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Motor LEARNING > MIDTERM > Flashcards

MIDTERM Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following are NOT true of learning?
    a) It results in a relatively permanent change in behavior.
    b) It is the result of practice and or experience.
    c) It is directly observable.
    d) All of the above are true.
A

It is directly observable

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of performance?
    a) It is defined as the act of executing a skill.
    b) It is observable.
    c) It is used to infer learning.
    d) All of the above are true.
A

ALL of the above

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3
Q

Which of the following is true of learning?

a) It is the result of practice or experience.
b) It is defined as the act of executing a skill.
c) It is directly observable.
d) It is a temporary change in performance.

A

Result of practice or experience

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4
Q

When assessing performance and making instructional decisions, which of the following must be considered?

a) The learner
b) The task
c) The environment in which the task is performed
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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5
Q
  1. The field of study that focuses on the neural, physical, and behavior aspects that underlie human movement is _____.
    a) learning.
    b) motor control.
    c) motor learning.
    d) performance.
A

Motor Control

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6
Q

Which of the following would be considered a motor skill?

a) Writing a check
b) Solving a math problem
c) Blinking as a reflex
d) Visualizing performance

A

Writing a Check

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of motor skills?
    a) They can be performed involuntarily.
    b) Body and/or limb movements are required.
    c) They must be learned.
    d) They are goal oriented.
A

They can be performed involuntarily

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following would NOT be considered a motor skill?
    a) Football punt
    b) Knee-jerk reflex
    c) Sewing on a button
    d) Taping someone’s ankle
A

Knee-Jerk reflex

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9
Q
  1. Taxonomies are used to do which of the following:
    a) indicate one’s level of proficiency.
    b) determine the amount of time that will be required to learn a motor skill.
    c) determine the level of fatigue associated with a motor skill.
    d) classify motor skills in terms of common elements.
A

Classify motor skills in terms of common elements

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10
Q
  1. Skills can be classified according to:
    a) the predictability of the environment in which the skill is performed.
    b) the nature of their organization.
    c) the degree of precision of their movements and corresponding size of the musculature used to perform.
    d) All of the above
A

ALL of the Above

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a gross motor skill?
    a) Cutting with scissors
    b) Creating an incision with a scalpel
    c) Performing a pushup
    d) Swiping a credit card
A

Performing a pushup

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a fine motor skill would be:
    a) swimming the freestyle stroke.
    b) typing on a laptop keyboard.
    c) walking with crutches.
    d) cross-country skiing.
A

Typing on a laptop keyboard

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13
Q
  1. A fine motor skill is one that:
    a) places less emphasis on precision of movement.
    b) generally involves multi-limb movements.
    c) tends to be manipulative in nature.
    d) requires the use of large muscles.
A

Tends to be manipulative in nature

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14
Q
  1. A discrete skill:
    a) has beginning and ending points that are either arbitrary or determined by some environmental factor rather than by the task itself.
    b) tends to be repetitive in nature.
    c) has beginning and end points that are clearly defined.
    d) A and B only
A

Has beginning and ending points that are clearly defined

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15
Q
  1. A skill that is composed of a number of discrete skills whose integrated performance is crucial for goal achievement is categorized as a/an:
    a) serial skill.
    b) continuous skill.
    c) compound skill.
    d) open skill.
A

Serial Skill

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a serial skill?
    a) Rollerblading
    b) Throwing a Frisbee
    c) A floor routine in gymnastics
    d) Serving a volleyball
A

A floor routine in gymnastics

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is a continuous skill?
    a) Performing a gymnastics floor routine
    b) Setting a volleyball
    c) Rollerblading
    d) Playing the piano
A

Rollerblading

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18
Q
  1. Skills where the performer controls the performance situation because the object being acted on or the context in which the skill is performed does not change are called:

a) open skills.
b) closed skills.
c) variable skills.
d) stable skills.

A

Closed Skills

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following would be considered a closed skill?
    a) Driving a car
    b) Juggling the soccer ball during game
    c) Putting a golf ball
    d) Returning a tennis serve
A

Putting a golf ball

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20
Q
  1. Mountain biking, which requires the performer to continually adapt his or her responses to conform to the trail, would be considered what kind of skill:
    a) an open skill.
    b) a closed skill.
    c) an adaptive skill.
    d) a responsive skill.
A

an OPEN SKILL

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21
Q
  1. Practice for open skills should emphasize which of the following?
    a) technique.
    b) consistency.
    c) context variability.
    d) None of the above
A

Context variablility

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22
Q
  1. According to Gentile, the environmental factors that specify the movement characteristics necessary for successful performance of a skill are known as:
    a) action requirements.
    b) object manipulation.
    c) regulatory conditions.
    d) inter-trial response variability.
A

regulatory conditions

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23
Q
  1. Inter-trial response variability refers to:
    a) environmental factors that specify the movement characteristics necessary for the successful performance of a skill.
    b) whether the regulatory conditions remain fixed or change with each successive performance attempt.
    c) whether or not a performer must change location when performing a skill.
    d) whether or not an object is manipulated during the performance of a skill.
A

Whether the regulatory conditions remain fixed or change with each successive performance attempt

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following skills has low inter-trial variability?
    a) Golf putt
    b) Volleyball spike
    c) Bunting
    d) Shot put
A

Shot Put

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25
Q
  1. According to Gentile’s multidimensional classification system, the simplest skill would be one whose:
    a) environmental context is stationary, involves no inter-trial variability or body transport, and does not require object manipulation.
    b) environmental context is in motion, involves high inter-trial variability, and requires both body transport and object manipulation.
    c) environmental context is in motion, involves high inter-trial variability, requires body transport, but does not require object manipulation.
    d) environmental context is stationary, involves high inter-trial variability, requires body transport, but does not require object manipulation.
A

environment context is stationary, involves NO inter-trial variability or body transport, and does not require object manipulation.

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26
Q
  1. Understanding skill complexity enables the practitioner to:
    a) systematically evaluate a learner’s movement capabilities and limitations.
    b) design learning experiences that are challenging yet realistic.
    c) create logical skill progressions.
    d) All of the above
A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

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27
Q
  1. Genetic traits that cannot be modified through practice and are prerequisite for skilled performance are called:
    a) reflexes.
    b) abilities.
    c) individual differences.
    d) Fleishman’s taxonomy
A

Individual differences

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is / are not included in the Fleishman’s (1967) taxonomy?
    a) Visual acuity and visual tracking
    b) Multi-limb coordination speed of limb movement
    c) Response orientation and reaction time
    d) Static strength and dynamic strength
A

Visual acuity and visual tracking

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29
Q
  1. What specificity hypothesis (Henry, 1961) confirms which of the following example(s)?
    a) There is a guarantee for a tennis player who would also be strong swimmer
    b) There is a guarantee for a swimmer who would also be strong a tennis player
    c) There is no a guarantee for a tennis player who would also be strong swimmer
    d) A and B only
A

There is no a guarantee for a tennis player who would also be strong swimmer

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following is classified as a perceptual motor ability?
    a) Gross body equilibrium
    b) Response orientation
    c) Dynamic strength
    d) Extent flexibility
A

