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Midterm Flashcards

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1
Q

In the case of Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceutical, Inc., the U.S. Supreme Court advocated that a “gatekeeper” determines the admissibility and reliability of scientific evidence. This gatekeeper is the:

a) prosecutor
b) expert witness
c) jury
d) trial judge

A

d) trial judge

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2
Q

The current system of crime laboratories in the United States can be best described as:

a) centralized
b) decentralized
c) regional
d) national

A

b) decentralized

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3
Q

The scientific method requires that scientific evidence be validated by:

a) formulating hypotheticals
b) performing experiments
c) formulating pertinent questions
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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4
Q

A crime scene which involved the collapse of a structure would be analyzed by specialists in the area of:

a) forensic computer and digital analysis
b) forensic engineering
c) criminalistics
d) forensic error analysis

A

b) forensic engineering

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5
Q

Which unit is responsible for the examination of body fluids and organs for the presence of drugs and poisons?

a) physical science unit
b) evidence collection unit
c) biology unit
d) toxicology unit

A

d) toxicology unit

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6
Q

The lay witness provides testimony that relies on:

a) personal opinions
b) scientific education
c) personal knowledge
d) scientific experience

A

c) personal knowledge

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7
Q

Who undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints as a method of personal identification?

a) Lattes
b) Galton
c) Goddard
d) Gross

A

b) Galton

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8
Q

Specially trained personnel called ___ are employed by some crime laboratories on 24-hour call to retrieve evidence and have all the proper tools and supplies for proper collection and packaging of evidence at their disposal.

a) Evidence officers
b) Forensic pathologists
c) Crime scene investigators
d) Evidence technicians

A

d) Evidence technicians

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9
Q

The judicial case that set forth the most current guidelines for determining the admissibility of scientific examinations in the federal courts is:

a) Mapp v. the United States
b) Coppolino v. State of Florida
c) Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals
d) Frye v. United States

A

c) Daubert v. Merrel Dow Pharmaceuticals

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10
Q

The necessity for the forensic scientist to appear in court comes from the U.S. Supreme Court case:

a) Frye v. United States
b) Melendez-Diaz v. Massachusetts
c) Crawford v. Washington
d) Coppolino v. State

A

B) Melendez-Diaz v. Massachusetts

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11
Q

Which of the following services are typically provided to law enforcement by crime laboratories?

a) Psychology
b) Criminalistics
c) Pathology
d) Odontology

A

b) Criminalistics

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12
Q

The concept of “general acceptance” of scientific evidence relates to the:

a) First Amendment
b) Miranda warnings
c) Exclusionary rule
d) Frye standard

A

d) Frye standard

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13
Q

Which would NOT be included in the work of the biology unit of a crime lab?

a) DNA profiling
b) Comparison of hairs
c) Blood typing
d) Fingerprint analysis

A

d) Fingerprint analysis

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14
Q

The final evaluator of forensic evidence is the:

a) Jury
b) Police
c) Prosecutor
d) Accused

A

a) Jury

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15
Q

What is the LEAST important consideration in the gathering of evidence at a crime scene?

a) Proper recognition of the evidence
b) Guilt of the suspect
c) Adequate preservation of samples
d) Competent collection of materials

A

b) Guilt of the suspect

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16
Q

Forensic science is the application of science to:

a) Crime scene reconstruction
b) Civil laws
c) Criminal laws
d) Both criminal and civil laws

A

d) Both criminal and civil laws

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT true? An expert witness must be able to demonstrate:

a) A formal degree in forensic science
b) Education in his/her area of expertise
c) Skill in trade or profession of interest to the court
d) Significant experience in a relevant field

A

a) A formal degree in forensic science

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18
Q

Which entity maintains the largest crime laboratory in the world?

a) Royal Canadian Mounted Police
b) ATF
c) Scotland Yard
d) FBI

A

d) FBI

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19
Q

It is the responsibility of the forensic investigator to determine innocence or guilt. T/F

A

False

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20
Q

The exchange of evidence principle was theorized by:

a) Locard
b) Osborn
c) Galton
d) Gross

A

a) Locard

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21
Q

What factor(s) do(es) the court usually take into consideration as sufficient grounds for qualification as an expert witness?

a) Experience
b) Training
c) Education
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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22
Q

Who is known as the “father of forensic toxicology”?

