midterm Flashcards

1
Q

common causes of vestibular disorders

A

head trauma, otitis media, bacterial labyrinthitis or vestibular neuronitis, viral labyrinthitis or vestibular neuronitis, ototoxic medications, ischemia, vestibular schwannoma or viral causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

impact of dizziness and balance on the population

A

dizziness is the 3rd most common complaint within outpatient clinics and the #1 complaint in individuals over the age of 70
-additionally, half of the people over the age of 70 will experience BPPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how is dizziness often reported by our patients

A

vertigo, syncope, lightheadedness, disequilibrium, unsteady, floating, rocking, tilting, foggy feeling, motion sickness, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

true vertigo

A

the room is spinning or you are spinning
-all about rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the ability to maintain balance depends upon ….

A

sensory information gathered from visual, somatosensory and vestibular receptors within the body
-the sensory information is picked up and set to the brainstem for integration and then sent up to the cortex for perception and processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do the cerebellum and cerebral cortex streamline the balance process

A

they coordinate incoming impulses and add that information from thinking and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

peripheral vs. central

A

inner ear (labyrinth to the brainstem) vs. the CNS (brainstem to the cortex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

vision denied

A

patient does not have a visual target, eyes are closed or covered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

vision allowed

A

patient has a visual target, eyes are open or uncovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

role of the peripheral vestibular system

A

allows us to interact and maintain contact with our surroundings in a safe, efficient manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the labyrinth

A

interconnected canals and cavities that are located in the petrous portion of the temporal bone that houses the sensory organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bony labyrinth vs. membranous labyrinth

A

the outer wall vs. inside the bone and suspended in fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

perilymph vs. endolymph

A

fluid within the labyrinths that is similar to CSF vs. fluid inside of the membranous labyrinth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how many sensory structures are there total

A

10 ; 5 on each side
-3 SCC, 1 utricle and 1 saccule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

semicircular canals (SCC) overview

A

bony tubes that are interconnected and oriented as right angles of each other allowing the endolymph to flow to or from the ampullated end of the canal
-3 per canal
-responsible for the pitch, yaw and roll movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SCCs are primarily responsible for detecting ……

A

angular accelerations and decelerations of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the sensory cells of the SCCs are the …..

A

cristae ampullaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the cupula and what is happens if the density is changed

A

it sits on top of the cristae containing the same density as the endolymph
-if anything that impacts the density, this will cause an illusion of vertigo due to stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

vestibular hair cells

A

these are stimulated by the movement of the SCC and the position relative to gravity
-they have kinocilium and several stereocilia containing a resting potential when at rest but with any motion this will change the potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

any movement that causes the sterocilia to flow towards the kinocilium results in ……

A

depolarization with an increased potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

any movement that causes the sterocilia to flow away from the kinocilium results in ……

A

hyperpolarization with a decreased potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how are vestibular hair cells oriented in the SCC canals

A

in anterior and posterior : towards the canal side of the ampulla
in horizontal : towards the utricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how does the horizontal canal become inhibited and excited

A

movement of endolymph away from the ampulla causes inhibition and movement towards the ampulla causes excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how does the anterior and posterior canals become inhibited and excited

A

movement of endolymph towards the ampulla causes inhibition and movement away from the ampulla causes excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

overview of the otolithic/macular organs

A

gelatinous structures with otoconia embedded on top that detects movement
-including both the utricle and saccule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

otolithic organs are primarily responsible for detecting ……

A

gravitational acceleration and the perception of up/down movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the sensory structures of the otolithic organs are ….

A

otoconia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are otoconia and what role do they play besides being the sensory structures

A

calcium carbonate crystals that cause weight
-with any movement relative to the support structures, this results in stimulation of these cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

with the otoconia, when do problems occur

A

if they move into the SCCs
-results in gravity sensitve structures in areas not senitive to gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

with otolithic organs, they stay stimulated for …..

A

longer
-as long as there is movement they will be stimulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the utricle plays a role in ….

A

postural control and senses change in orientation with respect to gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the saccule plays a role in ….

A

changes in orientation within the vertical plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how are the vestibular hair cells oriented within the utricle and saccule

A

oriented towards the striola within the utricle and away from the striola in the saccule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

branches of the vestibular nerve

A

superior : in the utricle, anterior part of the saccule and the horizontal and anterior canal
inferior : in the posterior part of the saccule and the posterior canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

3 functions of the vestibular system

A

to provide a subjective sensation of movement and/or displacement in 3D space, to maintain upright body posture and to stabilize the eyes during head/body movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are the 3 vestibular reflexes that help the 3 functions

A

vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR), vestibulo-collic reflex (VOC) and the vestibulospinal reflex (VSR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

function of the VOR

A

giving a clear image through generating reflexive movements that are equal to and opposite of the head movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what occurs if the VOR is damaged

A

oscillopsia or retinal slip
-visual field is bouncing when you walk
-retinal slip will result in corrective saccades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how can we quickly assess the VOR