Response Orientation

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following is the ability to make continuous speed and direction adjustments with precision when tracking?
    a) speed of limb movement.
    b) aiming.
    c) control precision.
    d) rate control.
A

RATE CONTROL

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32
Q
  1. The ability to make repeated, rapid flexing movements is known as:
    a) dynamic flexibility.
    b) multi-limb coordination.
    c) control precision.
    d) extent flexibility.
A

Dynamic flexibility

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following abilities would NOT be needed to climb Mt. Everest?
    a) Stamina
    b) Gross body coordination
    c) Wrist finger speed
    d) Dynamic strength
A

Wrist finger speed

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34
Q
  1. The underlying abilities important to the successful performance of a specific skill can be identified through (a/an):
    a) talent identification program.
    b) taxonomy.
    c) exam.
    d) task analysis.
A

Task Analysis

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35
Q
  1. There are 13 still images for the long jump below. What is/are the numbers of still image(s) from the right to the left corresponding to the start and end of the preparation phase of the motor skill?
    a) 1 to 4
    b) 1 to 5
    c) 1 to 7
    d) 2 to 7
A

1 to 5

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36
Q
  1. There are 13 still images for the long jump above. What is/are the numbers of still image(s) from the right to the left corresponding to the start and end of the execution phase of the motor skill?
    a) 6 to11
    b) 7 to 12
    c) 8 to 11
    d) 8 to 12
A

6 to 11

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37
Q
  1. There are 13 still images for the long jump above. What is/are the numbers of still image(s) from the right to the left corresponding to the start and end of the follow-through phase of the motor skill?
    a) 10 to 13
    b) 11 to 13
    c) 12 to 13
    d) only 13
A

11 to 13

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38
Q
  1. What are the dominant perceptual motor abilities according to Fleishman’s (1967) taxonomy used during the preparation phase (in the first 4 still images from right to left) of the motor skill below?
    a) Wrist-finger speed
    b) Rate control
    c) Response orientation
    d) Manual dexterity
A

Rate control

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39
Q
  1. What are the dominant physical proficiency motor abilities according to Fleishman’s (1967) taxonomy used during the execution phase (in the middle 5 - 8 still images from right to left) of the motor skill above?
    a) Dynamic strength
    b) Explosive strength
    c) Gross body equilibrium
    d) b & c only
A

Gross body equilibrium

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40
Q
  1. What are the dominant physical proficiency motor abilities according to Fleishman’s (1967) taxonomy used during the follow-through phase (in the last 3 still images from right to left) of the motor skill above?
    a) Dynamic strength and stamina
    b) Explosive strength and stamina
    c) Dynamic flexibility and gross body equilibrium
    d) c & gross body coordination
A

c & gross body coordination

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41
Q
  1. What is the process by which meaning is attached to input?
    a) stimuli.
    b) perception.
    c) information processing.
    d) affordances.
A

Perception

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42
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of indirect perception?
    a) The relationship between perception and action is circular.
    b) It is generally associated with the information-processing model (What to do / what not to do).
    c) It suggests that the environment and task are perceived in terms of affordances.
    d) It suggests that the environment is perceived in terms of the actions the perceiver can potentially exert on it.
A

It is generally associated with the information-processing model (What to do/ what not to do.)

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43
Q
  1. The view that the relationship between perception and action is circular rather than relying on stored memory representation is known as:
    a) indirect perception.
    b) direct perception.
    c) information processing.
    d) affordances.
A

Direct perception

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44
Q
  1. Reaction time is defined as:
    a) the interval of time between the initiation of a movement and its completion.
    b) the interval of time between the moment a stimulus is presented and a response is completed.
    c) the interval of time between the moment that a stimulus is presented and a response is initiated.
    d) a combination of response time and movement time.
A

The interval of time between the moment that a stimulus is presented and a response is initiated

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of reaction time?
    a) It is indicative of the time needed to execute a movement.
    b) It is a constant.
    c) It is dependent on the processing demands imposed by a given situation.
    d) It is determined from the time interval between the moment that a stimulus is presented and a response is completed.
A

It is dependent on the processing demands imposed by a given situation

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46
Q
  1. Which type of reaction time situation occurs when there are several signals but only one response is to be made to one signal; and other signals are ignored and no response made?
    a) Simple RT
    b) Choice RT
    c) Serial RT
    d) Discrimination RT
A

Discrimination RT

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47
Q
  1. As processing demands increase, _________ increases
    a) reaction time
    b) movement time
    c) response time
    d) A and C only
A

Reaction time

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48
Q
  1. Reaction time is the interval of time between which two events?
    a) Warning signal and the initiation of the response
    b) Warning signal and stimulus signal
    c) Stimulus signal and initiation of the response
    d) Stimulus signal and the completion of the response
A

Stimulus signal and initiation of the response

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49
Q
  1. Which of the following is the reaction time resulting from a situation involving options as to how to respond?
    a) choice reaction time.
    b) Hicks Law.
    c) event anticipation.
    d) event reaction time.
A

Choice reaction time

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50
Q
  1. _____________________ is the interval of time between the presentation of a warning signal and the presentation of an unanticipated stimulus. The optimal ________________ length should range between 1 and 4 seconds.
    a) Foreperiod
    b) Reaction time
    c) Movement time
    d) Response time
    e) Choice RT
A

Foreperiod

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51
Q
  1. ______________ states that choice RT is logarithmically related to the number of stimulus choice alternatives.
    a) Fitts Law
    b) Hicks Law
    c) Stimulus response compatibility
    d) Psychological refractory period
A

Hicks Law

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52
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements is the best description of Hick’s Law?
    a) Relationship between the number of movement choices (stimulus of response alternatives) and the time needed to prepare a response
    b) The higher the degree of uncertainty in a given situation, the longer the time needed to decide which response to make
    c) It not only correctly predicts that RT increases as the number of choice alternatives increases; it also predicts the specific size of increase to expect.
    d) All of the above
A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

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53
Q
  1. According to Hicks Law, a racquetball player has an advantage if he or she:
    a) has a larger repertoire of serves.
    b) reduces the uncertainty of his or her opponent.
    c) makes his or her serve predictable.
    d) increases the fore period preceding the serve.
A

Has a larger repertoire of serves

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54
Q
  1. Which of the following strategies could be implemented to reduce reaction time on optimizing movement preparation and reducing response delay?
    a) Eliminating the presentation of a warning signal
    b) Increasing the number of response choices
    c) Decreasing the predictability of a stimulus
    d) Giving advanced information about what / when event will occur
A

giving advanced information about what/ when event will occur

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of response time?
    a) It is determined from the moment that a stimulus is presented to when a response is completed.
    b) It is influenced by the number of response choices in a situation.
    c) It should not exceed four seconds.
    d) It is the combination of reaction time and movement time.
A