a) Lattes
b) Locard
c) Orfila
d) Osburn

A

c) Orfila

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23
Q

Which of the following can be rightfully cited as an explanation for the rapid growth of crime labs during the last 40 years?

a) Supreme Court decisions in the 1960s
b) Advent of DNA profiling
c) Staggering increase in crime rates in the United States
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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24
Q

Who developed the system known as anthropometry?

a) Bertillon
b) Galton
c) Gross
d) Goddard

A

a) Bertillon

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25
Q

Which unit applies principles and techniques of chemistry, physics, and geology to the identification and comparison of crime scene evidence?

a) Physical science
b) Biology
c) Toxicology
d) Forensic geology

A

a) Physical science

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26
Q

The need to prevent the immediate loss or destruction of evidence is justification for a warrantless search. T/F

A

True

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27
Q

The crime scene notes must accurately record:

a) Personnel arrivals and departures from the scene
b) The tasks assigned each investigator
c) Description of evidence present at the crime scene
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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28
Q

Physical evidence may be obtained from:

a) The victim
b) The suspect
c) The crime scene
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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29
Q

Charred debris form an arson scene should be:

a) Placed together with similar items in a paper bag
b) Aired out before packing in plastic wrap
c) Placed in Ziploc bags
d) Packaged in airtight glass jars

A

d) Packaged in airtight glass jars

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30
Q

After providing or obtaining medical assistance for the injured and effecting an arrest of suspects (if possible), the first officer arriving at a crime scene should immediately:

a) Secure the scene
b) Make a rough sketch of the scene
c) Search for evidence
d) Take notes

A

a) Secure the scene

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31
Q

The location of an item of evidence on a crime scene sketch is shown by its distance from points of reference that:

a) Can be transported to the crime laboratory
b) Are fixed or immovable
c) Are located outside the boundaries of the crime scene
d) Are within ten feet of the item

A

b) Are fixed or immovable

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31
Q

The first responding officer must make attempts at the crime scene to detain and question:

a) Suspects
b) Media personnel
c) Witnesses
d) Both suspects and witnesses

A

d) Both suspects and witnesses

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31
Q

The police are NOT required to obtain a search warrant if they are:

a) Unable to locate a judge to issue a warrant
b) Investigating a fellow officer
c) In the process of a legal arrest
d) Certain the suspect is guilty

A

c) In the process of a legal arrest

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32
Q

Warrantless searches are permitted under law in all of the following situations EXCEPT:

a) The existence of emergency circumstances
b) The consent of the parties involved
c) The injury or death of a police officer or law enforcement employee
d) The need to prevent the immediate loss of evidence

A

c) The injury or death of a police officer or law enforcement employee

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33
Q

From the choices below, select the one correct physical evidence collection procedure.

a) The victim’s clothing should be obtained at the crime scene and vacuumed to obtain trace evidence
b) Items recovered from the scene of a murder should be sent along with the body to the medical examiner
c) Bloodstained garments should be packaged separately in paper bags
d) All items collected from the same grid area should be packaged together

A

c) Bloodstained garments should be packaged separately in paper bags

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34
Q

Which statement about notetaking is NOT true?

a) Notetaking is done after all crime scene processing has been completed
b) Notes should include location of physical evidence recovered
c) Disposition of items after collection must be included
d) The individual who packaged and marked items of evidence should be recorded

A

a) Notetaking is done after all crime scene processing has been completed

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35
Q

Which type of evidence must be packaged separately from other evidence?

a) Biological stain evidence
b) DNA-containing evidence
c) Arson evidence
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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36
Q

The collection of standard reference samples at the crime scene is important because they:

a) Permit comparisons to be made with the evidence
b) Serve as a source of extra test material if required in the crime lab
c) Are obtained only from suspects in cases of violent assault
d) All of the above

A

a) Permit comparisons to be made with the evidence

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37
Q

A warrantless search is never justified. T/F

A

False

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38
Q

A victim’s fingernail scrapings would be correctly packaged in:

a) A druggist fold
b) A plastic Ziploc bag
c) Sealed, airtight containers
d) Both B and C

A

a) A druggist fold

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39
Q

When biological samples of unknown origin are discovered at a crime scene, investigators:

a) Should package them in plastic bags
b) Should assume pathogens are present and treat the sample as such
c) Should allow only trained hazardous material teams to handle the evidence
d) Should assume no pathogens are present and treat the samples as such

