Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Clinical significance of pale yellow urine?

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Clinical significance of straw-like colored urine?

A

Normal—dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Clinical significance of red colored urine

A

Blood in urine (hematuria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clinical significance of coca-cola colored urine

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clinical significance of orange (dark-amber) colored urine

A

Urobilinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clinical significance of green urine

A

Bile, bile pigments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clinical significance of sweet/fruity smelling urine

A

Ketone bodies—diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Clinical significance of ammonia smelling urine

A

Bacteria, urine retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clinical significance of foul smelling urine

A

Bacteriuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clinical significance of extremely turbid appearing urine

A

WBCs, mucus, bacteria, dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clinical significance of clear appearing urine

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the confirmatory test for ketone?

A

Ketostix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the confirmatory test for glucose?

A

Diastix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the confirmatory test for albumin/protein?

A

Albustix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the confirmatory test for bilirubin?

A

Icotest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What could a WBC cast be indicative of?

A

Acute pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What could the presence of RBC cast be indicative of?

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Greater than ______/HPF of RBCs is abnormal. List DDx

A

2; hematuria—nephrolisthiasis, acute glomerulonephritis, cystitis, renal infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Greater than ____/HPF of WBC is abnormal. List DDx

A

5; pyelonephritis, renal tuberculosis, cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are 2 reasons that a patient could have Stix negative for nitrites and still have a UTI?

A

Not all bacteria can reduce nitrates to nitrite, urine must be in bladder for at least 4 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can you tell functional proteinuria from organic proteinuria?

A

If the patient has other associated s/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are several causes of functional proteinuria?

A

High protein diet, orthostatic proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are 2 causes of increased specific gravity?

A

Dehydration, diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a cause of low specific gravity?

A

Over-hydration, diabetes insipidous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the significance of the level of epithelial cells in a UA?

A

Possible contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If a UA has trace ketonuria, how would you tell if it could be diabetes mellitus or not?

A

Presence/absence of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the renal threshold for glucose? What is the significance?

A

180 mg/100mL; if there is glucosuria, the blood glucose must be greater than 180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What pathognomonic formed element is most likely seen with pyelonephritis?

A

WBC cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What pathognomonic formed element is most likely seen with acute glomerulonephritis?

A

RBC cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of glucosuria?

A

Type II diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What UA findings would you expect to find in type I diabetes mellitus?

A

Glucosuria + ketonuria

32
Q

Normal specific gravity levels

A

1.005-1.030

33
Q

Normal urine pH

A

4.5-8.0

34
Q

What does low pH indicate?

A

Acidosis, fever, high protein diet

35
Q

What does high pH indicate?

A

Alkalosis, cystitis

36
Q

What is proteinuria mostly indicative of?

A

Renal disease

37
Q

Causes of ketones in urine

A

Type I diabetes mellitus, starvation

38
Q

What could cause a false negative results of hematuria?

A

High dose of vitamin C

39
Q

What causes nitrite in urine?

A

Gram negative bacteria, they can reduce nitrate to nitrite

40
Q

Causes of bilirubinuria

A

Cholelithiasis, biliary tract obstruction—conjugated bilirubin

41
Q

Best specimen of microscopic examination

A

First morning urination, midstream

42
Q

MC causes of RBCs on microscopic exam

A

Nephrolisthiasis, acute glomerulonephritis, cystitis, pyelonephritis

43
Q

Significance of WBC cast

A

Definite evidence that urinary WBCs originated from the kidney—pyelonephritis

44
Q

What specific chromosome abnormality is likely present in a patient with CML?

A

Philadelphia chromosome

45
Q

What management is appropriate to confirm diagnosis of CML?

A

Bone marrow biopsy

46
Q

What is the most likely cause of stomach bloating in a patient with CML?

A

Splenomegaly

47
Q

CBC findings for CML

A

Anemia, marked leukocytosis, thrombocytosis

48
Q

Compare/contrast CML and AML

A

CML: thrombocytosis, multiple myeloid precursors
AML: thrombocytopenia, myeloblasts w/ Auer Rod
Both: leukocytosis, anemia

49
Q

CBC findings for CLL

A

Anemia, leukocytosis with lymphocytosis, thrombocytopenia

50
Q

Characteristics cells of CLL

A

Smudge cells; monotonous lymphocytes

51
Q

Diagnostic triad for CLL

A

> 50 yoa
15,000 WBC
50% lymphocytes

52
Q

What is appropriate management for CLL?

A

Bone marrow biopsy

53
Q

CBC findings for viral infection

A

Leukopenia with lymphocytosis

54
Q

CBC findings for bacterial infection

A

Leukocytosis with neutrophilia

55
Q

What is the diagnostic triad for infectious mononucleosis?

A

Fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy

56
Q

What is the diagnostic triad for Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Fever, pruritis, lymphadenopathy

57
Q

What chiropractic maneuver should be avoided for patients with mono? Why?

A

Side posture and thoracics due to possible splenomegaly (dont want to rupture spleen)

58
Q

How long should a person with mono wait to return to sports?

A

4 weeks

59
Q

What s/s are indicative of lower respiratory tract infection?

A

Crackles on auscultation, chest pain, mucopurulent cough

60
Q

CBC findings for ALL

A

Anemia, leukocytosis, thrombopenia

61
Q

Characteristic cells of ALL

A

Lymphoblasts

62
Q

What age group is most commonly affected by ALL?

A

Pediatrics

63
Q

Characteristic cells of AML

A

Myeloblast with Auer Rod

64
Q

Characteristic cells of CML

A

Band neutrophils, myelocytes, metamyelocytes, promyelocytes, myeloblasts

65
Q

Etiology of PCV

A

Myeloproliferative disorder, blood hyperviscosity (thrombosis)

66
Q

CBC findings for PCV

A

Erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, leukocytosis

67
Q

EPO level in PCV

A

Decreased

68
Q

Etiology of secondary Erythrocytosis

A

Hypoxia (high altitude, congenital heart disease, chronic lung disease, smoking), renal tumor, testosterone

69
Q

CBC findings for secondary Erythrocytosis

A

Erythrocytosis, NL WBC, NL plts

70
Q

EPO level of secondary Erythrocytosis

A

Increased

71
Q

Etiology of relative Erythrocytosis

A

Dehydration (vomiting/diarrhea, severe burns, lack of water)
Low plasma levels

72
Q

CBC findings for relative Erythrocytosis

A

Erythrocytosis, NL WBC, NL plts

73
Q

EPO levels in relative Erythrocytosis

A

NL

74
Q

What complications could a patient with PCV experience?

A

Blood hyperviscosity leading to thrombosis

75
Q

What are the differentials for microcytosis?

A

Iron deficiency anemia, anemia of chronic disease, sideroblastic anemia, (thalassemia)

76
Q

What are the characteristic cells of Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Reed sternberg cells