It should not exceed four seconds

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56
Q
  1. The prediction of what event will happen is called:
    a) foreperiod.
    b) response orientation.
    c) temporal anticipation.
    d) event anticipation.
A

event anticipation

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57
Q
  1. The prediction of when an event will occur is called:
    a) temporal anticipation.
    b) event anticipation.
    c) psychological refractory period.
    d) response orientation.
A

Temporal anticipation

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58
Q
  1. Clues in the environment that if detected can assist a learner in anticipating are known as:
    a) irrelevant stimuli.
    b) regulatory conditions.
    c) action requirements.
    d) precues.
A

Precues

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59
Q
  1. Which one of the following movement skills provides a foreperiod consistency signal to the performer?
    a) Playing guitar
    b) Dribbling a ball
    c) Start up 100 meter dash
    d) A and B only
A

Start up 100 meter dash

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60
Q
  1. The delay in responding to a second stimulus in a situation where two stimuli, each of which requires a different response, are presented in succession within a short period of time is called:
    a) Hick’s Law.
    b) the psychological refractory period.
    c) stimulus response compatibility.
    d) temporal anticipation.
A

Psychological refractory period

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61
Q
  1. The extent to which a stimulus and its required response are naturally related is known as:
    a) foreperiod.
    b) psychological refractory period.
    c) stimulus-response compatibility.
    d) inverted U hypothesis.
A

Stimulus-response compatibility

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62
Q
  1. In order for a fake to be successful:
    a) the fake must be realistic.
    b) the faker should move his or her head.
    c) one should focus on the center of gravity.
    d) the faker should look directly at his or her opponent.
A

Fake must be realistic

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63
Q
  1. Which of the following strategies could be implemented to reduce Response Time to achieve successful execution of a movement skill?
    a) Increase the speed at which the movement is executed
    b) Reduce the length of the movement
    c) Rather than changing the speed or distance of the movement, increasing the distance between the performer and the opponent in order to gain more time to make a correct decision for the movement skill
    d) All of the above
A

All of the above

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64
Q
  1. Which of the following would NOT necessarily influence movement time (MT)?
    a) Increasing the speed at which the movement is executed
    b) Reducing the uncertainty of a situation
    c) Reducing the length of the movement.
    d) Using little or no back swing
A

Reducing the uncertainty of the situation

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65
Q
  1. The theory of attention that speculated that the flow of information is impeded at some point by an attentional filter is known as:
    a) the bottleneck theory.
    b) the attentional space theory.
    c) the cue utilization hypothesis.
    d) the perceptual narrowing theory.
A

bottleneck theory

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66
Q
  1. Attentional demands are influenced by which of the following?
    a) Environmental complexity
    b) Skill level of the performer
    c) Task complexity
    d) All of the above
    e) A and C only
A

All of the above

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67
Q
  1. As the environment or task increases in complexity, the amount of attentional space available for additional tasks will:
    a) increase.
    b) decrease.
    c) remain unchanged.
    d) double.
A

decrease

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68
Q
  1. Which of the following is the ability to attend to or focus on one specific item in the midst of countless stimuli?
    a) arousal.
    b) selective attention.
    c) anxiety.
    d) the cue utilization hypothesis.
A

selective attention

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69
Q
  1. The process used to selectively attend to specific environmental information is called:
    a) environmental focus.
    b) limited attentional capacity.
    c) attentional focus.
    d) arousal.
A

attentional focus

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70
Q
  1. The attentional style used by a bicycle courier maneuvering through New York City traffic is:
    a) broad-external.
    b) broad-internal.
    c) narrow-external.
    d) narrow-internal.
A

Broad-external

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71
Q
  1. The attentional style used to mentally rehearse an impeding action is:
    a) broad-external.
    b) broad-internal.
    c) narrow-external.
    d) narrow-internal.
A

narrow-internal

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72
Q
  1. The attentional focus used when strategic analysis is required is:
    a) broad-external.
    b) broad-internal.
    c) narrow-external.
    d) narrow-internal.
A

broad-internal

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73
Q 
33.  An emotion resulting from an individual’s perception of a situation as threatening is
known as:
a)	arousal.
b)	anxiety. 
c)	amplitude.
d)	anticipation.
A

anxiety

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74
Q
  1. Higher arousal levels are desired for:
    a) tasks that are low in complexity.
    b) tasks involving fine motor skills.
    c) tasks with high decision-making requirements.
    d) tasks that have high attentional requirements.
A

tasks that are low in complexity

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75
Q
  1. What does Inverted-U Principle describe?
    a) Relatively stable relationship that exists between arousal level and performance
    b) If an individual’s arousal level increases, the person’s performance increases, but only to a point.
    c) If the individual’s arousal continuously increases, hi/her performance begins to decrease and diminish.
    d) All of the above
A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

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76
Q
  1. The relationship between arousal and performance is captured by:
    a) Hick’s Law.
    b) perceptual narrowing.
    c) the inverted-U principle.
    d) the cue utilization hypothesis.
A

inverted U princible

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77
Q
  1. Which of the following influence the optimal level of arousal?
    a) Task characteristics
    b) Learner characteristics
    c) Selective attention
    d) All of the above
    e) A & B only
A

A & B only

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78
Q
  1. A paradigm where changes in attentional focus occur according to the level of arousal is known as:
    a) the cue utilization hypothesis.
    b) the cocktail party phenomenon.
    c) the perceptual narrowing theory.
    d) selective attention.
A

cue utilization hypothesis

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79
Q
  1. The narrowing of attentional focus when arousal levels are higher than optimal is known as:
    a) inverted U principle.
    b) Hick’s Law.
    c) perceptual narrowing.
    d) narrow internal focus.
A

perceptual narrowing

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80
Q
  1. The natural level of arousal for one individual may be significantly higher than that of another individual.

a) True
b) False

A

TRUE

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81
Q
  1. The action possibilities of the environment and task in relation to the perceiver’s own capabilities are called:

a) Stimuli
b) Information processing
c) Perception
d) Affordances
e) a and b only

A

affordances

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82
Q
  1. An abstract representation of a movement plan stored in memory and containing all of the motor commands required for carrying out the intended action is called a/an:
    a) motor program.
    b) open loop system.
    c) closed loop system.
    d) dynamic system.
A

Motor Program

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83
Q
  1. The degrees of freedom problem are based on which of the following?
    a) The number of elements or components of the system that have to be controlled
    b) A limb’s range of motion
    c) The lack of time available to receive feedback
    d) The influence of the external environment on movement
A

The number of elements or components of the system that have to be controlled

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84
Q 
3.  The process of constraining available degrees of freedom to organize a movement pattern that will effectively
achieve the goal of the task is called:
a)	coordination.
b)	control.
c)	dynamic interaction.
d)	specificity.
A

Coordination

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85
Q
  1. The manipulation of variables within a movement pattern to meet the demands of a given situation is known as:
    a) coordination.
    b) control.
    c) dynamic interaction.
    d) specificity.
A

Control

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86
Q
  1. A class of actions or pattern of movement that can be modified to yield various response outcomes is known as a:
    a) schema.
    b) dynamic system.
    c) generalized motor program.
    d) coordination.
A