A

b) Should assume pathogens are present and treat the sample as such

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40
Q

The officer charged with protecting the scene has the authority to exclude fellow officers. T/F

A

True

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41
Q

The initial survey of the crime scene carried out by the lead investigator is called:

a) The spiral search
b) The crime scene search
c) The walk through
d) The initial survey

A

c) The walk through

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42
Q

The size and location of the crime scene, as well as the events that occurred there, will determine:

a) The amount of care that must be taken during the crime scene search
b) The time at which the crime scene is searched
c) The kind of evidence that will be missing
d) The kind of search pattern that is used to locate the evidence

A

d) The kind of search pattern that is used to locate the evidence

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43
Q

The successful outcome of a criminal investigation is almost always directly related to:

a) The number of people employed in the crime lab
b) The volume of physical evidence collected
c) The manner in which the evidence is collected and preserved
d) Whether the crime is considered high-profile

A

c) The manner in which the evidence is collected and preserved

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44
Q

Evidence may be moved only after investigators have documented its location and appearance in notes, sketches, and photographs. T/F

A

True

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45
Q

The conditions at a crime scene can be compromised by all of the following actions EXCEPT:

a) Taking photographs at the crime scene
b) Adjusting the temperature of the crime scene
c) Turning the faucet on at the crime scene
d) Eating food at the crime scene

A

a) Taking photographs at the crime scene

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46
Q

The removal of any evidence from a person or from the scene of a crime must be done in conformity with the privileges of which amendment to the Constitution?

a) Sixth
b) First
c) Fifth
d) Fourth

A

d) Fourth

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47
Q

The obligation to maintain the integrity of evidence belongs to the first police officer at the scene only. T/F

A

False

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48
Q

Physical evidence at a hit-and-run scene could include:

a) Fabric impressions
b) Glass fragments
c) Fiber and tissue
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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49
Q

Determining that an explosive mixture contains dynamite is an example of the process of:

a) Class characterization
b) Individualization
c) Identification
d) Comparison

A

c) Identification

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50
Q

The greatest weakness of class evidence is that examiners cannot assign exact or even approximate probability values to the comparison of most class evidence. T/F

A

True

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51
Q

Physical evidence is considered to have ___ that of eyewitness (testimonial) evidence

a) Less value than
b) Not comparable to
c) The same value as
d) Greater value than

A

d) Greater value than

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52
Q

Eyewitness testimony and confessions are not as susceptible to dispute, human error, or bias as class evidence. T/F

A

False

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53
Q

Physical evidence can be used to exonerate or exclude a person from suspicion if:

a) Evidence taken from suspect is obtained voluntarily
b) It is collected in accordance with the Fourth Amendment
c) It does not have a well-documented chain of custody
d) The standard reference sample (control) from the person does not share characteristics with evidence at the crime scene

A

d) The standard reference sample (control) from the person does not share characteristics with the evidence at the crime scene

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54
Q

Class characteristics are properties of evidence that can be attributed to a common source with an extremely high degree of certainty. T/F

A

False

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55
Q

Evidence having class characteristics can:

a) Always be fitted together in the manner of a jigsaw puzzle
b) Have no evidential value
c) Link a person to person to a crime with a high degree of certainty
d) Exonerate an innocent suspect

A

d) Exonerate an innocent suspect

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56
Q

Paint chips, random glass fragments, and synthetic fibers all exhibit:

a) Class characteristics
b) Identification characteristics
c) Individual characteristics
d) Comparison characteristics

A

a) Class characteristics

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57
Q

As the number of objects linking an individual to a crime scene increases, so does the likelihood of that individual’s involvement with the crime. T/F

A

True

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58
Q

CODIS is maintained by the FBI and thus does not enable local crime laboratories to electronically exchange and compare DNA profiles. T/F

A

False

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59
Q

A component of the National Integrated Ballistics Information Network is called:

a) CODIS
b) PDQ
c) IBIS
d) Both a and b

A

c) IBIS

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60
Q

Identification is the process of determining a substance’s physical or chemical identity. T/F

A

True

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61
Q

Bloodstains only have class characteristics. T/F

A

False

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62
Q

Most items of physical evidence retrieved at crime scenes can be linked definitively to a single person or object. T/F

