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concepts 3 > midterm > Flashcards

midterm Flashcards

1
Q

nursing role in preoperative phase

A

Obtain health information

Determine pt’s expectations about procedure

Provide & clarify information about procedure

Assess pt’s emotional state & readiness

Provide discharge planning and postoperative teaching

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2
Q

preoperative assessment

A

before surgery to determine if there are any changes (baseline)

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3
Q

what is included in preoperative assessment

A

health assessment

history (medical conditions & current health challenges, previous surgeries, family history)

medications (herbal & vitamins)

substance use

allergies

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4
Q

purpose of preoperative screening

A

baseline, see if anything is happening to cause complications

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5
Q

common preoperative screening tests

A

Urine analysis, checking how the kidneys are working, UTIs,

chest xray (see if anything present that will make the surgery difficult),

CBC (complete blood count),

CPT (electrolytes and glucose),

INR PTT (how fast you can form clots) = important to know to determine if your body can clot to help the healing process,

ECG (checking out heart to make sure the heart is strong),

creatinine & gfr (tell us how the kidneys are functioning),

liver function tests

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6
Q

preoperative teaching

A

Nutrition (NPO – reduce the risk of aspiration & post-op nausea)(increase diet slowly),

breathing (deep breathing & coughing = important to facilitate lung expansion, encourages the gas exchange, and mucus movement, incentive spirometer, splinting to avoid damage incision),

grooming (special soap, shower, shaving if necessary, nails, polish, jewerly, dentures),

medications (what can they take day off – will be provided instructions),

pain control (what kind of pain they should expect, letting them know about pain management),

dressings & drains & tubes (what are they going to wake up with),

safety (call bell in reach, letting them know it may be difficult to get out of bed),

preoperative information (where they should park, where can family wait, how long it should take),

ambulation (compression stockings, leg exercises, mobilizing early = prevents the body from decom the muscles quickly)

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7
Q

informed consent

A

getting enough information to make a decision

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8
Q

aspects of informed consent

A
  • voluntary consent
  • capacity to consent
  • properly informing pt
  • advocating for pt
  • barries/ethical complications: language barriers, refuses
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9
Q

intraoperative phase

A

multi-disipline team

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10
Q

postoperative phase

A

post anaesthesic care unit (PACU)

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11
Q

what is the PACU

A

unit where the pt is under close and constant observation to make sure they are returning to normal physiological functioning (VS machine & IV ready)

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12
Q

initial post operative assessment

A

airway (patent, adventitious sounds?)

breathing (regular & easy)

circulation (VSS, warn & dry to touch, oozing/bleeding at site)

disability/neurological (LOC/cognition/orientation)

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13
Q

neurological postoperative complications

A

emergence delirium, delayed awakening

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14
Q

emergence delirium

A

acute confusion state during recovery from anesthesia

CAM test

safety

neurological assessments

bedrails

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15
Q

respiratory postop complications

A

obstruction, hypoxemia (atelectasis, pulmonary edema, aspiration), hypoventilation (breathing that is too shallow or too slow to meet the needs of the body = body’s carbon dioxide level rises.

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16
Q

cardio postop complications

A

hypotension, hypertension, dysrhythmias, DVT/PE, syncope, fluid & electrolyte imbalances (hypokalemia, overload)

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17
Q

GI postop complications

A

N & V (PONV = postop nausea & vomiting)

slowed GI motility

altered patterns of food intake

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18
Q

urinary postop complications

A

low urine output

acute urinary retention

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19
Q

integumentary postop complications

A

impaired wound healing

infections

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20
Q

temperature post op complications

A

hypothermia, fever

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21
Q

pain & discomfort postop

A

presence of internal devices, mobilization, incision

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22
Q

discharge instructions

A

Care of wound site & dressings

Bathing recommendations

Activities allowed & prohibited

Dietary restrictions or modifications

Symptoms to be reported

Follow-up care

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23
Q

purpose of MSE

A

overview of functioning, monitor changes over time, provides snapshot of how that person in that moment (holistic)