Generalized motor program

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87
Q
  1. The features of the generalized motor program that are flexible and define how to execute the program are called:
    a) rate limiters.
    b) constraints.
    c) invariant features.
    d) parameters.
A

Parameters

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88
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT considered an invariant feature?
    a) Sequence of actions or components
    b) Specification of muscles and or limbs
    c) Relative timing
    d) Relative force
A

Specification of muscles and or limbs

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89
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT considered a parameter?
    a) Muscle selection
    b) Overall duration
    c) Overall force
    d) Relative timing
A

Relative timing

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90
Q
  1. Which of the following is an invariant feature?
    a) Specification of muscles and/or limbs
    b) Sequence of actions or components
    c) Amplitude
    d) Overall duration
A

sequence of actions or components

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91
Q
  1. The elements of the generalized motor program that enable a center fielder to throw to third base from different areas of the field are called:
    a) invariant features.
    b) parameters.
    c) schema.
    d) variable features.
A

Parameters

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92
Q
  1. The relatively fixed underlying characteristics that define a generalized motor program are called:
    a) invariant features.
    b) parameters.
    c) schema.
    d) sensory consequences.
A

invariant features

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93
Q
  1. Which of the following specifies the parameter values assigned to the generalized motor program?
    a) Invariant features
    b) Schema
    c) Control parameters
    d) Stable attractors
A

schema

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94
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a source of information used to develop one’s schema?
    a) Response outcome
    b) Individual differences
    c) Response specifications
    d) Sensory consequences
A

individual differences

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95
Q
  1. _____________ is the generation of action plans that contain all of the information necessary to complete a response.
    a) An open skill
    b) A closed skill
    c) Open loop control
    d) Closed loop control
A

open skill

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96
Q
  1. A(n) _____________ is a rule or relationship that directs decision-making when a learner is faced with a movement problem.
    a) invariant feature
    b) control parameter
    c) schema
    d) rate limiter
A

schema

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97
Q
  1. The difference between open and closed loop systems is that the:
    a) open loop has an executive level and the closed loop does not.
    b) closed loop has an executive level and the open loop does not.
    c) open loop runs as planned while the closed loop can be modified.
    d) closed loop runs as planned while the open loop can be modified.
A

open loop runs as planned while the closed loop can be modified

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98
Q
  1. If a pitcher throws a change up and the hitter swings in anticipation of a fastball, the hitter has made an error in:
    a) generalized motor program selection.
    b) parameter selection.
    c) invariant feature selection.
    d) schema selection.
A

Parameter selection

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99
Q
  1. According to the Dynamic System Theory, compressing available degrees of freedom into a single functional
    unit that is designed to carry out a specific task is called:
    a) an attractor.
    b) a phase shift.
    c) a rate limiter.
    d) self-organization.
A

self-organization

100
Q
  1. According to the dynamic system theory, ______________ are the boundaries that limit the movement capabilities of an individual.
    a) constraints
    b) attractors
    c) abilities
    d) parameters
A

constraints

101
Q
  1. The wind is an example of a/an:
    a) organismic constraint.
    b) environmental constraint.
    c) task constraint.
    d) internal constraint.
A

environmental constraint

102
Q
  1. Preferred states of stability are known as:
    a) control parameters.
    b) phase shifts.
    c) rate limiters.
    d) attractors
A

attractors

103
Q
  1. Shallow attractor states:
    a) are characteristic of stable behavior.
    b) are characteristic of unstable behavior.
    c) are difficult to change.
    d) are permanent.
A

Characteristic of UNstable behavior

104
Q
  1. A change in the state of stability of a system that causes a spontaneous reorganization into a new form is called a(n):
    a) control parameter.
    b) rate limiter.
    c) phase shift.
    d) attractor.
A

Phase Shift

105
Q
  1. According to the Dynamic System Theory, deep attractor basins are characteristic of:
    a) erratic behavior.
    b) stable behavior.
    c) unstable behavior.
    d) all behavior.
A

Stable Behavior

106
Q
  1. _______________ attractor states are characteristic of instable systems
    a) Shallow
    b) Deep
    c) Superficial
    d) Consistent
A

Shallow

107
Q
  1. Constraints that function to hinder or hold back the ability of a system to change are called:
    a) rate limiters.
    b) phase shifts.
    c) shallow basins.
    d) control parameters.
A

Rate limiters

108
Q
  1. Strength could be considered as:
    a) a rate limiter.
    b) a control parameter.
    c) either a rate limiter or a control parameter, depending on the situation
    d) both a rate limiter and a control parameter in any given situation
A

Either rate limiter or a control parameter depending on the situation

109
Q
  1. Variables that move a system to a new attractor state are called:
    a) rate limiters.
    b) phase shifts.
    c) shallow basins.
    d) control parameters.
A

Phase Shifts

110
Q
  1. A change in relative timing indicates a change in the:
    a) schema .
    b) parameters.
    c) generalized motor program.
    d) learner’s ability.
A

Generalized motor program

111
Q
  1. If fear prevents a diver from improving on his or her performance on a particular dive then fear is acting as a:
    a) control parameter.
    b) phase shift.
    c) task constraint.
    d) rate limiter.
A

Rate limiter

112
Q
  1. The sensory receptors located in the muscles, tendons, and internal ears are called:
    a) interceptors.
    b) exteroceptors.
    c) proprioceptors.
    d) kinestheticeptors.
A

Proprioceptors

113
Q
  1. Proprioception provides us with information about body and/or limb:
    a) spatial location.
    b) movement direction.
    c) movement speed.
    d) All of these
A

All of these

114
Q
  1. Which of the following detect stimuli outside of the body and provide information about the environment?
    a) Interoceptors
    b) Exteroceptors
    c) Proprioceptors
    d) Nociceptors
A

exteroceptors

115
Q
  1. Stimuli regarding feelings such as hunger and nausea would be detected by:
    a) interoceptors.
    b) exteroceptors.
    c) proprioceptors.
    d) nociceptors.
A

Interoceptors

116
Q
  1. The two components of our visual field are
    a) near and far vision.
    b) breadth and depth of vision.
    c) central and peripheral vision.
    d) static and dynamic vision.
A

Central and Peripheral Vision

117
Q
  1. Light sensitive cells located in the eyes that convert an image into a nerve impulse are called:
    a) interoceptors.
    b) exteroceptors.
    c) proprioceptors.
    d) photoreceptors.
A

Photoreceptors

118
Q
  1. Which of the following provide information about body position and movement?
    a) Interoceptors
    b) Exteroceptors
    c) Proprioceptors
    d) Nociceptors
A

proprioceptors

119
Q
  1. Which of the following is a photoreceptor that is specialized for dim light and enables us to see shapes and movement as well as discriminate between different shades of light and dark?
    a) Optic chiasm
    b) Optic nerve
    c) Rods
    d) Cones
A

Rods

120
Q
  1. What is the primary receptor used in night vision?
    a) Optic chiasm
    b) Optic nerve
    c) Rods
    d) Cones
A