A

False

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63
Q

Which of the following is a national fingerprint and criminal history system maintained by the FBI and launched in 1999?

a) NIBIN
b) PDQ
c) IAFIS
d) SICAR

A

c) IAFIS

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64
Q

Class evidence is not unique and therefore not useful to forensic scientists. T/F

A

False

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65
Q

It is a duty of the forensic scientist to draw a conclusion about the origins of the specimens. T/F

A

True

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66
Q

Forensic databases are maintained for all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Dental impressions
b) Fingerprints
c) DNA
d) Automotive paint

A

a) Dental impressions

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67
Q

Evidence with individual characteristics can lead to a determination of common origin (single source). Which type of evidence CANNOT yield such results?

a) Wear patterns on tires
b) Random striations on tools
c) Single layer paints
d) Fingerprints

A

c) Single layer paints

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68
Q

The computerized database used to store DNA information is:

a) NIBIN
b) CODIS
c) Drugfire
d) AFIS

A

b) CODIS

69
Q

The jury ultimately determines the significance of physical evidence in a trial. T/F

A

True

70
Q

The Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) became fully operational in what year?

a) 1978
b) 1991
c) 1999
d) 1998

A

d) 1998

71
Q

The “jigsaw fit” of known and questioned fragments is important for court presentation primarily because:

a) This method will definitely demonstrate common origin when a match is made
b) Courts and juries are too nonscientific to understand it any other way
c) Instrumental analysis is too complicated to nontechnical juries
d) It is a quick way of demonstrating how the object broke.

A

a) This method will definitely demonstrate common origin when a match is made

72
Q

The likelihood of finding class physical evidence is ___ the likelihood of finding physical evidence with individual characteristics.

a) Less than
b) Not comparable to
c) Greater than
d) The same as

A

c) Greater than

73
Q

A comparison analysis subjects a suspect specimen and a control specimen to the same tests and examinations for the ultimate purpose of determining:

a) If they are identical of in chemical comparison
b) Whether or not they have a common origin
c) If the same person handled them
d) If they are alike in molecular structure

A

b) Whether or not they have a common origin

74
Q

Time of death can be approximated by analyzing the vitreous humor and the levels of:

a) Calcium
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium

A

c) Potassium

75
Q

Evidence of tampering with the position of a body after death can be obtained by evaluating the:

a) Algor mortis
b) Livor mortis
c) Rigor mortis
d) Both b and c

A

d) Both b and c

76
Q

Beginning an hour after death, the body will lose heat at an approximate rate of:

a) 0-0.5°F per hour
b) 1.5-2°F per hour
c) 1-1.5°F per hour
d) 0.5-1°F per hour

A

c) 1-1.5°F per hour

77
Q

Which is NOT a manner of death?

a) Natural
b) Drowning
c) Homicide
d) Suicide

A

b) Drowning

78
Q

A pathologist would expect rigor mortis to disappear after ___ hours

a) 36
b) 48
c) 12
d) 24

A

a) 36

79
Q

Defense wounds are most typically seen on the:

a) Shins
b) Back
c) Face
d) Hands

A

d) Hands

80
Q

Rigor mortis refers to the:

a) Color of death
b) Time of death
c) Temperature of death
d) Stiffness of death

A

d) Stiffness of death

81
Q

Characteristic markings on the skin caused from the discharge of a firearm are known as:

a) Staining
b) Stippling
c) Tattooing
d) Both b and c

A

d) Both b and c

82
Q

The stage of fusion of various bones within a skeleton can be used to estimate the ___ of decedent.

a) Race
b) Age
c) Sex
d) Occupation

A

b) Age

83
Q

What part of the victim’s body is often bagged in order to prevent loss of trace evidence?

a) Feet
b) Head
c) Hands
d) No part of the body is bagged

A

c) Hands

84
Q

Homicide, suicide, accident, natural, and undetermined are all categories of:

a) Manner of death
b) Mechanism of death
c) Cause of death
d) Method of death

A

a) Manner of death

85
Q

The collection of evidence from a “tomb” site by a forensic anthropologist must include:

a) A search of the surrounding area for related evidence
b) A thorough documentation of the site and all evidence
c) A careful recovery of all visible remains
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

86
Q

Which should be performed first at a death scene?