A

head thrust/head pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how do the eye muscles correlate with a cranial nerve

A

CN 3 : medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus and inferior oblique
CN 4 : superior oblique
CN 6 : lateral rectus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what occurs when the eyes reach their limit

A

when the eyes reach their width limit, the CNS causes the eyes to move back to the center in order to create a new focal point through a saccade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

function of the vestibulo-collic reflex (VCR)

A

acts on the neck musculature to stabilize the head helping to keep the head in the horizontal gaze point relative to gravity
-maintaining upright head position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how to assess the VCR

44
Q

function of the vestibulospinal reflex (VSR)

A

generates compensatory body movement to maintain head and postural stability in the upper and lower limbs that is activated from the neck down
-stabilizes body movement

45
Q

how to assess the VSR

A

postural stability exams

46
Q

what occurs if the VSR is damaged

A

patients could be walking or bending the opposite way

47
Q

what are some bedside screening evaluations we can conduct

A

romberg, fukuda, halmalgi head thrust, active or passive head shake and dynamic visual acuity

48
Q

romberg/tandem romberg

A

screens the body’s proprioception (somatosensory) system and the degree of functional disequilibrium caused by central vertigo, peripheral vertigo and head trauma

49
Q

how to complete the romberg/tandem romberg

A

have the patient stand with their feet together and arms out to the side, ask them to stand still for 10-15 seconds (eyes open then closed)
-to make it a tandem, have the patient put the feet in front of each other

50
Q

results of the romberg/tandem romberg

A

positive romberg : if the patient sways or falls or with any non fluid motions
-patients will generally move towards the side of the problem

51
Q

fukuda/stepping fukuda

A

measures the labyrinth function through vestibulospinal reflexes

52
Q

how to complete the fukuda/stepping fukuda

A

have the patient hold their arms out straight and ask them to march in place for 50 steps with their eyes closed

53
Q

results of the fukuda/stepping fukuda

A

normal : able to complete the task without significant angular deviation
abnormal : patient will rotate and is considered positive if the rotation exceeds 45 degrees

54
Q

halmalgi head thrust

A

measures the SCC dysfunction in all canals and the detection of peripheral vestibulopathy

55
Q

how to complete the halmalgi head thrust

A

hold the patients head and slowly move it side to side at first then use a rapid pattern to move the head to each side, ask the patient to keep their eyes open throughout the test, head should be held briefly at the end of the impulse to monitor for re-fixation saccades

56
Q

results of the halmalgi head thrust

A

normal : no corrective saccades
abnormal : refixation/corrective saccades present

57
Q

active/passive head shake

A

evaluates the status of the patients velocity storage integrator
-identifying if function is balanced

58
Q

how to complete the active/passive head shake

A

have the patients eyes under the goggles or eyes closed, shake the patients head back and forth and after 20 seconds ask them to open their eyes and not if any nystagmus is observed

59
Q

results of the active/passive head shake

A

normal : no post headshake nystagmus
abnormal : post headshake nystagmus present or enhanced post headshake nystagmus

60
Q

result pattern with the active/passive head shake

A

no pre and no post HS : balanced function
no pre but present post HS : unbalanced vestibular function
present pre and increased post HS : asymmetry but we made it greater, newer condition
present pre and present HS : central funding

61
Q

dynamic visual acuity (passive head rotation with snellen chart)

A

screens for oscillopsia that is a complaint often caused by vestibular loss
-looking at the VOR

62
Q

how to complete the dynamic visual acuity

A

have the patient a proper distance from eye chart and have them read the lowest line that they can, when completed shake the head back and forth and have the patient read the lowers line possible during the rotation
-observe the line change

63
Q

results of the dynamic visual acuity

A

normal : no line change or just a slight line change (normal VOR function)
abnormal : having a line change of 2 or greater (no laterality)

64
Q

nystagmus

A

involuntary rhythmic oscillation of the eye with many different types and description
-can be either pathological or physiological

65
Q

slow phase

A

describes the magnitude of the nystagmus
-generated by the vestibular system, driven by the ears
-occurs within 5 to 10 msec

66
Q

fast phase

A

describes the direction of the nystagmus
-generated by the central system, driven by the CNS
-occurs within 70 msec

67
Q

how can we assess nystagmus

A

oculography with VNGs, rotational tests, head thrust or vHIT

68
Q

nystagmus will beat __________ a stimulated ear and __________ from an inhibited ear

A

towards ; away

69
Q

nystagmus will generally beat _______ from the impacted side

70
Q

with unilateral damage, there will be a weak side and there is no ability to have excitation resulting in ….