Rods

121
Q
  1. Which photoreceptor is specialized for color vision?
    a) Optic chiasm
    b) Optic nerve
    c) Rods
    d) Cones
A

Cones

122
Q
  1. Electrical signals generated by the photoreceptors are sent to the brain via the:
    a) efferent nerve.
    b) optic nerve.
    c) spinal nerve.
    d) autonomic nervous system.
A

Optic nerve

123
Q
  1. Which visual pathway functions at a sub-conscious level?
    a) Fovea
    b) Parallel processing system
    c) Focal system
    d) Ambient system
A

ambient systme

124
Q
  1. Which visual pathway functions to identify objects primarily located in the central region of the visual field?
    a) Fovea
    b) Parallel processing system
    c) Focal system
    d) Ambient system
A

focal system

125
Q
  1. The __________ system serves both central and peripheral visual fields.
    a) fovea
    b) parallel processing system
    c) focal system
    d) ambient system
A

ambient system

126
Q
  1. The visual system that a mountain biker would use to identify changes in the trail or to perceive a rider in front of him or her is the:
    a) fovea.
    b) parallel processing system.
    c) focal system.
    d) ambient system.
A

focal system

127
Q
  1. An individual whose dominant eye is opposite that of his or her dominant hand is considered:
    a) same side dominant.
    b) cross dominant.
    c) multi-dominant.
    d) very rare.
A

cross dominant

128
Q
  1. The rate at which a retinal image enlarges is directly related to the speed of an object’s approach and is indicative of:
    a) time to contact.
    b) fixation.
    c) eye dominance.
    d) optic imagery.
A

Time to contact

129
Q
  1. The optic variable that provides time to contact information by taking the size of the retinal image at any
    position of an object’s approach and dividing it by the rate of change of the image is called:
    a) delta.
    b) tau.
    c) beta.
    d) epsilon.
A

Tau

130
Q
  1. The final fixation located on a specific target or object before the initiation of movement is called:
    a) Time to contact
    b) Absolute gaze
    c) Visual finality
    d) The quiet eye
A

quiet eye

131
Q
  1. Visual search is:
    a) the focusing of one’s visual attention on a specific object.
    b) a change in the environment that evokes a response.
    c) the manner by which a performer directs his or her visual attention while trying to locate critical regulatory cues.
    d) an inability to focus one’s visual attention on a specific object.
A

the manner by which a performer directs his or her visual attention while trying to locate critical regulatory cues.

132
Q
  1. The focusing of one’s visual attention on a specific object is called:
    a) fixation.
    b) visual search.
    c) visual dominance.
    d) alterations.
A

fixation

133
Q
  1. While executing any rotational movement skill, what type of strategy for appropriate visual attention must be
    used to keep the performer well oriented in order to reduce the dizziness associated with spinning?

a) Continuously visual tracking throughout the execution
b) Continuously visual tracking from the preparation phase to the execution phase of the movement skill
c) Continuously visual tracking from the half point of the execution to the end of the follow through
d) Fixing the visual attention on a specific spot
e) Fixing the visual attention on two or more specific spots

A

Fixing the visual attention on a specific spot

134
Q
  1. The golf putt is an example of a ____________ targeting task.
    a) Fixed
    b) Abstract
    c) Moving
    d) Erratic
A

Abstract

135
Q
  1. Passing the ball to one of the teammates during fast-break in a basketball game is an example of a ____________ targeting task.
    a) Fixed
    b) Abstract
    c) Moving
    d) Erratic
A

moving

136
Q
  1. According to findings of several motor control researches, inexperienced soccer players tend to focus more frequently on the ball and the player passing the ball rather than on the positions and movements of offense and defense players. In addition, the experts were fixating visual search more often on the knee and hip motions of the opponent player in order to accurately anticipate the possible oncoming task(s). Which of the following visual search strategy has been detected and addressed to improve the visual performance?

a) Tactical skills
b) Interceptive skills
c) Targeting skills
d) Spotting

A

interceptive skills

137
Q
  1. Which of the following sends a signal to the CNS indicating how much and how fast a muscle’s length is changing?
    a) The vestibular apparatus
    b) Golgi tendon organs
    c) Muscle spindles
    d) Joint kinesthetic receptors
A

Muscle spindles

138
Q
  1. ________is/ are located in the inner ear and respond(s) to changes in posture and balance.
    a) The vestibular apparatus
    b) Golgi tendon organs
    c) Muscle spindles
    d) Joint kinesthetic receptors
A

The vestibular apparatus

139
Q
  1. Which of the following proprioceptors are found at the junction of the tendon and the muscle?
    a) Muscle spindles
    b) Golgi tendon organs
    c) Joint kinesthetic receptors
    d) The vestibular apparatus
A

golgi tendon organs

140
Q
  1. The proprioceptors located in and around synovial joints that respond to pressure, acceleration/deceleration, and excessive strain on a joint are called:
    a) the vestibular apparatus.
    b) Golgi tendon organs.
    c) muscle spindles.
    d) joint kinesthetic receptors.
A

joint kinesthetic receptors

141
Q
  1. Information is carried away from the CNS to the muscles by:
    a) afferent nerves.
    b) efferent nerves.
    c) ascending pathways.
    d) the dorsal column pathway.
A

efferent nerves

142
Q
  1. Information is taken from the receptors to the CNS by:
    a) afferent nerves.
    b) efferent nerves.
    c) descending pathways.
    d) the pyramidal pathway.
A

afferent nerves

143
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of reflexes?
    a) They are involuntary.
    b) The simplest pathway by which they occur is a reflex arc.
    c) They must be integrated in the brain.
    d) They allow individuals to react to a stimulus very quickly.
A

They must be integrated in the brain

144
Q
  1. An interneuron is a nerve cell that:
    a) transmits sensory information.
    b) transmits motor information.
    c) transmits visual information.
    d) lies between a sensory and motor neuron in a reflex arc.
A

transmits visual information

145
Q
  1. Which reflex would occur if an individual were to touch a hot stove?
    a) A monosynaptic reflex
    b) The parachute reflex
    c) The crossed extensor reflex
    d) The withdrawal reflex
A

The withdraw reflex

146
Q
  1. The simplest pathway by which a reflex occurs is known as the:
    a) afferent pathway.
    b) efferent pathway.
    c) basic arc.
    d) reflex arc.
A

reflex arc

147
Q
  1. Which area of the brain is responsible for higher brain functions?
    a) Brainstem
    b) Diencephalon
    c) Cerebral cortex
    d) Cerebellum
A

Cerebral cortex

148
Q
  1. The area of the brain that plays a key role in the maintenance of posture and balance is the:
    a) diencephalon.
    b) basal ganglia.
    c) cerebral cortex.
    d) cerebellum.
A

cerebellum

149
Q
  1. The area of the brain that plays a key role in the detection and correction of errors is the:
    a) diencephalon.
    b) general interpretive area.
    c) basal ganglia.
    d) cerebellum.
A