a) Secure the scene
b) Sketch
c) Collect evidence
d) Photographs

A

a) Secure the scene

87
Q

Which factors can help determine if a victim was alive during a fire?

a) Soot
b) Extent of burns on the body
c) Levels of carbon monoxide in the body
d) Both a and c

A

d) Both a and c

88
Q

Insect evidence should be collected:

a) At the scene by a forensic entomologist or trained investigator
b) Upon the finding of the decedent by the first responding officer
c) At the crime laboratory by forensic analysts
d) During the autopsy by the medical examiner

A

a) At the scene by a forensic entomologist or trained investigator

89
Q

Toxicological specimens are taken at which stage of death investigation?

a) Anytime
b) Internal examination
c) External examination
d) Death scene

A

b) Internal examination

90
Q

Death intentionally caused by another person is typically ruled:

a) A homicide
b) A suicide
c) Natural
d) An accident

A

a) A homicide

91
Q

Estimations of the postmortem interval (PMI) using entomological evidence must take into account:

a) Weather conditions
b) The locations climate over time
c) The geographical location of the decedent’s body
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

92
Q

Putrefaction and autolysis are two types of _____ processes.

a) Decomposition
b) Rigor mortis
c) Livor mortis
d) Algor mortis

A

a) Decomposition

93
Q

According to forensic entomologists, which “witness” is the first to arrive at the crime scene?

a) Blow fly
b) Carrion beetle
c) Mite
d) Spider

A

a) Blow fly

94
Q

A sharp force injury will most likely come from a:

a) Glass piece
b) Cinder block
c) Baseball bat
d) Hammer

A

a) Glass piece

95
Q

Lividity can be expected to be fixed after _____ hours

a) 4
b) 16
c) 2
d) 24

A

b) 16

96
Q

A body that displays a cherry-red discoloration might lead a pathologist to suspect poisoning by:

a) Cyanic acid
b) Arsenic
c) Pesticides
d) Carbon monoxide

A

d) Carbon monoxide

97
Q

Which of the following techniques can be used to estimate the time of death?

a) Eye fluid potassium levels
b) Livor mortis
c) Rigor mortis
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

98
Q

Which can be used in making an identification of a deceased individual?

a) Fingerprinting
b) Dental examination
c) Facial reconstruction
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

99
Q

Droplets of ____ are very small. They may not travel far and could be overlooked.

a) High-velocity spatter
b) Medium-velocity spatter
c) Transfer patterns
d) Low-velocity spatter

A

a) High-velocity spatter

100
Q

The skeletonized perimeter of a bloodstain can be used to interpret:

a) The kind of force that produced the bloodstain
b) The source of the original bloodstain
c) The time that elapsed between deposition of the stain and alteration of the stain
d) Both b and c

A

d) Both b and c

101
Q

A blood stain that impacts a surface at a low angle will have a ____ tail than one that impacts at a higher angle

a) Longer
b) Shorter
c) Narrower
d) Wider

A

a) Longer

102
Q

By counting and pairing the patterns of a(n) ____ pattern, an investigator can estimate the minimum number of blows inflicted upon a victim

a) Impact
b) Void
c) Cast-off
d) Arterial spray

A

c) Cast-off

103
Q

An impact pattern consisting of large separate drops with diameters of 5 millimeters is:

a) Medium-velocity spatter
b) Low-velocity spatter
c) High-velocity spatter
d) Both a and b

A

b) Low-velocity spatter

104
Q

The velocity classification of an impact spatter pattern:

a) Is never used for descriptive purposes
b) Can determine the kind of action that produced the pattern
c) Cannot illuminate the specific events that produced the pattern
d) Can only be determined by a trained bloodstain pattern

A

c) Cannot illuminate the specific events that produced the pattern

105
Q

Proper location and documentation of bloodstain patterns at the crime scene is the responsibility of:

a) All crime scene personnel
b) Criminalistics and specialists
c) The lead investigator
d) A bloodstain analysis specialist

A

a) All crime scene personnel

106
Q

The ____ of a bloodstain pattern in a three-dimensional space illustrates the position of the victim or suspect when the stain-producing event took place

a) Void
b) Area of convergence
c) Directionality
d) Area of origin

A

d) Area of origin

107
Q

The pointed end of a bloodstain always faces:

a) Its direction of travel
b) Toward the position of the blood source
c) Toward the direction from which the force came
d) Opposition its direction of travel