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24
Q

appearance

A

clothes, hair, tattoos, ethnicity, cultural background, piercings, age

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25
Q

behaviour

A

eye contact, gait, mobility, cooperation, attitude, dismissive, psychomotor activity, agitation

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26
Q

affect

A

physical representation of mood, reflection of thoughts & feelings (congruent/incongruent)

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27
Q

euthymic

A

as expected

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28
Q

speech

A

rhythm, volume, tone, pace

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29
Q

thought form

A

how they think

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30
Q

circumstantial

A

they eventually get to the point, give unnecessary details

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31
Q

tangential

A

never get to the point, keep talking about nothing to do with the point

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32
Q

flight of ideas

A

non goal directed, “takes off” from topic at hand, change topics quickly

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33
Q

loose associations

A

disintegration of meaningful connections between ideas occur, transitions b/w topics not logical connections b/w ideas

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34
Q

thought blocking

A

involuntary interruption of thought & speech

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35
Q

derailment

A

speech begins again after thought blocking

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36
Q

word salad

A

extreme form of loosened associations to the point the words have no connection to one another

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37
Q

thought content

A

what they are thinking

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38
Q

delusions

A

persecutory, grandiose, jealously, religious, obsession, phobias, ideas of reference

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39
Q

ideas of reference

A

false beliefs that random or irrelevant occurrences in the world directly relate to onesel

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40
Q

perception

A

hallucinations (auditory, tactile, visual, gustatory, olfactory, somatic)

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41
Q

cognitive functioning

A

memory, LOC, concentration, attention span, orientation

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42
Q

insight/judgement

A

insight = if they get whats going on, they understand the situation they are in

judgement = decision-making

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43
Q

shock

A

failure of circulatory system to maintain adequate perfusion of vital organs

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44
Q

if there is inadequate tissue perfusion…

A

decreased O2 at cellular level –> switch from aerobic to anaerobic cellular metabolism –> accumulation of waste products –> cell death

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45
Q

what is the waste prodcut that builds up for inadequate tissue perfusion

A

lactic acid

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46
Q

tissue perfusion means

A

continuous delivery of an adequate blood supply containing oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to the body’s tissues and organs

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47
Q

different shocks

A

cardiogenic, hypovolemic, septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic

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48
Q

which shocks are considered distributive

A

septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic

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49
Q

distributive means

A

maldistribution of blood flow

fluid is in the wrong space, not in the vessels, total fluid volume is normal just in wrong space

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50
Q

distributive shock causes

A

widespread vasodilation

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51
Q

cardiogenic shock

A

happens when your heart cannot pump enough blood and oxygen to the brain and other vital organs

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52
Q

causes of cardiogenic shock

A

MI, blunt force trauma, cardiomyopathy

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53
Q

clinical manifestations of cardiogenic shock

A

CV: tachycardia, hypotension, narrowed pulse pressure, cool clammy, pallor, peripheral hypoperfusion

RESP: tacypnea, pulmonary congestion

RENAL: decreased urine output, Na H2O retention (edema)

NEURO: anxiety, LOC, confusion

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54
Q

hypovolemic shock

A

loss of intravascular fluid volume by either ABSOLUTE VOLUME LOSS or RELATIVE VOLUME LOSS

remaining volume unable to meet O2 needs

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55
Q

absolute volume loss examples

A

external bleeding, vomiting, diarrhea, excessive sweating

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56
Q

relative volume loss examples

A

internal bleeding, fluid shifts, burns

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57
Q

clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock

A

CV: tachycardia, hypotension, cool clammy, peripheral hypoperfusion

RESP: tachypnea

RENAL: decreased urine output

NEURO: agitation, confusion, anxiety, LOC

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58
Q

body can compensate for up to 15%, greater than 30% body begins to fail (T/F)