Cerebellum

150
Q
  1. If a stroke patient lost his or her ability to consciously feel and localize touch and pressure on the skin, the area of the brain likely affected is the:
    a) primary somatosensory area.
    b) primary motor cortex.
    c) cerebellum.
    d) basal ganglia.
A

Primary somatosensory area

151
Q
  1. The area of the brain that organizes learned coordinated movements that involve complex sequencing of muscles is the:
    a) secondary somatosensory area.
    b) prefrontal cortex..
    c) premotor cortex.
    d) association area.
A

premotor cortex

152
Q
  1. The _________ plays a key role in regulating the intensity (scaling) of movement parameters.
    a) primary motor area
    b) primary somatosensory area
    c) cerebellum
    d) basal ganglia
A

basal ganglia

153
Q
  1. Parkinson’s disease is a result of under stimulation of the:
    a) primary motor area.
    b) primary somatosensory area.
    c) cerebellum.
    d) basal ganglia.
A

basal ganglia

154
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of short-term memory?
    a) It has a limitless capacity.
    b) Information can only be stored in it for 20-30 seconds unless it is given further attention.
    c) Active processing is necessary to transfer information from the short-term memory to the long-term memory.
    d) Information is transmitted to the short-term memory after being selectively attended to in the sensory register.
A

It has a limitless capacity

155
Q
  1. Which memory system is also labeled as working memory because of its active role in information processing?
    a) Sensory register
    b) Short term memory
    c) Long term memory
    d) Functional memory
A

short term memory

156
Q
  1. Information in long-term memory that serves as a type of blueprint to help a person know how to do a task is represented as ________ information.

a) episodic
b) semantic
c) procedural
d) kinesthetic

A

procedural

157
Q
  1. _______________ memory contains information about personal experiences and events associated with a specific time and context.
    a) Semantic
    b) Procedural
    c) Episodic
    d) Declarative
A

episodic

158
Q
  1. Factual knowledge, such as your school colors, is retained in your ___________ memory.
    a) semantic
    b) procedural
    c) episodic
    d) declarative
A

Sematic

159
Q
  1. Which of the following enables a performer to make, executes, and evaluates strategic and movement decisions?
    a) Short-term memory
    b) Long-term memory
    c) Both A and B
    d) Neither A nor B
A

Both A & B

160
Q
  1. Of the following types of motor skills that will probably be remembered better over a long period of time with no practice?
    a) Fine motor skills
    b) Serial motor skills
    c) Discrete motor skills
    d) Continuous motor skills
A

Continuous motor skill

161
Q
  1. _____________________ occurs when old memories interfere with the retention of new ones.

a) Proactive inhibition
b) Retroactive inhibition
c) Forwards interference
d) Backwards interference

A

Retroactive inhibition

162
Q
  1. Which term is used in the motor learning research literature when referring to an observed behavior?
    a) Practice
    b) Learning
    c) Performance
    d) Skill
A

Performance

163
Q
  1. In the __________ stage of Fitts and Posner’s model, performance is inconsistent and characterized by the production of numerous errors which are typically gross in nature.
    a) Cognitive
    b) Associative
    c) Autonomous
    d) Affective
A

Cognitive

164
Q
  1. Johnny has been playing soccer for 3 years. This year he is being introduced to a new skill, heading a soccer ball. With respect to heading the soccer ball, what stage of learning is Johnny in?
    a) Cognitive
    b) Associative
    c) Autonomous
    d) Johnny is between stages.
A

Cognitive

165
Q
  1. Which of the following is an essential component of the definition of learning?
    a) It can be observed during practice.
    b) It can be directly observed.
    c) It results in relatively permanent improvement.
    d) It results in consistently correct performance.
A

It results in relatively permanent improvement

166
Q
  1. If a learner’s movements lack synchronization and appear choppy and deliberate that learner is most likely in which stage of learning?
    a) Cognitive
    b) Associative
    c) Autonomous
    d) Affective
A

Cognitive

167
Q
  1. In the _________ stage of Fitts and Posner’s model, the learner becomes committed to refining one particular movement pattern.
    a) Cognitive
    b) Associative
    c) Autonomous
    d) Affective
A

Associative

168
Q
  1. A learner who is capable of detecting some errors but still struggling to determine how to fix them is in what stage of learning?
    a) Cognitive
    b) Associative
    c) Autonomous
    d) Expert
A

Associative

169
Q
  1. For a learner in the autonomous stage of learning, the role of the practitioner:
    a) is minimal.
    b) still involves practice design and error detection correction.
    c) is to facilitate the learner’s understanding of the basic requirements of the skill.
    d) is to develop the learner’s error detection and correction capabilities.
A

Still involves practice design and error detection correction

170
Q
  1. In the autonomous stage, attentional focus is:
    a) reallocated to strategic decision-making.
    b) solely directed to skill execution.
    c) split between skill execution and strategic decision-making.
    d) overtaxed to the point of exceeded the learner’s attentional capacity.
A

Reallocated to strategic decision making

171
Q
  1. Once a learner reaches the autonomous stage of learning, a key responsibility of the practitioner is to
    a) develop a learner’s error detection and correction capabilities.
    b) motivate.
    c) demonstrate.
    d) The practitioner is no longer needed once a learner reaches this stage.
A

Motivate

172
Q
  1. Which of the following is a role that the practitioner NO LONGER plays when a learner is in the associative stage of learning?
    a) Providing feedback
    b) Providing initial instructions
    c) Developing a learner’s error detection and correction capabilities
    d) Designing effective practice experiences
A

Providing initial instructions

173
Q
  1. The first stage of Gentile’s stages of learning model is called:
    a) getting the idea of the movement.
    b) beginning.
    c) cognitive.
    d) initial.
A

Getting the idea of the movement

174
Q
  1. Gentile says that in the first stage of learning, the learner must learn to discriminate between which two types of conditions in the environmental context?
    a) Real vs. not real
    b) Regulatory vs. nonregulatory
    c) Visual vs. verbal
    d) Environmental vs. internal
A

Regulatory vs nonregulatory

175
Q
  1. In the fixation/diversification stage of Gentile’s stages of learning model, which instructional strategy is recommended for closed skills?
    a) Fixation
    b) Diversification
    c) It depends on if the skill is classified as discrete.
    d) It depends on whether the regulatory conditions of the skill change across trials
A

Fixation

176
Q
  1. In the fixation/diversification stage of Gentile’s Stages of Learning model, which instructional strategy is recommended for closed skills with inter-trial variability?
    a) Fixation.
    b) Diversification.
    c) Getting the idea of the movement.
    d) Distinctionism.
A

Diversification

177
Q
  1. Variations in both regulatory and non-regulatory conditions should be systematically introduced for:
    a) closed skills.
    b) closed skills with inter-trial variability.
    c) open skills.
    d) All of the above
    e) B and C only
A

YOU HAD ALL OF THE ABOVE

LOGAN HAD B AND C ONLY

178
Q
  1. For a closed skill with no inter-trial variability, which of the following conditions should be practiced?
    a) Fixed regulatory conditions and varying non-regulatory conditions
    b) Varying regulatory conditions and fixed non-regulatory conditions
    c) Fixed regulatory conditions and fixed non-regulatory conditions
    d) Varying regulatory conditions and varying non-regulatory conditions
A