A

a) Its direction of travel

108
Q

The most common type of bloodstain pattern found at a crime scene is:

a) Cast-off spatter
b) Void spatter
c) Arterial spray
d) Impact spatter

A

d) Impact spatter

109
Q

Rough surfaces usually result in stains with:

a) Satellite spatter
b) Back spatter
c) Forward spatter
d) Blow-back spatter

A

a) Satellite spatter

110
Q

Physical evidence that can be used to aid in a crime scene reconstruction includes:

a) Gunshot resides
b) Glass fragments
c) Blood spatters
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

111
Q

Widely spaced bloody shoeprints with satellite spatter between the shoeprints were likely deposited by an individual who was:

a) Running
b) Carrying a bloody weapon
c) Standing in place
d) Walking slowly

A

a) Running

112
Q

Setting up a rectangular border of rulers around the patterns and then placing a small ruler next to each stain describes:

a) Grid method
b) Stake method
c) String method
d) Perimeter ruler method

A

d) Perimeter rule method

113
Q

In the grid method of bloodstain documentation, a grid of squares of known dimensions is created over an entire pattern in order to:

a) Prevent contamination of the bloodstains
b) Collect bloodstains for delivery to the laboratory
c) Show the relative sizes of bloodstains in photographs
d) All of the above

A

c) Show the relative sizes of bloodstains in photographs

114
Q

Crime scene reconstruction requires the piecing together of:

a) Input from the medical examiner
b) Accounts given by witnesses and suspects
c) The story told by evidence recovered at the crime scene
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

115
Q

A blood droplet deposited at an angle of impact of about 90° (directly vertical to the surface) will:

a) Be approximately circular in shape
b) Show acute elongation
c) Be elliptical in shape
d) Feature a tail showing the directionality

A

a) Be approximately circular in shape

116
Q

The amount of spatter from a blood droplet falling on a hard, non-porous surface is ____ that of a drop of blood of equal size, falling from the same distance, onto a softer, porous surface.

a) Less than
b) Not comparable to
c) The same as
d) Greater than

A

a) Less than

117
Q

Pools of blood are not reliable to use in reconstruction or determining the amount of time that had elapsed since the blood was deposited. T/F

A

False

118
Q

The pressure of the pumping of oxygenated blood out of an injury causes bright, red-colored blood to spurt out and form a(n):

a) Void pattern
b) Arterial spray pattern
c) Expirated pattern
d) Both b and c

A

b) Arterial spray pattern

119
Q

What should one surmise if a flow found on an object or body does not appear consistent with the direction of gravity?

a) The object or body was moved after the blood had dried
b) The object or body was not moved
c) The object or body was at a lower temperature than the blood
d) The object or body was within 5 feet of the blood source

A

a) The object or body was moved after the blood had dried

120
Q

Crime scene reconstruction involves the efforts of all EXCEPT the:

a) Police
b) Trial judge
c) Criminalist
d) Medical examiner

A

b) Trial judge

121
Q

The intersection of straight lines through the long axis of several individual bloodstains in an impact spatter patter illustrates the ____ of the pattern.

a) Area of origin
b) Area of convergence
c) Velocity classification
d) Void pattern

A

b) Area of convergence

122
Q

The direction of a ____ may show movements of objects or bodies while the pattern was still forming or after the blood has dried.

a) Bloodstain tail
b) Flow pattern
c) Trail pattern
d) Cast-off pattern

A

b) Flow pattern

123
Q

The deposition of backward spatter produced by a gunshot wound is determined by:

a) The location of the injury
b) The size of the wound created
c) The distance between the victim and muzzle
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

124
Q

Which color of the visible spectrum has the highest frequency and the shortest wavelength?

a) Yellow
b) Red
c) Violet
d) Green

A

c) Violet

125
Q

Stress marks on the edge of a radial crack near the point of impact are:

a) Perpendicular to the side of the glass facing outdoors
b) Perpendicular to the side on which the force was applied
c) Parallel to the side opposite the side on which the force was applied
d) Parallel to the side on which the force was applied

A

d) Parallel to the side on which the force was applied

126
Q

The smallest particle of an element that can exist and still retain its identity as that element is the:

a) Element
b) Photon
c) Compound
d) Atom

A

d) Atom

127
Q

Which is a true statement about the fracturing of glass?