A

TRUE

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59
Q

neurogenic shock

A

massive vasodilation without SNS activation, blocked

blocked = no increase HR

can occur within 30 mins of injury last up to 6 weeks

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60
Q

clinical manifestations neurogenic

A

hypotension, bradycardia, inability to regulate temp = hypothermic

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61
Q

anaphylactic shock

A

IMMUNE SYSTEM OVERLOAD, IMMEDIATE REACTION CAUSING LEAKING FROM VASCULAR SPACE TO INTERSTITIAL SPACE

hypersensitivity reaction to a sensitizing substance (immediate reaction causes massive vasodilation, release of vasoactive mediators, increase in cap permeability == fluid leaks from vascular space into interstitial space

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62
Q

clinical manifestations for anaphylactic shock

A

NEURO: anxiety & sense of impending doom

AIRWAY: swelling, swollen tongue

BREATHING: tachypnea, dyspnea

CIRC: hypotension, tachycardia

SKIN: rashes, hives

GI: N & V

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63
Q

what needs to be involved to be classified as anaphylaxis

A

2 systems (neuro & skin)

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64
Q

septic shock

A

presence of sepsis with hypotension despite resuscitation and resulting hypoperfusion

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65
Q

infections that can lead to sepsis

A

UTI, pneumonia, wounds

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66
Q

clinical manifestations of sepsis

A

RESP: tachypnea

CV: tachycardia, hypotension, warm & flush THEN cool & mottled, initially have fever then become cool

GU: decreased urine output

NEURO: confusion, altered mental status

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67
Q

change in LOC is #1 manifestation in elderly people regarding sepsis

A

TRUE

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68
Q

compensatory stage of shock

A

compensatory mechanisms maintain BP & cardiac output within a normal to low range

norepinephrine & epi released, vasoconstriction & tachycardia, BP & perfusion to vital organs maintained

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69
Q

progressive stage of shock

A

prolonged vasoconstriction (SNS working hard)

reduced supply O2 blood

switch to anaerobic metabolism & build up of lactic acid

microcirculation dilates

decrease BP, venous return

tissue hypoxia

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70
Q

refractory stage of shock

A

celllular ischemia & necrosis progresses = organ failure & death

cycle of inadequate tissue perfusion is not interrupted

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71
Q

medical management for shock

A

oxygen & ventilation (admin O2 & patent airway)

fluid resuscitation (admin IV fluids, monitor BP & output, monitor cardiovascular system)

drugs (vasopressors)

nutrition (enteral & parenteral)

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72
Q

medical management for cardiogenic shock

A
  • thrombolytic therapy
  • angioplasty/CABG/IABP
  • admin inotropes & vasopressors
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73
Q

medical management of hypovolemic

A

fluid resuscitation (maintain BP & output)

treat cause

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74
Q

medical management of septic

A

blood cultures

IV antibiotics & fluid resuscitation

monitor glucose & insulin (hyperglycemia)

monitoring labs (lactic acid)

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75
Q

neurogenic shock medical management

A

spinal stability

admin vasopressors & atropine

treatment dependent on cause

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76
Q

anaphylactic shock medical management

A

admin epi & fluid resuscitation

antihistamines & H2 blockers & glucocorticosteroids

maintaining airway

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77
Q

nursing assessment & management of shock

A

Assess ABCs

Comprehensive physiological assessment (Thorough head to toe)

Vital signs

Lab data (CBC, electrolytes, lactic acid levels, blood gases, liver enzymes, renal function (are they being perfused?)