Fixed regulatory conditions and varying non-regulatory conditions

179
Q
  1. For an open skill, which of the following conditions should be practiced?
    a) Fixed regulatory conditions and varying non-regulatory conditions
    b) Varying regulatory conditions and fixed non-regulatory conditions
    c) Fixed regulatory conditions and fixed non-regulatory conditions
    d) Varying regulatory conditions and varying non-regulatory conditions
A

Varying regulatory conditions and varying non-regulatory conditions

180
Q
  1. For closed skill with inter-trial variability, which of the following should be practiced?
    a) Fixed regulatory conditions and varying non-regulatory conditions
    b) Varying regulatory conditions and fixed non-regulatory conditions
    c) Fixed regulatory conditions and fixed non-regulatory conditions
    d) Varying regulatory conditions and varying non-regulatory conditions
A

Varying regulatory conditions and varying non-regulatory conditions

181
Q
  1. As a person practices a skill, an important change that occurs is the capability to
    a) succeed on every attempt.
    b) detect and correct errors.
    c) involve more muscles in the action.
    d) direct attention to individual parts of the movement.
A

detect and correct errors

182
Q
  1. In the early stages of skill acquisition a learner:
    a) freezes the degrees of freedom.
    b) releases the degree of freedom.
    c) develops the degrees of freedom.
    d) increases the degrees of freedom.
A

freezes the degrees of freedom

183
Q
  1. Performing a skill with a minimum expenditure of energy is usually associated with which stage of learning?
    a) Beginning stage
    b) Intermediate stage
    c) Advanced stage
    d) Any of these three stages
A

advanced stage

184
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of beginners?
    a) They are mechanically inefficient.
    b) They are inconsistent.
    c) Their movements are performed with little or no conscious control.
    d) They expend a large amount of energy.
A

The movements are performed with little or no conscious control

185
Q
  1. Fixing the possible movements of a joint so that the limb(s) will function as a single unit or segment is called:
    a) fixation.
    b) freezing the degrees of freedom.
    c) releasing the degrees of freedom.
    d) blocking.
A

Freezing the degrees of freedom

186
Q
  1. What term is used when a performance reaches a steady state after showing steady improvement during practice and then begins to show improvement again?
    a) Steady-state performance
    b) Floor effect
    c) Ceiling effect
    d) Performance plateau
A

Performance plateau

187
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of performance curves?
    a) The general direction of the curve is indicative of improvement.
    b) By examining successive trials, consistency can be inferred.
    c) The most common curve is the negatively accelerating curve.
    d) They are useful for establishing that a relatively permanent change has taken place.
A

They are useful for establishing that a relatively permanent change has taken place

188
Q
  1. A period of time during the learning process in which no overt changes in performance occur is called:
    a) learning cessation.
    b) termination.
    c) performance plateau.
    d) freezing the degrees of freedom.
A

Performance plateau

189
Q
  1. Which type of performance curve shows larger increases in performance during early practice trials than in later trials?
    a) Negatively accelerating curve
    b) Positively accelerating curve
    c) Ogive curve
    d) Linear curve
A

Negatively accelerating curve

190
Q
  1. Which of the following can result in a performance plateau?
    a) Ceiling effect
    b) Floor effect
    c) Fatigue
    d) All of the above
A

All of the above

191
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to infer that learning has occurred?
    a) Post test
    b) Retention test
    c) Transfer test
    d) B and C only
A

YOU HAD B

Logan had B and C only

192
Q
  1. Which of the following is administered directly following the practice period?
    a) Pretest
    b) Post test
    c) Retention test
    d) Transfer test
A

Post test

193
Q
  1. A patient is pre- and post- tested on his execution of a sit to stand transfer. Following the post-test, the patient is then tested on his ability to perform the sit to stand transfer from a novel chair height. This latter test is called a:
    a) retest.
    b) retention test.
    c) novel test.
    d) transfer test.
A

Transfer Test

194
Q
  1. Which of the following would best measure learning?
    a) A pretest
    b) A post test
    c) A retention test
    d) A plateau
A

Retention Test

195
Q
  1. Which of the following measures the degree to which the learner can adapt the practiced skill to a different performance situation?
    a) Pretest
    b) Post test
    c) Retention test
    d) Transfer test
A

Transfer Test

196
Q
  1. Which method of assessing learning is used when people are required to perform a skill one week after they completed practicing that skill?
    a) Practice observation
    b) Retention test
    c) Transfer test
    d) Performance test
A

Retention test

197
Q
  1. Beginners have difficulty discriminating between environmental cues that are relevant and those that are irrelevant to performance.
    a) True
    b) False
A

True

198
Q
  1. An important performance characteristic associated with learning is that the person becomes increasingly more capable of adapting performance of the skill to new performance contexts and situations.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

199
Q
  1. Numerous performance changes can be assessed to infer learning, including changes in coordination and control, muscle activity, energy expenditure, consistency, attentional focus, knowledge and memory, error detection and correction and self-confidence.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

200
Q
  1. Although a learner can perform a skill consistently, it does not necessarily mean that the skill is being performed accurately.
    a) True
    b) False
    c) Depends on the skill
A

TRUE

201
Q
  1. Consciously attending to specific aspects of a well-learned movement can be detrimental to performance.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

202
Q
  1. An individual’s preference for receiving and processing new information is called his or her:
    a) learning style.
    b) modal strength.
    c) instructional style.
    d) learning strength.
A

You had Instructional Style

Logan Had Learning STYLE

203
Q
  1. Which of the following would be a strategy that could be implemented to accommodate a kinesthetic learner?
    a) Videos
    b) Consequent sounds
    c) Simulations
    d) Questioning strategies regarding cause & effect
A

Simulations

204
Q
  1. Which type of learner uses a problem-solving approach when learning a new movement?
    a) Visual learner
    b) Kinesthetic learner
    c) Analytical learner
    d) Auditory learner
A

Analytical learner

205
Q
  1. Which of the following are true of global learners?
    a) They learn more easily when they are first presented with the big picture and then asked to concentrate on details.
    b) They prefer rules and guidelines.
    c) They prefer to have information presented in a step-by-step, sequential manner that builds towards a main concept.
    d) Humor, anecdotes, and graphics are not helpful.
A

They learn more easily when they are first presented with the big picture and then asked to concentrate on details.