A

perceived spinning
-the strong side drives the vestibular activity against the weak side

71
Q

with bilateral and equal vestibular deficits the patient would not perceive vertigo but would more often complain about …

A

feeling off balance
-therefore the patient would not have nystagmus based on asymmetry

72
Q

pendular nystagmus

A

speed of motion is the same in both directions, appearing sinusoidal
-identifying the speed by cycles per second (magnitude)

73
Q

jerk nystagmus

A

speed of motion is seen within a slow and fast phase, moving opposite of each other
-identifying the speed by the slope

74
Q

with a central lesion, how does the nystagmus typically change with a fixation

A

will either stay the same or become enhanced

75
Q

with a peripheral lesion, how does the nystagmus typically change with a fixation

A

will decrease

76
Q

downbeating nystagmus

A

fast phase is down and the slow phase is going up

77
Q

upbeating nystagmus

A

fast phase is up and the slow phase is going down

78
Q

alexander’s law

A

a enhancement of nystagmus when the patient looks the same way of the beating and then a decrease or elimination in the opposite way
-the patient needs to have central gaze nystagmus for this to occur

79
Q

alexander’s law is typically seen in the ______ stages of vestibular disorders

80
Q

torsional or rotary nystagmus

A

the eyes rotate about the central axis of the globe
-pure torsional is a sign of central but if seen within positional testing indicates a more peripheral finding

81
Q

gaze evoked nystagmus

A

elicited by the attempt to maintain an ecentric gaze
-becomes present when you move the eyes away from the center gaze
-will observe a corrective saccade

82
Q

acquired jerk nystagmus

A

the intensity of nystagmus increases with gaze towards the fast phase and decreases or reverses directions upon gaze in the direction of the slow phase

83
Q

physiologic (end point) nystagmus

A

occurs when the patient is asked to stare at a target out on the side for 30 seconds or more, causing the eyes to be tired and therefore resulting in nystagmus
-occurs with gazes that are too wide and too long

84
Q

what are three types of nystagmus that are considered normal

A

fatigue nystagmus, unstained end point nystagmus and sustained end point nystagmus

85
Q

geotropic nystagmus

A

beating towards the floor

86
Q

ageotropic nystagmus

A

beating away from the floor

87
Q

what are the three eye recording techniques

A

electro-oculography (ENG/EOG), infrared video oculography (VOG/VNG) and scleral search coils

88
Q

electro-oculography (ENG/EOG)

A

we are recording the corneo-retinal potential (CRP)
-this potenital is altered when the eyes look in either direction

89
Q

reasoning of the electro-oculography (ENG/EOG)

A

the eye has dipolar orientation and the retina is negatively polarized causing a steady electrical potential field that can be detected if the eyes are closed or in darkness
-with any rotation of the eye, it will bring a change of polarity which is recorded
-therefore the relative voltage difference caused by the eye movement provides the basis of the EOG

90
Q

any eye movement to the right will cause a recording to deflect ________ ; any eye movement to the left will cause a recording to deflect _________

A

upward ; downward

91
Q

infrared video oculography (VOG/VNG)

A

uses pupil localization technology and the reflective nature of the corneal surface to calculate the pupil location and angle
-the goggles contain the infrared diode to illuminate the eyes

92
Q

scleral search coils

A

coils that are embedded into a tightly fitted contact lens or a rubber ring that adheres to the eye
-there are alternating magnetic fields that are generated by magnets positioned around the eye and through electromagnetic induction

93
Q

with any vestibular testing, what it is a test of

A

function rather than strucure

94
Q

what is the purpose of a vestibular assessment

A

to determine if the symptoms are caused by the inner ear, brain or both

95
Q

what are pre-test instructions for a VNG

A

patients are refrained from taking certain medications for at least 12 hours prior, refrained from drinking alcoholic beverages, not eating a big meal prior, wear comfortable clothing and to remove eye makeup for testing

96
Q

why are medications often asked to not be consumed before a VNG

A

some medications can interfere with the accuracy of the recording and some pain medications can cause drowsiness impacting the recording

97
Q

what are the components of a vestibular case history that we are wanting to ask

A

description, timing, frequency, provoking factors, associated symptoms, any other medical history, medications and other relevant topics in regards to the patient

98
Q

the most common test for evaluation of dizziness if the ENG/VNG, what are the components of this testing

A

oculomotor evaluation, positional/positioning evaluation and caloric irrigation

99
Q

BPPV

A

the most common cause of vertigo in the elderly and the most common cause of vertigo that we see in all patients
-based on the movement of otoconia
-2 potential causes canalithiasis and cupulolithiasis

100
Q

canalithiasis

A

otoconia are moving freely in the endolymph
-will see a delayed onset with fatigue over time

101
Q

cupulolithiasis

A

otoconia get stick to the cupula
-will show immediate onset with little to no fatigue over time

102
Q

in order to diagnosis BPPV, what criteria must be present

A

latency (beginning 1 or more seconds after head tilt), duration of at least 1 minute, linear rotational nystagmus, reversal observed when sitting and fatiguability over time

103
Q

mechanisms of BPPV

A

otoconia become detached from their otoconial layer by degeneration or head trauma or viral infection and they become settled into the SCCs
-this results in gravity sensitive organs to be in a place of acceleration movement causing the symptoms

104
Q

what is the most common canal to have BPPV with, what is the least common

A

posterior ; anterior

105
Q

if BPPV is bilateral, how do we classify it

A

on the worse side