a) Radial cracks appear first, starting on the side opposite the destructive force
b) Radical cracks form afterward, starting on the same side as the destructive force
c) Concentric fractures form first, on the same side as the destructive
d) Concentric fractures form first, starting on the side opposite the destructive force

A

a) Radial cracks appear first, starting on the side opposite the destructive force

128
Q

____ is the visual effect caused by an object’s absorption of certain portions of the visible light spectrum and transmission or reflection of others.

a) Color
b) Refractive index
c) Dispersion
d) Density

A

a) Color

129
Q

A hot-stage microscope or the GRIM 3 is used to determine the ___ of glass fragments.

a) Temperature
b) Relative density
c) Metallic oxide content
d) Refractive index

A

d) Refractive index

130
Q

Which is NOT an intensive property of matter?

a) Boiling Temp
b) Refractive index
c) Density
d) Weight

A

d) Weight

131
Q

The fracture pattern of glass usually has:

a) Concentric lines
b) Radial and concentric lines
c) Directional lines
d) Radial lines

A

b) Radial and concentric lines

132
Q

When tempered glass breaks, it does not shatter. T/F

A

True

133
Q

The only way to individualize glass fragments at a crime scene to a single source is to assemble the fragments and physically fit them together like a jigsaw puzzle. T/F

A

True

134
Q

Glass fragments removed from a single sheet of plate glass have a uniform density or refractive index value. T/F

A

False

135
Q

Tempered glass is used in:

a) Crystal stemware
b) Both b and c
c) Windshields in autos manufactured in the United States
d) The side and rear windows of autos manufactured in the United States

A

d) The side and rear windows of auto manufactured in the United States

136
Q

Flotation is a method used by scientists to determine the ____ of a particle of glass.

a) Mass
b) Refractive index
c) Weight
d) Density

A

d) Density

137
Q

The photons of which source have the LEAST amount of energy?

a) Gamma rays
b) Radio waves
c) Microwaves
d) Infrared rays

A

b) Radio waves

138
Q

A(n) ____ property describes the behavior of a substance without reference to any other substance while a(n) _____ property describes the behavior of a substance when it reacts or combines with another substance

a) Optical; birefringent
b) Physical; chemical
c) Physical; biological
d) Chemical; biological

A

b) Physical; chemical

139
Q

When a bullet penetrates a panel of glass, it leaves a crater-shaped hole that:

a) Forms randomly and hence the direction of impact cannot be determined by its appearance
b) Either a or c
c) Is wider on the entrance side
d) Is wider on the exit side

A

d) Is wider on the exit side

140
Q

Pyrex glass:

a) Is laminated
b) Is made with the addition of boron oxide
c) Has been tempered
d) Is put through an annealing process

A

b) Is made with the addition of boron oxide

141
Q

What is the main ingredient in ordinary glass?

a) Sand
b) Lime (CaO)
c) Soda (NaCO)
d) Metal oxides

A

a) Sand

142
Q

The two most important physical properties of glass for forensic comparisons are:

a) Weight and density
b) Refractive index and density
c) Refractive index and weight
d) Color and density

A

b) Refractive index and density

143
Q

A piece of glass is immersed in a liquid. It proceeds to float on the liquid’s surface. This shows that the density of the glass is ____ the density of the liquid.

a) More than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Not comparable to

A

b) Less than

144
Q

A fracture always terminates at an existing line of fracture. T/F

A

True

145
Q

The 3R rules states that Radial cracks form a Right angle on the Reverse side of the force. T/F

A

True

146
Q

Eight inches is approximately ___ centimeters.

a) 10
b) 8
c) 20
d) 17

A

c) 20

147
Q

As the magnifying power of the compound microscope increases the depth of focus:

a) Becomes less focused
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Increases

A

b) Decreases

148
Q

Which microscope provides a right-side up image?

a) Polarizing
b) Compound
c) Stereoscopic
d) Comparison

A

c) Stereoscopic

149
Q

Which microscope is most likely to be used as a tool for determining whether or not a suspect has recently fired a gun?

a) SEM
b) Comparison
c) Stereoscopic
d) Polarizing

A

a) SEM

150
Q

Which microscope is best suited to the study of birefringent minerals and fibers?

a) Polarizing
b) Microspectrophotometer
c) Stereoscopic
d) Comparison

A

a) Polarizing

151
Q

The image produced by an SEM is initially displayed on:

a) A cathode ray tube
b) An X-ray analyzer
c) An X-ray film
d) Photographic

A

a) A cathode ray tube

152
Q

The microscope that provides the highest resolution and greatest depth of focus is the:

a) Compound
b) Stereoscopic
c) Comparison
d) SEM

A

d) SEM

153
Q

Which type of pollen is rarely deposited on objects except by direct contact with the plant?

a) Entomophilous
b) Exine
c) Gametophyte
d) Anemophilous

A

a) Entomophilous

154
Q

The pattern of the pollen grain surface is called:

a) Pollen rain
b) Exine
c) Sculpturing
d) Apertures

A

c) Sculpturing

155
Q

A parfocal microscope:

a) Has two ocular lenses
b) Requires a polarized light source
c) Allows for ease of focusing when switching from low to high power
d) Eliminates the need to stain the specimen to be viewed

A

c) Allows for ease of focusing when switching from low to high power

156
Q

The most important tool of the firearms examiner is the:

a) Polarizing microscope
b) Comparison microscope
c) Compound microscope
d) Stereoscopic microscope

A

b) Comparison microscope

157
Q

____ are used to focus the SEM (scanning electron microscope).

a) Magnets
b) Analyzers
c) Polarizers
d) Lenses

A

a) Magnets

158
Q

Which microscope plots an absorption spectrum of the item under the examination?

a) Microspectrophotometer
b) Stereoscopic
c) Polarizing
d) Comparison

A

a) Microspectrophotometer

159
Q

Palynology is the study of:

a) Insects
b) Fish
c) Birds
d) Spores

A

d) Spores

160
Q

A compound microscope is equipped with two objective lenses (10x and 45x) and has a 10x ocular lens. The highest magnification attainable with this instrument is:

a) 65x
b) 100x
c) 650x
d) 450x

A

d) 450x

161
Q

The condenser of a compound microscope is located:

a) Between the coarse and fine adjustments
b) Within the body tube
c) Beneath the stage
d) At the base

A

c) Beneath the stage

162
Q

As the magnification of the compound is increased, the field of view:

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Becomes more focused
d) Stays the same

A

a) Decreases

163
Q

A transparent specimen is viewed through a microscope using ___ light while an opaque object requires ____ illumination.

a) Confocal; transmitted
b) Transmitted; vertical
c) Transmitted; stereoscopic
d) Vertical; horizontal

A

b) Transmitted; vertical

164
Q

Which microscope has the largest potential working distance?

a) Comparison
b) Stereoscopic
c) Compound
d) Polarizing

A

b) Stereoscopic

165
Q

Normally with a polarizing microscope, the polarizer and analyzer are set:

a) So that maximum plane polarized light can reach the eyepiece
b) So that they are in constant motion
c) Parallel to each other
d) Perpendicular to each other

A

d) Perpendicular to each other

166
Q

What instrument can be used to view a single fiber found at a crime scene and identify its generic class?

a) Polarizing microscope
b) Stereoscopic microscope
c) Infrared microspectrophotometer
d) Both a and c

A

d) Both a and c

167
Q

When the SEM’s primary electron beam bombards a specimen, it causes the emission of:

a) X-rays from the target
b) Electrons from the elements of the upper layer of the specimen
c) Gamma rays from the target
d) Both a and b

A

d) Both a and b

168
Q

If crystals of unknown origin are viewed under a polarizing microscope and appear dark, what can be concluded about the crystals?

a) The crystals are not heroin crystals
b) The crystals are colorless
c) The crystals are polarizing
d) The crystals are non-polarizing

A

d) The crystals are non-polarizing

169
Q

The infrared microspectrophotometer is used to analyze fibers and paints. T/F

A

True

170
Q

A microscope with which light source, when linked to a spectrophotometer, will provide a “fingerprint” spectrum of the object being viewed?

a) Visible
b) Plane polarized
c) UV (ultraviolet)
d) IR (infrared)

A

d) IR (infrared)

171
Q

A comparison microscope designed to examine bullets and fibers is equipped with:

a) Vertical illumination
b) Transmitted illumination
c) Oblique illumination
d) Both a and b

A

d) Both a and b

Forensic Science (1 decks)

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