Intake & output (min amount = 30cc/hr)

Personal hygiene

Emotional support & comfort (Holistic care, Utilize BCCNM 6 core concepts & principles)

78
Q

what is a blood transfusion

A

admin of blood & blood products to temp support pt

79
Q

what are the components of blood transfusion

A

whole blood, platelets, packed red blood cells, albumin or plasma

80
Q

blood group antigens (A & B) are on RBC membranes (T/F)

A

T

81
Q

what are the blood groups

A

A, B, AB, O

82
Q

blood group A

A

A antigens on the red blood cells with anti-B antibodies in the plasma

83
Q

blood group B

A

B antigens with anti-A antibodies in the plasma

84
Q

blood group AB

A

both A and B antigens, but no antibodies

85
Q

blood group O

A

no antigens, but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma

86
Q

what blood can be given to almost anyone in emergencies

A

O RhD negative blood (O-)

87
Q

rh factor

A

refers to 3rd antigen thats also on RBC membranes

88
Q

blood admin procedure

A

Venous access required to administer blood products

Positive identification of blood donor & recipient (double check with 2 licensed individuals – RN & RN)

Vital signs before transfusion

Remain with pt for first 15 mins or 50mL of transfusion (Likely when transfusion reaction occurs (acute hemolytic))

Reassess vital signs and increase rate per policy/orders

Periodically observe pt throughout & up to one hr after transfusion

89
Q

acute hemolytic reaction cause

A

multiple transfusions (6 units), incompatible blood

90
Q

clinical manifestations of acute hemolytic

A

hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, abdominal pain, back pain, fever, jaundice, occurs first 15mins

91
Q

interventions for acute hemolytic

A

support BP

fluids

vasopressors

stop transfusion

92
Q

febrile reaction cause

A

sensitization to donor

93
Q

clincal manifestations of febrile reaction

A

chills, cold, overall feeling not well, muscle aches, flushed, increase temp by 1 degree

94
Q

interventions for febrile reaction

A

antipyretics

stop transfusions

95
Q

cause of allergic reaction to blood

A

sensitivity to donor plasma protein

96
Q

clinical manifestation of allergic reaction to blood

A

hives, redness, skin issues, itchy

anaphylaxis (N & V, bronchoconstriction)

97
Q

allergic reaction interventions to blood

A

antihistamines, epi, fluids

98
Q

circulatory overload reaction

A

fluid administered faster than circulating system tolerates

99
Q

clinical manifestations of circulatory overload reaction

A

SOB, crackles, increased work of breathing, tachycardia, tachypnea

100
Q

interventions for circulatory overload

A

diuretics inbetween units of blood

slow down infusion rate

O2 PRN

101
Q

sepsis reaction cause

A

contaminated product (bacterial infected blood)

102
Q

clinical manifestations of sepsis reaction

A

hot, flushed

febrile

hypotension

103
Q

interventions for sepsis reactino to blood

A

supportive therapy for sepsis

blood cultures

antibiotics

fluids

104
Q

massive blood transfusion reaction

A

hypothermic (due to blood being in fridge)

105
Q

transfusion related acute lung injury

A

leading cause of death

respiratory distress

1-6 hrs

106
Q

response to acute transfusion reaction

A

Stop transfusion

Maintain patent IV line with NS

Notify blood bank & primary HCP

Recheck ID & tags

Monitor VS & UO

Treat symptoms per orders

Send tags & tubing to blood bank

Collect patient blood & urine samples per policy

Document transfusion reaction per policy

107
Q

voluntary admission

A

pt agrees to hospitalization & treatment

108
Q

involuntary admission

A

not willing to accept hospitalization & treatment

109
Q

process for voluntary admission

A

Adults 16 yrs & older

Requires person to voluntarily seek admission

Physician/psychiatrist must agree to admission

Pt may discharge themselves from hospital at any time

110
Q

form 1

A

request for admission

111
Q

form 2

A

consent for treatment

112
Q

process for involuntary admission

A

Medical certificate signed by a dr (form 4.1 (48hrs) & 4.2 (1 month))

Police (section 28)

Judge/court order

Section 22 (medical system) of MHA

113
Q

criteria for involuntary admission

A

Pt must be suffering from mental disorder that srsly impairs pts ability to react appropriately to environment

Pt requires treatment in or through a designated facility

Pt requires care, supervision, & control in or through a designated faculty to prevent the pt’s substantial mental or physical deterioration or for pt’s own protection or protection of others

Pt not suitable as voluntary pt

114
Q

forms for involuntary admission

A

form 4s (4.1, 4.2)

form 5

115
Q

form 4s

A

medical certificates

need both signed & complated within 48 hr

116
Q

form 5

A

consent for treatment

can be signed by director or designate if pt not sign

117
Q

Recent changes in form 4

A

NPs can now involuntarily admit to designated facility for up to 48hrs (form 4.1)

Involuntary admission must be authorized by 2nd person, called director or designate

118
Q

Legally, involuntary psychiatric admission can’t begin until the form 4.1 is fully complete is fully complete and signed by director

A

T

119
Q

one certificate (4.1)

A

48 hrs

120
Q

Two certificates (forms 4.1 & 4.2)

A

1 month

121
Q

First renewal (form 6)

A

1 month

122
Q

Second renewal (form 6)

A

3 months

123
Q

Third renewal

A

6 months

Any subsequent renewals are for 6 months

124
Q

form 13

A

NOTIFICATION TO INVOLUNTARY PATIENT
OF RIGHTS UNDER THE MENTAL HEALTH ACT

125
Q

when does form 13 need to be filled out

A

When person is 1st admitted as involuntary pt

Following transfer to another facility

Whenever renewal certificate (form 6) is completed

When pt status changes (voluntary –> involuntary)

126
Q

form 15

A

nomination of near relative

allows a patient to nominate someone to receive notice of the their admission, discharge and any application they make to the review panel.

127
Q

form 16

A

notification to near relative

ADMISSION OF INVOLUNTARY PATIENT

includes rights information of involuntary pt

128
Q

form 17

A

notification to near relative

discharge involuntary pt

129
Q

Who participates at review panel hearing

A

Review panel (physician member, legal member, community member)

Pt

Pt representative

Case presenter from facility (physician)

Other representative for facility

Witnesses for pt &/or facility

130
Q

How frequently can a person request a review panel?

A

After a person is certified and after each renewal

131
Q

How does a person request a review panel

A

Pt fills out form 7

Nurse faxes it to review panel office

Review panel must occur within 14 days of request

132
Q

Review panel must occur within 14 days of request

A

TRUE

133
Q

Extended leave is

A

Type of leave for involuntary pt for a period greater than 14 days

134
Q

pt still remains invountary on extended leave

A

TRUE

135
Q

Form 20 / section 37 of MHA

A

allows an involuntary patient to leave the hospital and live in the community

Hospital dr needs to write an order in chart for leave

Hospital continues to have responsibility for treatment, care, health and safety of pt while on leave, when responsibility for pt has been assumed by a community physician

136
Q

Conditions for extended leave

A

Pt needs to be cooperative with a list of regulations that are outlined by attending dr (medication adherence, follow up with MHT, housing, no substances)

Pt must understand (have insight)

You need to have adequate supports in community

Pt needs to be actively monitored for adherence

Extended leave may last for as long as person certified

137
Q

Unauthorized absence

A

Involuntary pt leaves hospital without permission (AWOL)

138
Q

Nurses responsibility for AWOL

A

Notify police

Notify security

Notify most responsible physician (MRP)

Notify charge nurse

Notify ED (triage)

Contact pt residence / family

Documentation

Complete PSLS (patient safety learning support)

139
Q

ASKING ABOUT SUICIDE IS AN INTERVENTION & FIRST STEP OF PREVENTION!

A

TRUE

140
Q

Suicide is the

A

voluntary & intentional act of killing oneself

Experiences, family factors, perceptions

141
Q

Suicide attempt

A

Expecting to die, but survived

142
Q

Suicidal behaviour

A

Any act of suicide despite the outcome

143
Q

Suicidal ideation

A

Thought (passive = considering/thinking or active = plan, decided)

Thinking about & planning one’s own death

60% of people experiencing suicidal ideation had their first suicide attempt within the 1st year of ideation onset

Risk factor!

144
Q

Para suicide

A

Attempt without intention to die (self-harm, that mimic suicide, intent not to die but accidental death can occur)

145
Q

Self-harm

A

NOT a suicide attempt

People self-harm for a variety of reasons (A way to communicate needs or wants (Deep need to help pain), Need of often for attention or care, Self-punishment, May relieve or release certain emotions & feelings)

If the purpose of self-harm is not achieved it can lead to escalation in behaviour

Do not ignore or minimize behaviour

146
Q

Risk factors: vulnerable population

A

Mental illness

Indigenous without cultural identity (X3 higher)

Incarcerated

Physical illness

Male

LGBT+

147
Q

Risk factors: historical factors

A

Previous history of a suicide attempt (increased in first 90 days after hospital)

Family history of suicide

Family history of abuse or trauma

Early childhood loss

History of impulsivity

148
Q

Risk factors: current factors

A

Mental illness

Substance use

Personality type

Stressful life events

School or work problems

Socioeconomic disadvantages

Social isolation

Attitudes/beliefs about suicide

149
Q

Warning signs

A

Behavioural

Verbal

Emotional

Physical

150
Q

Behavioural cues of suicide

A

Making final arrangements = Will

Stockpiling means = Pills

Family dr visit without reason

Increased/decreased substance use

Depressive symptoms

Uncharacteristic behavioural changes = Increase in mood

Changes in self-care

Withdrawal or acting out

151
Q

Emotional cues suicide

A

Sad or despondent

Hopeless/helpless

Lonely

Guilty

Boredom

Self-hate

Extreme mood changes = Rage, agitation, anxiety

152
Q

Verbal cues suicide

A

Direct statement of intent

Suicidal fantasies

Indirect statements

Discussing or joking about death or suicide

Saying goodbye out of context

153
Q

Physical cues

A

Physical health complaints = Pain!!, drastic weight loss, diagnosed with something terminal or life long

Change/loss in sex interest

Sleep disturbances

Increased energy

154
Q

Protective factors

A

Married with dependent children

Intact social supports

Religious affiliations or faith

Absence of depression or substance use

Access to medical/mental health resources

Good impulse control

Good problem-solving & coping mechanisms

155
Q

interventions for suicide

A

hospitalization, protection

safety planning

encourage communication

promote self esteem

treat physical problems related to suicide

antidepressants

ECT

education

156
Q

pain

A

Unpleasant sensory & emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage

157
Q

Gate theory: Neural mechanism in which pain is perceived includes:

A

Transduction

Transmission

Perception

Modulation

158
Q

Transduction

A

Unpleasant stimulus causes cell damage with release of sensitizing chemicals (prostaglandins, bradykinin, serotonin, histamine)

Chemicals active nociceptors and generate action potential

159
Q

Transmission

A

Action potential continues from:

Site of injury to spinal cord

Spinal cord to brainstem & thalamus

Thalamus to cortex for processing

160
Q

Perception

A

Conscious experience of pain

161
Q

Modulation

A

Neurons originating in brainstem descend to spinal cord & release substances (endogenous opioids) that inhibit nociceptive impulses

162
Q

Pain assessment

A

O = onset (when did this pain start? How long have you been having this pain?)

P = provoking/palliating (what makes it better/worse?)

Q = quality

R = radiation/region (does it radiate anywhere else in the body?) (where is this pain located?)

S = severity (pain scale = #0-10, faces, words (mild, moderate, severe)

T = treatment/timing

U = understanding/impact on pt (what do you think is causing your pain? How is this pain impacting you?)

V = value (how does this pain impact your life)

163
Q

Nonverbal behaviours pani

A

Facial expressions = Communication barrier, confused, stroke, nonverbal, delirium

Vocalization

Body movements

Social interactions

Mood

Sleep

164
Q

Analgesic ladder

A

Used to help determine what to use to manage pain

Opioids = codeine (mild to moderate pain) used with acetaminophen

Moderate to severe pain = hydromorphone, morphine

Adjuvant = primary use may not used for pain but used with opioid/nonopioids to reduce pain = Work on different pain pathways to increase analgesic properties

165
Q

Mild pain

A

Nonopioids (NSAIDs, acetaminophen)

166
Q

Mild to moderate pain

A

Nonopioids & opioids (codeine, oxycodone)

167
Q

Moderate to severe pain

A

Opioids (morphine, hydromorphone, fentanyl)

168
Q

Adjuvant analgesic therapy

A

Anti-depressants (tricyclics, lower dose to have analgesic properties)

Anti-seizure agents (neuropathic pain = diabetes)

Muscle relaxant (muscle spasms & neuropathic)

Anesthetics

Cannabinoids

Corticosteroids (reduction in edema & inflammation = reduce pain)

169
Q

Nociceptive pain

A
  • type of pain caused by damage to body tissue.
  • feels sharp, aching, or throbbing.
  • caused by an external injury, like stubbing your toe, having a sports injury, or a dental procedure.

commonly experience nociceptive pain in the musculoskeletal system, which includes the joints, muscles, skin, tendons, and bone

Ability to process pain, intact nervous system

170
Q

manifestations of nociceptive pain

A

Somatic = bones/joints: localized, throbbing, aching

Visceral = organs, obstruction, tumour

171
Q

treatment for nocicpetive pain

A

Non-opioid & opioid medications

172
Q

neuropathic pain

A

Abnormal processing due to damage, difficult to treat, result of injury to nervous system (difficult to treat)

173
Q

manifestations neuropathic pain

A

Burning, shock-like, electric, intense, long lasting, short

174
Q

treatment neuropathic pain

A

Gabapentin

  • antidepressants, anticonvulsants

Pain ladder

175
Q

Acute pain

A

Sudden onset, normal time of healing expected, worse in beginning and gradually get better over healing process (labour, post-op, cuts, sprains, fracture, angina)

176
Q

manifestation acute pain

A

Tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension, pallor, diaphoretic, agitated, annoyed, anxious

177
Q

treatment acute pain

A

Opioids & nonopioids

Pain ladder

178
Q

Persistent pain

A

Gradual onset continues past time of normal healing (episodic health change, depression, anxiety)

179
Q

manifestations of persistent pain

A

Accompany anxiety, depression (internal), fatigue, changes in affect, ADLs,

180
Q

treatment persistent pain

A

Pain ladder

181
Q

1 goal per care plan?

A

YES

182
Q

illusions

A

perception that occurs when a sensory stimulus is present but is incorrectly perceived and misinterpreted, such as hearing the wind as someone crying

183
Q

SBAR documentation tool

A

Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

Used to transfer pts between units

184
Q

What is the PSLS?

A

Completed after any unusual occurrence (eg. med error, falls, staff harm, unexpected deaths); used for educational and quality assurance

185
Q

SOAP charting

A

Subjective, objective, assessment, plan

186
Q

what is the MHA and why is it important?

A

ensures people with mental health disorders receive tx when they are not willing to do it

provides criteria & procedure for involuntary admission & tx

187
Q

what are the 5 conditions for extended leave?

A
  1. pt needs to be cooperative with a list of outlined regulations from physician
  2. pt must have insight to understand
  3. adequate community supports
  4. actively monitored for adherence
  5. extended leave may last for as long as the person is certified
188
Q

What type of blood can a person with AB blood type receive?

A

all blood type

189
Q

What type of blood can a person with type A blood receive?

A

type A or type O

190
Q

What type of blood can a person with O type blood receive?

A

O positive or O negative blood types

191
Q

acute hemolytic reaction description

A

Antibodies in the recipient’s serum react with antigens on the donor’s RBCs that causes agglutination of cells resulting in blood flow being blocked to tissues.

192
Q
A

concepts 3 (2 decks)

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