206
Q
  1. One of the easiest learning style variables to accommodate for motor skill learning is:
    a) emotionality preferences.
    b) environmental preferences.
    c) perceptual mode.
    d) analytical mode.
A

Perceptual Mode

207
Q
  1. Which of the following would be a strategy that could be implemented to accommodate an analytical learner?
    a) Videos
    b) Consequent sounds
    c) Simulations
    d) Questioning strategies regarding cause & effect
A

Questioning strategies regarding cause & effect

208
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of learning styles?
    a) Unless accommodated, learning will not occur.
    b) Accommodating them can result in achievement of greater learning.
    c) Perceptual mode may be one of the easiest to accommodate for motor skill learning.
    d) An eclectic approach should be used in situations involving large groups.
A

Unless accommodated, learning will not occur

209
Q
  1. The preferred mode through which learners take in and process information is called:
    a) information pathway.
    b) modal inclination.
    c) information zone.
    d) modal strength.
A

Modal Strength

210
Q
  1. The cue words “pace” and “tempo” would be associated with which preferred mode?
    a) Visual
    b) Kinesthetic
    c) Analytical
    d) Auditory
A

Auditory

211
Q
  1. When the learning of a new skill or its performance under novel conditions is influenced by past experience with another skill or skills it is known as:
    a) selective attention.
    b) perceptual mode.
    c) transfer.
    d) analogies.
A

Transfer

212
Q
  1. The general rule of thumb for predicting positive transfer between two tasks is that the degree of positive transfer is related to the
    a) number of component parts of the two tasks.
    b) amount of practice on each of the two tasks.
    c) degree of similarity of the performance contexts of the two tasks.
    d) degree of similarity between the parts of the two tasks.
A

Degree of similarity between the parts of the two tasks

213
Q
  1. Transfer can be:
    a) positive.
    b) negative.
    c) zero.
    d) All of the above
A

All of the above

214
Q
  1. If a learner’s past experience with badminton temporarily interferes with their learning of tennis, __________ is said to have occurred.
    a) contractual interference
    b) variable practice
    c) negative transfer
    d) avoidance
A

Negative transfer

215
Q
  1. One would expect ________ transfer between a slap shot in hockey and the butterfly stroke in swimming
    a) positive
    b) negative
    c) zero
    d) bilateral
A

Zero

216
Q
  1. Negative transfer can be expected for which of the following situations?
    a) Learning to play volleyball after having played basketball.
    b) Learning to throw a javelin after having been a baseball pitcher.
    c) Learning to hit a tennis forehand after having played badminton.
    d) None of these situations will involve negative transfer.
A

Learning to hit a tennis forehand after having played badminton

217
Q
  1. If a learner’s past experience with ice-skating facilitates the learning of rollerblading, _____________ is said to occur.
    a) positive transfer
    b) negative transfer
    c) zero transfer
    d) all of the above
A

Positive transfer

218
Q
  1. Which of the following are based on the principles of transfer?
    a) Skill progressions
    b) Lead up games
    c) Simulators
    d) All of the above
    e) B and C only
A

All of the aboave

219
Q
  1. Which of the following can be examined to determine the degree of similarity between two skills and assess the potential for positive transfer?
    a) The fundamental movement pattern
    b) The strategic and conceptual aspects of the game or task
    c) The perceptual elements
    d) The temporal and spatial elements
    e) All of the above
A

All of the above

220
Q
  1. Transfer is more beneficial for:
    a) beginning learners.
    b) intermediate learners.
    c) advanced learners.
    d) It is equally effective for all learners.
A

Beginning learners

221
Q
  1. To what extent would you expect transfer to occur to a game situation from a volleyball drill that requires teammates to form a circle and bump the ball to the next person in a clockwise direction?
    a) High
    b) Medium
    c) Low
    d) Average
    e) Zero
A

Low

222
Q
  1. When using transfer it is important that:
    a) references used are only motor skills.
    b) the skills referred to are well learned.
    c) transfer is used in all cases.
    d) learners are in either the intermediate or advanced stages of learning.
A

Skill referred to are well learned

223
Q
  1. In racquetball and squash, the learner must ensure that an implement meets with an object at both the ideal time and location. These two skills would therefore have similar:
    a) fundamental movement patterns.
    b) strategic and conceptual aspects.
    c) perceptual elements.
    d) temporal and spatial elements.
A

Temporal and spatial elements

224
Q
  1. Effective communication occurs when messages are:
    a) detailed.
    b) lengthy.
    c) matched to the level of the learner.
    d) all of the above.
A

Matched to the level of the learner

225
Q
  1. An instructor that tells students to “shake hands with the racket” is using:
    a) a simulator.
    b) the eclectic approach.
    c) resemblance cue.
    d) an analogy.
A

An analogy

226
Q
  1. Performance of a new experience that is hindered by experience with a previous skill is an example of ________ transfer.
    a) negative
    b) positive
    c) zero
A

Negative

227
Q
  1. __________ transfer can be expected if two tasks involve many similar stimulus components.
    a) Positive
    b) Negative
    c) Zero
A

You had PoSITIVE

LOGAN HAD NEGATIVE

228
Q
  1. An important characteristic of ________ transfer is that the effect is typically temporary.
    a) Positive
    b) Negative
    c) Zero
A

Negative

229
Q
  1. When working with groups, practitioners should instead use an eclectic approach whereby the mode through which information presented is constantly varied so that all modes are used.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

230
Q
  1. No two individuals possess identical learning styles.
    a) True
    b) False
A

True

231
Q
  1. Negative transfer effects are temporary and can be overcome with practice.
    a) True
    b) False
    True
A

True

232
Q
  1. It is just as important to point out the differences between two skills as it is the similarities when attempting to capitalize on transfer.
    a) True
    b) False
A

True

233
Q
  1. Efforts to design instructional methodology that capitalizes on positive transfer should be made in all situations.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

234
Q
  1. Attempting to capitalize on positive transfer is not always cost effective.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

235
Q
  1. We can historically trace the view that transfer occurs because of the similar characteristics of two skills to Thorndike’s identical elements theory.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

236
Q
  1. One characteristic of a skill that typically will lead to negative transfer when it is changed is the timing structure of a skill.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

237
Q
  1. A learner’s level of motivation has no bearing on how receptive he or she is to instruction.
    a) True
    b) False
A

False

238
Q
  1. All learners are motivated to learn the skills presented to them.
    a) True
    b) False
A

FALSE

239
Q
  1. Transfer of learning tests provides an effective means of assessing the learning of a skill following practice.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

240
Q
  1. The only reason why positive transfer occurs is that the components of the skills or the contexts in which a skill is performed have a high degree of similarity.
    a) True
    b) False
A

FALSE

241
Q
  1. One of the reasons for negative transfer is the initial cognitive confusion that occurs when a person must make a different movement in a familiar environmental context.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

242
Q
  1. Inter-task transfer is the comparison of different types of practice conditions that may affect the learning of a skill.
    a) True
    b) False
A

FALSE

243
Q
  1. Retroactive transfer is the influence of one skill on the learning of performance of a skill that has previously been learned.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

** YOU HAD FALSE BUT KAMAL TOLD US TRUE

244
Q
  1. Motivation is sustaining skill-learning habits and the enthusiasm to adapt to changing circumstances and demands.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

245
Q
  1. Too many extrinsic rewards can decrease intrinsic motivation.
    a) True
    b) False
A

TRUE

246
Q
  1. Extrinsic motivation is defined that an inner striving to be competent and self-determining; a sense of achievement.
    a) True
    b) False
A

FALSE

Motor LEARNING (2 decks)

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