom window (20-30 minutes), which results in more frequent usage to maintain the high. Cocaine increases dopamine levels by not allowing the body to recycle old dopamine, causing buildup

141
Q

What are amphetamines? (6)

A

Amphetamines are manufactured stimulants that increase energy and lower appetite. Tolerance for amphetamines builds quickly, resulting in increased dosages and addiction

142
Q

What is MDMA or ecstasy? (6)

A

Ecstasy is a “club drug” that causes feelings of euphoria, reduced anxiety, and increased social intimacy. Causes short term dehydration and difficulty concentration. Causes long term depression, anxiety, paranoia and irritability

143
Q

What are hallucinogens? (6)

A

Hallucinogens alter consciousness by disrupting thought process. They cause changes in perception and experience. These changes experiences are commonly called “trips”

144
Q

What is the pleasure pathway? (6)

A

The pleasure pathway is a reward pathway activatable by substances. It stretches from the ventral tegmental to the nucleus accumbens, leading to dopamine release. All drugs end up moving through the pleasure pathway regardless of where they are before that

145
Q

What is LSD? (6)

A

LSD, or Lysergic Acid Diethylamide, is a hallucinogen.

146
Q

What is cannabis? (6)

A

Cannabis is a natural hallucinogen, depressant and stimulant the comes from hemp plants. Moderate use affects your ability to transfer short term memories to long term memories.

147
Q

What is introspection? (1)

A

Introspection is the examination of someone’s own mental and emotional processes. Used in structuralism.

Psychology 101 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions