FINAL Flashcards
1
Q
- To ensure that you have the learners’ attention before introducing a new skill you should:
a) arrange the learners in an area free of background distractions.
b) arrange learners so that their backs are to the sun.
c) ensure that all learners can see and hear you.
d) all of the above.
A
All of the above
2
Q
- In order to ensure that the learner understands the instructions given, the practitioner should:
a) be as detailed as possible.
b) use developmentally appropriate terminology.
c) incorporate only technical terminology used in the sport.
d) change the cue words used throughout the explanation.
A
Use developmentally appropriate terminology
3
Q
- Initial instructions that are highly detailed:
a) capture a learner’s interest.
b) motivate a learner to try the skill.
c) challenge the learner’s attentional capacity.
d) are necessary for the learner to develop an idea of how to perform the sk
A
Challenge the learner’s attentional capacity
4
Q
- An internal focus of attention directs a learner to:
a) concentrate on a specific body movement.
b) focus on the effects of his or her actions on the environment.
c) change attentional focus according to his/her level of arousal.
d) selectively attend to specific environmental information or focus one’s visual attention on a specific object.
A
Concentrate on a specific body movement
5
Q
- Providing learners with a frame of reference:
a) allows them to compare the correctness of their actions.
b) is the same thing as providing them with a learning mode.
c) should only be used with learners who are in the autonomous stage .
d) should only be done during a retention test.
A
Allows them to compare the correctness of their actions
6
Q
- Telling learners that they should feel their weight on their hands not in their armpits when using crutches is an example of providing:
a) a demonstration.
b) verbal rehearsal.
c) a frame of reference.
d) a check for understanding
A
A frame of reference
7
Q
- Verbal cues should be:
a) concise.
b) used repeatedly.
c) accurate.
d) all of the above.
e) A and C only
A
All of the above
8
Q
- Which of the following is NOT true of verbal cues?
a) They should be concise.
b) They are used prompt a movement or movement sequence.
c) They should be used repeatedly.
d) They are the same thing as key elements.
A
They are the same thing as key elements
9
Q
- A learning model emphasizes:
a) movement imitation.
b) movement exploration.
c) movement replication.
d) movement time.
A
Movement exploration
10
Q
- A learning model characteristically:
a) has a high level of skill proficiency.
b) performs the skill correctly.
c) results in the active engagement of the observer.
d) all of the above.
A
results in the active engagement of the observer
11
Q
- The initial demonstration should be:
a) performed in real time.
b) performed at a slower speed.
c) broken into parts.
d) broken into parts and performed at a slower speed
A
Performed in real time
12
Q
- Which of the following is true of an effective demonstration?
a) A circular formation is considered the most effective.
b) High status models are preferable.
c) It is not necessary to demonstrate a skill from multiple angles.
d) If there are both right and left limb dominant learners, the skill should be demonstrated from both sides.
A
If there are both right and left limb dominant learners, the skill should be demonstrated from both sides
13
Q
- When demonstrating the free throw, the learners should be positioned so that they can view the shot from:
a) behind.
b) the shooting hand side.
c) the front.
d) multiple viewing angles.
A
Multiple viewing angles
14
Q
- After the initial demonstration, practitioners should avoid product options on subsequent demonstrations. What does this mean?
a) The outcome of the skill is eliminated.
b) Verbal cues are no longer presented.
c) Student learners should not be used.
d) The skill should be broken down into parts.
A
The outcome of the skill is eliminated
15
Q
- Which of the following is the LEAST effective formation?
a) Full circle
b) Semi-circle
c) Two lines, one lower than the other
d) All of the above are equally effective
A
Full Circle
16
Q
- Discovery learning is:
a) a strategy where the learner attempts to solve a movement problem through the exploration of a variety of possible task solutions.
b) a part-practice technique that reduces the level of difficulty of a task on some aspect for the learner.
c) a part-practice technique that separates the skill into parts according to spatial or temporal elements.
d) a part-practice technique where skill components that are normally performed simultaneously are partitioned and practiced independently.
A
A strategy where the learner attempts to solve a movement problem through the exploration of a variety of possible task solutions
17
Q
- Guided discovery:
a) should not be used with beginning learners.
b) is a technique where the practitioner designs a sequence of questions, each of which elicits a single correct response discovered by the learner.
c) creates a situation where the learner becomes actively involved in problem solving through exploration.
d) B and C only
e) all of the above.
A
Is a technique where the practitioner designs a sequence of questions, each of which elicits a single correct response discovered by the learner.
18
Q
- Which of the following is important to do before skill instruction begins?
a) Perform a demonstration.
b) Give the learners feedback.
c) Capture the learner’s undivided attention.
d) Have the learner engage in imagery.
A
Capture the learner’s undivided attention
19
Q
- Effective instructions:
a) can only be given by an expert.
b) send clear messages to the learner.
c) are highly detailed.
d) always incorporate technical terminology.
A
Send clear messages to the learner
20
Q
- When instructions are used to introduce a learner to a new skill, the practitioner should:
a) explain all of the different criterion conditions in which the skill may be used.
b) supply only the key elements of the skill.
c) give as much detail regarding the skill as much as possible.
d) avoid comparing the skill to previously learned skills
A
Supply only the key elements of the skill.
21
Q
- Which of the following is true?
a) Beginning learners are able to discriminate between relevant and non-relevant stimuli.
b) Trial and error is the best strategy for efficient skill learning.
c) Practitioners should focus learner’s attention to the critical elements of the motor skill being learned.
d) When introduced to a new skill, learners can identify relevant stimuli without the help of the practitioner, but cannot identify irrelevant stimuli without direction.
A
Practitioners should focus learner’s attention to the critical elements of the motor skill being learned.
22
Q
- An external focus:
a) directs a learner’s attention to the effects of his or her actions on the environment.
b) directs a learner’s attention to factors beyond the learner’s control.
c) directs a learner’s attention on his or her own body movements.
d) directs a learner’s attention to external factors in the environment such as the position of defenders.
A
Directs a learner’s attention to the effects of his or her actions on the environment.
23
Q
- Which of the following statements is true?
a) Conscious awareness is necessary for learning about the environmental regulatory features of a motor skill.
b) Practitioners should instruct learners to focus on specific environmental cues.
c) Providing a variety of performance situations that contain critical environmental regulatory cues is confusing and should be awarded.
d) The learner’s attention should be directed at information rich areas to learn critical environmental regulatory cues.
A
The learner’s attention should be directed at information rich areas to learn critical environmental regulatory cues.
24
Q
- Which of the following techniques would be optimal to check for understanding?
a) Asking learners specific questions regarding the instructions just given
b) Asking learners if they have any questions regarding the instructions just given
c) Letting the learners try an activity and then clarifying the instructions if necessary
d) It is not necessary to check for understanding.
A
Asking learners specific questions regarding the instructions just given
25
Q
- The name of the theory that suggests the development of a cognitive representation of a skill from seeing a demonstration or model is:
a) the dynamic interpretation of modeling.
b) the social cognitive theory of observational learning.
c) the representational modeling theory.
d) the blueprint theory.
A
The social cognitive theory of observational learning
26
Q
- The key to the use of a learning model is:
a) that the individual is able to correctly perform the skill.
b) that the observer views another learner practicing the skill.
c) that the observer views the teacher practicing the skill.
d) that the observer views another learner practicing the skill and hears the corresponding instructor feedback.
A
That the observer views another learner practicing the skill and hears the corresponding instructor feedback.
27
Q
- Which of the following are true with respect to sound?
a) Consequent sounds can provide learners with a frame of reference for error diagnosis.
b) Sound can be used to emphasize the internal rhythm of a skill.
c) Sound can supplement a demonstration.
d) All of the above are true.
A
All of the above are true
28
Q
- Which of the following should be avoided when giving a demonstration?
a) Repetition of cue words
b) Focusing of the learner on key aspects of the movement
c) Designing the demonstration so that the outcome is eliminated
d) Using the phrases “like this” and “like that” in conjunction with the demonstration
A
Using the phrases “like this” and “like that” in conjunction with the demonstration
29
Q
- What question(s) a practitioner must answer when designing a demonstration?
a) What Should Be Demonstrated?; and Who Should Demonstrate?
b) How Should the Demonstration be Organized?
c) When Should Be Demonstrated?; and How Often Should Be Demonstrated?
d) All of the above
e) All of the above and How Long Should Be Demonstrated?
A
All of the above
30
Q
- Structure a cue phrase / critical element can be based on four parts as behavior objectives: action, content, qualification, and special conditions. What does the “content” refer to?
a) description of the desirable motion
b) a short descriptions of how success can be gauged.
c) a short description of what is doing the action.
d) added to the teaching cues if more information is needed to evaluate the performance.
A
A short description of what is doing the action.
31
Q
- How many issue(s) can be used to justify the identification of critical elements or desirable technique:
a) safety or risk of injury to the performer (their exact sequence or coordination),
b) effectiveness (biomechanical principles) in accomplishing the goal of the movement
c) efficiency of goal attaintment (using economical energy to correctly perform a movement)
d) a, b, and c
e) rhythm and speed of the skill
A
a, b, and c,
32
Q
- Evidence from research investigating observational learning has shown that one reason why observing a skilled person demonstrate a skill benefits the learning of that skill is that the observer perceives and uses
a) invariant relationships in the observed movement pattern.
b) kinematic details of the movement of a critical limb segment.
c) kinetic information about the movement pattern.
d) All of these
A
Invariant relationships in the observed movement pattern.
33
Q
- Which of the following is the most likely to show learning benefits from observing a skilled performer?
a) All motor skills.
b) All motor skills when verbal instructions are also given.
c) Motor skills that require the learning of a new coordination pattern.
d) Motor skills that require the learning of new parameter characteristics.
A
Motor skills that require the learning of new coordination pattern.
34
Q
- The view that modeling benefits skill learning because the model helps the learner develop an accessible representation in memory that will serve as a guide for performing the skill is known as the
a) cognitive mediation theory.
b) symbolic coding theory.
c) dynamic view.
d) behavioral view.
A
Cognitive mediation theory
35
Q
- Which of the following attention-related concepts is essential to apply to the delivery of verbal instructions about how to perform a motor skill?
a) Attention switching
b) Limited attention capacity
c) Attentional spotlight
d) All of these
A
Limited attention capacity
36
Q
- Research has shown that to achieve the best learning of skills that require the performer to emphasize speed and accuracy the initial verbal instructions should emphasize
a) speed rather than accuracy.
b) accuracy rather than speed.
c) both speed and accuracy.
d) neither speed nor accuracy.
A
Accuracy rather than speed.
37
Q
- Verbal cues seem to work because they
a) direct attention to relevant information in the environment.
b) prompt a specific sequence of movements to be performed.
c) Both A and B.
d) Neither A nor B.
A
Both A & B
38
Q
- Verbal cues said out loud while a person is learning or performing a skill can help
a) beginners learn a new skill.
b) skilled performers perform well-learned skills.
c) both beginners and skilled performers.
d) neither beginners nor skilled performers.
A
Both beginners and skilled performers.
39
Q
- A beginner can benefit from observing another beginner practice a skill especially when the observer can hear the
a) general verbal instructions given to the other beginner.
b) augmented feedback (skill-related) given to the other beginner.
c) both A and B.
d) beginner who makes an interpretation about his or her performance
e) neither A nor B; beginners cannot benefit from observing other beginners practice.
A
Augmented feedback (skill0related given to the other beginner.
40
Q
- From a perception point of view, the benefit of observing a skilled demonstration is that the visual system picks up information about the ________ characteristics of the skill.
a) coordination
b) control
c) speed
d) error detection
A
Coordination
41
Q
- Which of the following is not an advantage about breaking a skill down into parts?
a) Simplifies the skill
b) Allows a learner to experience early success leading to increased motivation
c) Permits practice on problematic components without wasting time on those already mastered
d) Focuses on retaining the underlying dynamics of the skill when components are highly interdependent
A
Focuses on retaining the underlying dynamics of the skill when components are highly interdependent
42
Q
- Part-practice would be recommended when a skill is considered to have:
a) high task complexity / low task organization.
b) low task complexity / high task organization.
c) Both A & B are correct.
d) Neither A nor B are correct.
A
High task complexity / low task organization
43
Q
- Task complexity is directly correlated with:
a) the degree to which the sub-components of a skill are interdependent.
b) the number of sub-components that make up the skill.
c) the frustration level of the learner.
d) the age of the learner.
A
the number of sub-components that make up the skill
44
Q
- Part practice can be advantageous as it:
a) retains the underlying dynamics of a skill.
b) increases a task’s complexity.
c) will lead to greater positive transfer than whole practice.
d) permits practice on problematic components without wasting time on those already mastered.
A
Permits practice on problematic components without wasting time on those already mastered.
45
Q
- The degree to which the sub-components of a skill are interdependent is called:
a) task complexity.
b) task structure.
c) task analysis.
d) task organization.
A
task organization
46
Q
- Which of the following skills would be considered high in task complexity?
a) Putting
b) Hopping
c) High Jumping
d) Picking up a cup
A
high jumping
47
Q
- Which of the following is considered low in task organization?
a) Throwing a discus
b) Pole vaulting
c) A jump serve in volleyball
d) An aerobics sequence
A
an aerobics sequence
48
Q
- Whole practice would be recommended when a skill is considered to have:
a) high task complexity/ low task organization.
b) low task complexity/ high task organization.
c) Both A and B are correct.
d) Neither A nor B are correct.
A
Low task complexity/ high task organization
49
Q
- The progressive part method is an example of:
a) segmentation.
b) fractionization.
c) simplification.
d) attention cueing.
A
segmentation
50
Q
- When making a decision as to whether to use whole or part practice, a practitioner should assess the task’s complexity, its organization, and:
a) the amount of time available to learn the skill.
b) practice frequency.
c) practice duration.
d) the capability of the learner.
A
the capability of the learner
51
Q
- The part-practice technique that separates skills into parts according to spatial or temporal elements is called:
a) simplification.
b) attention cueing.
c) segmentation.
d) fractionization.
A
segmentation
52
Q
- Learning to serve a volleyball from half court before moving to the baseline is an example of :
a) segmentation.
b) fractionization.
c) simplification.
d) attention cueing.
A
simplification
53
Q
- If a part-practice strategy is recommended for practicing a skill is best, the parts of the skill that should be practiced separately from other parts are
a) relatively independent parts.
b) any of the parts of the skill.
c) parts that are high in difficulty.
d) organized chunks of highly related parts of the skill.
A
relatively independent parts
54
Q
- The part-practice technique where skill components that are normally performed simultaneously are partitioned and practiced independently is called:
a) simplifiation.
b) attention cueing.
c) segmentation.
d) fractionization.
A
fractionization
55
Q
- The part-practice technique that reduces the level of difficulty of the task or some aspect of the task for the learner is called:
a) simplification.
b) attention cueing.
c) segmentation.
d) fractionization.
A
simplification
56
Q
- ______________ occurs when practice on one limb enhances the rate of skill acquisition with the opposite limb on the same task.
a) Attention cueing
b) Fractionization
c) Segmentation
d) Bilateral transfer
A
bilateral transfer
57
Q
- The part-practice technique where the learner directs his or her attention to a specific aspect of a skill during its performance as a whole is called:
a) simplification.
b) attention cueing.
c) segmentation.
d) fractionization.
A
attention cueing
58
Q
- According to the speed accuracy tradeoff, for tasks requiring spatial accuracy:
a) accuracy will be compromised if a task is attempted with too much velocity.
b) accuracy will be enhanced if a skill is performed at a high velocity.
c) accuracy is not affected by velocity.
d) an increased velocity leads to an increase in accuracy.
A
accuracy will be compromised if a task is attempted with to much velocity
59
Q
- The technique where two parts are practiced separately then combined once a criterion level has been achieved is called (the):
a) progressive part method.
b) repetitive part method.
c) backward chaining.
d) whole practice.
A
progressive part method
60
Q
- Hitting a ball off of a tee is an example of:
a) simplification.
b) attention cueing.
c) segmentation.
d) fractionization.
A
attention cueing
61
Q
- Which of the following is governed by the speed-accuracy tradeoff?
a) Temporal accuracy
b) Spatial accuracy
c) Cognitive accuracy
d) Both A and B
A
spatial accuracy
62
Q
- Fitts’ Law specifies that performance will show a speed-accuracy trade-off in a rapid manual aiming task according to the relationship between which two characteristics of the task?
a) Distance to move and target size
b) Distance to move and movement speed
c) Target size and movement speed
d) Target size and type of target
A
Distance to move and target size
63
Q
- If a skill should not be physically separated for part practice, an alternative means of achieving the benefits of part practice is to
a) talk about the problems you have with each part of the skill.
b) observe a demonstration of the part of the skill you are having difficulty with.
c) direct your attention specifically to a part of the skill you are having difficulty with.
d) have your instructor tell you what needs to be done to improve a specific part of the skill.
A
direct your attention specifically to a part of the skill you are having difficulty with.
64
Q
- A greater degree of bilateral transfer is believed to occur:
a) from the preferred to the non-preferred limb.
b) from the non-preferred limb to the preferred limb.
c) equally well regardless of which limb was practiced first.
d) when the limbs are practiced alternatively.
A
From the preferred to the non-preferred limb.
65
Q
- Bilateral transfer occurs between:
a) limbs.
b) people.
c) behaviors.
d) theories.
A
limbs
66
Q
- Which of the following statements reflects the appropriate view of the spatial and temporal control underlying the performance of an asymmetric bimanual action?
a) The two arms prefer to move independently of each other.
b) The two arms prefer to move together as one unit.
c) The preferred arm always dominates the other arm.
d) The two arms cannot perform an asymmetric bimanual action.
A
The two arms prefer to move together as one unit
67
Q
- The playing of a guitar is a good example of performing
a) an asymmetric bimanual skill.
b) a symmetric bimanual skill.
c) a prehension skill.
d) a manual aiming skill.
A
an asymmetric bimanual skill
68
Q
- The cognitive explanation for bilateral transfer proposes that bilateral transfer occurs because the required
a) task components are similar.
b) cognitive components are similar.
c) cognitive effort is similar.
d) attention demands are similar.
A
cognitive components are similar
69
Q
- Bilateral transfer can be related to the concept of the generalized motor program (GMP) because muscle selection in performing a skill is
a) a parameter of the GMP.
b) an invariant characteristic of the GMP.
c) involved in selecting the appropriate GMP.
d) dependent on having the appropriate GMP selected.
A
a parameter of the GMP.
70
Q
- Performance goals are concerned with:
a) the final result of a competition relative to one’s opponent.
b) self-improvement.
c) directing a performer’s focus on achieving some technical element during skill execution.
d) winning.
A
self-improvement
71
Q
- Goals should be:
a) challenging.
b) specific.
c) measurable
d) all of the above
A
all of the above
72
Q
- Goals that are concerned with the final result of a competition relative to one’s opponent are called:
a) process goals.
b) performance goals.
c) long term goals.
d) outcome goals.
A
outcome goals.
73
Q
- A patient whose goal is to increase the number of steps she can take unassisted has set a:
a) process goal.
b) performance goal.
c) long term goal.
d) outcome goal.
A
performance goal
74
Q
- Goals that direct a performer’s focus to achieving some technical element during skill execution are called:
a) process goals.
b) performance goals.
c) long term goals.
d) outcome goals.
A
process goals
75
Q
- Goals that focus on self-improvement are called:
a) process goals.
b) performance goals.
c) long term goals.
d) outcome goals.
A
performance goals
76
Q
- The Neuromuscular Theory of imagery suggests that the act of visualizing oneself executing a movement:
a) allows the learner to develop an understanding of a movement’s requirements.
b) allows activation of the same neural pathways as the movement itself.
c) allows the learner to test movement problems.
d) allows the learner to develop performance strategies.
A
allows activation of the same neural pathways as the movement itself.
77
Q
- The technique that involves the visualization or cognitive rehearsal of a movement in the absence of any physical execution is called:
a) reflection.
b) observation.
c) imagery.
d) visual imagery.
A
imagery
78
Q
- In an experiment, when an all-mental practice condition is compared to an all-physical practice condition and a no practice condition, the typical results show that participants in the all-mental practice condition learn the skill
a) as well as those in the all-physical practice condition but better than those in the no practice condition.
b) not as well as those in the all-physical practice condition but better than those in the no practice condition.
c) not as well as those in the all-physical practice condition and about the same as those in the no practice condition.
d) better than those in either the all-physical practice or the no practice conditions.
A
not as well as those in the all-physical practice condition but better than those in the no practice condition
79
Q
- If a combination mental-physical practice condition is added to the experimental conditions described in question number 38, participants in this condition would learn the skill
a) as well as or better than those in the all-physical practice condition.
b) about as well as those in the all-mental practice condition.
c) about as well as those in the no practice condition.
d) None of these; it depends on the combination of the amount of mental and physical practice.
A
as well or better than those in the all-physical practice condition.
80
Q
- When skilled athletes were surveyed about their use of mental imagery, which general type(s) of imagery did they tend to use most often?
a) Motivation
b) Cognitive
c) Both motivation and cognitive
d) The type of imagery used was sport-specific.
A
Motivation
81
Q
- Imagery ability has been shown to
a) have no relationship to mental practice effectiveness.
b) relate to mental practice effectiveness for some but not all skills.
c) have a minimal relationship to mental practice effectiveness.
d) have a positive correlation with mental practice effectiveness.
A
have a positive correlation with mental practice effectiveness.
82
Q
- Mistakes are an integral part of the learning process.
a) True
b) False
A
True
83
Q
- Practice makes perfect.
a) True
b) False
A
False
84
Q
- Research has shown that mental practice is effective as a performance preparation strategy but not as an aid to learning a new motor skill.
a) True
b) False
A
False
85
Q
- Only the neuromuscular hypothesis is generally accepted as an explanation of the effectiveness of mental practice for motor skill learning and performance.
a) True
b) False
A
False
86
Q
- Research evidence has demonstrated that when a practice condition is experienced in which the likelihood of
making errors early in practice is high, transfer performance is
a) worse than that of a practice condition that kept errors to a minimum.
b) better than that of a practice condition that kept errors to a minimum.
c) not different from that of a practice condition that kept errors to a minimum.
d) like starting to practice the skill all over again.
A
Better than that of a practice condition that kept errors to a minimum
87
Q
- Regulatory conditions in a motor skill performance situation include
a) speed of a tennis ball during a rally.
b) score of a baseball game.
c) number of spectators at a game.
d) All of these.
A
Speed of a tennis ball during a rally
88
Q
- According to Gentile, developing variable practice experiences for closed skills should focus on varying
a) all aspects of the skill.
b) the regulatory conditions related to the skill.
c) the nonregulatory conditions related to the skill.
d) no specific aspects of the skill.
A
nonregulatory conditions related to the skill
89
Q
- The practice schedule where multiple variations of a given task are practiced is called:
a) constant practice.
b) blocked practice.
c) variable practice.
d) random practice.
A
random practice
90
Q
- When implementing variable practice, which of the following should be manipulated for closed skills that
involves inter-trial variability?
a) Regulating conditions
b) Non-regulatory conditions
c) Both regulatory and non-regulatory conditions
d) Variable practice should not be used for closed skills with inter-trial variability
A
both regulatory and non-regulatory conditions
91
Q
- Which of the following should be manipulated for open skills when designing variable practice experiences?
a) Regulatory conditions
b) Non-regulatory conditions
c) Both regulatory and non-regulatory conditions
d) Variable practice should not be used with open skills.
A
both regulatory and non-regulatory condidtions
92
Q
- An example of a non-regulatory condition that could be incorporated into the variable practice schedule for a
quarterback would be:
a) the presence of defenders.
b) the crowd noise level.
c) the distance of throw to hit a receiver.
d) the area on the field to which the ball must be thrown.
A
the crowd noise level
93
Q
- For open skills, regulatory conditions
a) do not change from one performance to another.
b) can change from one performance to another but do not change during the movement execution.
c) cannot change from one performance to another and do not change during the movement execution.
d) can change from one performance to another and during the movement execution.
A
can change from one performance to another and during the movement execution
94
Q
- Variable practice should be implemented:
a) when the skill is first introduced.
b) once the learner has acquired the basic movement pattern.
c) only when the learner has reached the autonomous stage.
d) only when the learner is having difficulty developing an understanding of the basic movement pattern.
A
once the learner has acquired the basic movement pattern
95
Q
- Which of the following is NOT true of variable practice?
a) It enhances the development of a learner’s schema.
b) It facilitates transfer.
c) It leads to better performance during practice.
d) It enhances a learner’s ability to accurately select appropriate parameter values to accomplish a movement goal.
A
It leads to better performance during practice
96
Q
- When implementing variable practice, which of the following should be manipulated for skills whose
objective is the consistent and accurate replication of a movement pattern?
a) Regulating conditions
b) Non-regulatory conditions
c) Both regulatory and non-regulatory conditions
d) Variable practice should not be used for closed skills with inter-trial variability.
A
Non-regulatory conditions
97
Q
- The interference that results from switching from one skill to another or changing the context in which a task
is practiced from trial to trial is called:
a) task interference.
b) skill obstruction.
c) invasive practice.
d) contextual interference.
A
contextual interference
98
Q
- Contextual interference can be considered as a continuum ranging from low to high for the amount of
interference created by the practice schedule. Which of the following types of schedules describes a low-to
high continuum of practice schedules?
a) Blocked- Serial (Repeated-blocked)-Random
b) Blocked-Random-Serial (Repeated-blocked)
c) Random-Blocked-Serial (Repeated-blocked)
d) Random- Serial-Blocked (Repeated-blocked)
A
blocked-serial (repeated-blocked) - random
99
Q
- In experiments comparing different levels of contextual interference during motor skill practice, the results typically show that the
a) low contextual interference schedule is better during practice, but the high contextual interference schedule shows better transfer performance.
b) high contextual interference schedule is better during practice, but the low contextual interference schedule shows better transfer performance.
c) low and high contextual interference schedules are similar during practice, but the low schedule shows better transfer performance.
d) low and high contextual interference schedules are similar during practice, but the high schedule shows better transfer performance.
A
Low contextual interference schedule is better during practice, but the high contextual interference schedule shows better transfer performance.
100
Q
- Research has shown that blocked practice consistently leads to poor performance
a) for open skills only.
b) for closed skills only.
c) on novel skill variation or performance context transfer tests.
d) on retention tests.
A
For open skills only
101
Q
- In experiments involving beginners learning different types of badminton serves, the worst practice schedule
for a transfer test involving the serves was most closely related to which type of schedule for practicing each
type of serve?
a) Blocked
b) Random
c) Serial / Repeated-blocked practice
d) Blocked-random combination
A
Blocked
102
Q
- In the experiment by Hall et al., which involved skilled baseball players taking extra batting practice to
improve their hitting of three different types of pitches, the results demonstrated that the contextual
interference effect is
a) not applicable to baseball skills.
b) not applicable to skilled performers.
c) applicable to skilled performers.
d) applicable only in laboratory skill learning situations.
A
applicable to skilled performers.
103
Q
- The hypothesis that explains the contextual interference effect based on the argument that between-trial
interference causes us to forget critical information encoded on the previous trial is called the
a) interference hypothesis.
b) elaboration hypothesis.
c) recognition schema forgetting hypothesis.
d) action plan reconstruction hypothesis.
A
action plan reconstruction hypothesis
104
Q
- Which of the following describes blocked practice?
a) One variation of a skill is practiced repeatedly before practice attempts are given on another skill
b) Multiple task variations are performed in a random order
c) Multiple tasks are arranged in blocks according to their similarities
d) Multiple tasks are arranged in an alternating pattern
A
one variation of a skill is practiced repeatedly
105
Q
- Which of following would be an example of implementing random practice to “practice” 3 different skills?
a) Performing 10 successive trials at each of the 3 skills
b) Performing 1 trial of each of the 3 skills over 10 rotations
c) Performing 5 trials of each skill repeating the rotation twice
d) Performing 30 successive trials of 1 skill
A
Performing 10 successive trials at each of the 3 skills
106
Q
- Repeated-blocked practice provides _________ contextual interference.
a) no
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
A
moderate
107
Q
22. If a golfer lines up 30 balls and putts them from the exact same spot on the green to the exact same hole each
time, the golfer is using:
a) constant practice.
b) blocked practice.
c) Repeated-blocked practice.
d) A and B
A
A and B
108
Q
23. Low contextual interference would occur when practice trials are organized following a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
schedule.
a) blocked
b) random
c) repeated blocked
d) variable
A
Blocked
109
Q
- Which of the following would be an example of implementing repeated blocked
practice to practice 3 different skills?
a) Perform 10 successive trials at each of the 3 skills.
b) Perform 1 trial of each of the 3 skills over 10 rotations.
c) Perform 5 trials of each skill repeating the rotation twice.
d) Perform 30 successive trials of 1 skill.
A
Perform 5 trials of each skill repeating the rotation twice
110
Q
25. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ contextual interference should be used with beginners until they get the
idea of the movement.
a) Low
b) Medium
c) High
d) Alternating
A
Low
111
Q
- Which of the following could be manipulated for variable practice?
a) Distance
b) Position of targets
c) The inclusion or exclusion of defenders
d) All of the above
A
All of the above
112
Q
- Greater learning gains are achieved through:
a) constant practice.
b) blocked practice.
c) variable practice.
d) The learning gains will be equal for all of the above responses.
A
Variable practice
113
Q
- The explanation that suggests that random practice facilitates learning by causing temporary between trials
forgetting of task solutions is called the ____________ hypothesis.
a) elaboration
b) forgetting
c) memory
d) action plan reconstruction
A
action plan reconstruction
114
Q
- What does the benefit from overtraining refer to as which of the following types of skill?
a) Procedural skill.
b) Continuous skill.
c) Dynamic skill.
d) Open skill.
A
Procedural skill
115
Q
- When increasing the amount of practice beyond a certain point leads to results that are not proportionally more
beneficial for learning, it can be said that practice has reached a point of
a) overpractice.
b) diminishing returns.
c) limited benefit.
d) saturation.
A
Diminishing returns
116
Q
- If practice schedule A involves two 1-hr practice sessions on each of three days, and schedule B involves one 1-hr practice session on each of six days, the A schedule would be referred to as
a) random practice.
b) blocked practice.
c) massed practice.
d) distributed practice.
A
Distributed practice
117
Q
- Which of the following is the term used to describe practice where the rest component between sessions or practice attempts is equal to or greater than the practice component?
a) Massed practice
b) Alternating practice
c) Distributed practice
d) Restful practice
A
distributed practice
118
Q
- A massed practice schedule would be the most effective for:
a) new & complex skills.
b) tasks that have high-energy requirements.
c) discrete skills.
d) tasks that involve some degree of risk.
A
Discrete skills
119
Q
- Prolonged fatigue:
a) has no effect on skill performance.
b) can cause the learner to practice incorrect motor patterns.
c) enhances performance.
d) should be incorporated in all practice sessions.
A
Can cause the learner to practice incorrect motor patterns
120
Q
- If substitute or alternative equipment causes a distinct change in movement pattern, what should you do?
a) Continue to use it, the learner will figure it out.
b) Stop using it.
c) Use it only sparingly.
d) You should only use the specific equipment designed for that activity.
A
Stop using it
121
Q
- For continuous skills, ______________ poses a greater learning advantage.
a) massed practice
b) distributed practice
c) dispersed practice
d) indolent practice
A
distributed practice
122
Q
- Which of the following best describes a general rule about practice distribution schedules for the length and distribution of practice sessions?
a) Distributed practice schedules are better.
b) Massed practice schedules are better.
c) Both schedules lead to the same amount of learning.
d) The rule would depend on the type of skill being learned.
A
The rule would depend on the type of skill being learned
123
Q
- If Mary practiced a skill for 30 seconds and then had a 5-second rest between each trial, and Sally practiced
the same skill for 30 seconds and had a 40-second rest between each trial, who is in the massed practice
condition, and who is in the distributed condition?
a) Mary’s practice is distributed; Sally’s is massed.
b) Mary’s practice is massed; Sally’s is distributed.
c) Both are in a massed practice condition.
d) Both are in a distributed practice condition.
A
Mary’s practice is massed; Sally’s is distributed
124
Q
- One common problem of much of the research investigating the massed vs. distributed practice issue is
a) too many practice trials.
b) inappropriate tasks to be learned.
c) retention intervals that are not sufficiently long.
d) the lack of a retention or transfer test.
A
Lack of a retention of transfer test.
125
Q
- If the type of skill is taken into account, massed practice and distributed practice schedules benefit the learning
of which types of skills?
a) Continuous skills are learned better with massed schedules; discrete skills are learned better with distributed schedules.
b) Continuous skills are learned better with distributed schedules; discrete skills are learned better with massed schedules.
c) Both continuous and discrete skills are learned better with massed schedules.
d) Both continuous and discrete skills are learned better with distributed schedules.
A
Continuous skills are learned better with distributed schedules; discrete skills are learned better with massed schedules.
126
Q
- When massed practice has hindered the learning of continuous skills, the most probable cause is
a) boredom.
b) anxiety.
c) fatigue.
d) confusion.
A
Fatigue
127
Q
- A well-designed drill:
a) maximizes time on task.
b) involves the participation of all learners.
c) directly targets the learning goal.
d) All of the above
e) A & B only
A
All of the above
128
Q
- Which of the following must be considered when designing practice experiences?
a) The learner
b) The task
c) The environment
d) All of the above
e) A & C only
A
All of the above
129
Q
- Stations are a teaching method that can easily be designed to incorporate both variable and random practice.
a) True
b) False
A
True
130
Q
- Long term retention of a motor skill is best achieved by practicing a skill repeatedly before moving to a
different version of the task or a different task altogether.
a) True
b) False
A
True
131
Q
- Before conducting an observation, the practitioner should identify both the purpose of the skill and:
a) the errors in performance.
b) the abilities of the learner.
c) the type of performance error they expect to see.
d) the key elements of the skill.
A
The key elements of the skill
132
Q
- The optimal viewing perspective from which to observe a skill is:
a) up close.
b) from behind.
c) from the right side.
d) from the left side.
e) dependant on the skill.
A
dependent on the skill
133
Q
- An error that emerges because a bat is too heavy for the learner is considered as a (n):
a) error due to constraints.
b) execution error.
c) comprehension error.
d) sensory error.
A
error due to constraints
134
Q
- Specific body movements that are observable and affect a skills performance are called:
a) cues.
b) key elements.
c) patterns.
d) behaviors.
A
Key elements
135
Q
- Which of the following might assist a learner who is making a comprehension error?
a) Videotape the learner’s performance.
b) Re-explain the skill.
c) Use discovery learning
d) All of the above.
e) A and B only
A
A and B only
136
Q
- Which of the following can be a source for errors in performance?
a) Equipment
b) Fear
c) The structure of a drill or task
d) All of the above
A
All of the above
137
Q
- Which of the following would be considered a sensory error?
a) Inability to distinguish between relevant and irrelevant cues
b) Failure to look at information rich areas in the environment
c) Focusing one’s attention on the wrong cues
d) Failure to see important cues because they occurred faster than the eye can physiologically function
A
failure to see important cues because they occurred faster than the eye can physiologically function
138
Q
- When an error occurs because learners do not understand what you want them to do, the error falls into which of the following categories?
a) Errors due to constraints
b) Comprehension errors
c) Errors in selection
d) Execution errors
e) Sensory Errors
A
Comprehension errors
139
Q
- Which of the following would NOT be considered an advantage of using a video camera in order to eliminate major common error(s)??
a) It permits repetitive viewing.
b) It can be played in slow motion.
c) It can provide the learner with the opportunity to see what he or she is doing incorrectly.
d) It can alter the performance of those not used to being videotaped.
A
It can alter the performance of those not used to being videotaped.
140
Q
- Good decision-making begins with good:
a) abilities.
b) assessment.
c) selection.
d) execution.
A
assessment
141
Q
- The level of arousal of a performer can lead to an error in:
a) comprehension.
b) proprioception.
c) perception.
d) recall.
A
perceptual
142
Q
- If a racquetball player selects the wrong shot to hit in a given situation he or she is making a (n):
a) execution error.
b) decision-making error.
c) implementation error.
d) error in neuromuscular coordination.
A
decision-making error
143
Q
- Which of the following can likely be attributed to a perceptual or decision-making problem?
a) A bat that is too heavy
b) Slow bat speed
c) Slow swing initiation
d) All of the above
A
Slow swing initiation
144
Q
- Perceptual errors occur when the learner:
a) doesn’t know what cues to look for in the environment.
b) can’t distinguish between task relevant and irrelevant stimuli.
c) focuses his or her attention on the wrong cues.
d) All of the above
e) A and B only
A
All of the above
145
Q
- If a racquetball player chooses the appropriate shot for a given situation but mis-hits the ball, he or she is making an error in:
a) selection.
b) assessment.
c) execution.
d) decision-making
A
Execution
146
Q
- Which of the following can result in an error in neuromuscular coordination?
a) The learner has not had enough time to practice the skill.
b) The learner lacks the underlying abilities necessary to develop a high degree of skill proficiency.
c) Negative transfer
d) All of the above
e) A and B only
A
All of the above
147
Q
- Providing reminders is an appropriate correction for:
a) errors due to constraints.
b) recall errors.
c) comprehension errors.
d) errors in neuromuscular coordination.
A
recall errors
148
Q
- Which of the following would NOT be considered an underlying cause of a movement execution error?
a) Insufficient practice
b) Performing the movement too quickly
c) Negative transfer
d) Failure to identify potential predictors
A
failure to identify potential predictors
149
Q
- Teaching a learner how to systematically look for key performance characteristics when assessing a situation will resolve:
a) errors due to constraints.
b) sensory errors.
c) recall errors.
d) decision-making errors.
A
decision-making errors
150
Q
- When a learner is trying to replace an established movement pattern with a new one they will likely display:
a) errors in neuromuscular coordination.
b) errors due to constraints.
c) sensory errors.
d) recall errors.
A
errors neuromuscular coordination
151
Q
- Which of the following would be considered as a sensory error
a) The learner failed to see important cues because he or she was in mid-blink.
b) The learner failed to see important cues because he or she didn’t know where in the environment to look for them.
c) The learner failed to see important cues because he or she didn’t know what to look for.
d) The learner failed to see important cues because he or she didn’t know how to read game situations.
A
The learner failed to see important cues because he or she was in mid-blink.
152
Q
- Vertigo can cause a __________ error.
a) recall
b) telegraphing
c) proprioception
d) vision
A
Proprioception
153
Q
- You are observing an eighth grade basketball practice where the team is practicing free throws. You notice one child is using more of a “shot put” type motion vs. the proper technique. The nets are at regulation height and this particular individual is significantly shorter than the rest of the team. The error you saw (shot putting) is likely:
a) a recall error.
b) a comprehension error.
c) a decision making error.
d) an error due to constraints
A
an error due to constraints
154
Q
- If an error in temporal accuracy is being made, the performer should be advised to:
a) speed up the movement.
b) slow down the movement.
c) break the movement down into parts.
d) This type of error cannot be corrected.
A
speed up the movement
155
Q
- If performers are telegraphing their movements they are:
a) concentrating.
b) analyzing the performance.
c) performing imagery.
d) revealing their intent.
A
revealing their intent
156
Q
- The state tournament is only a week away and you have noticed an error in Sally’s technique that will require a parameter change. You should:
a) fix the error.
b) ignore the error.
c) make a note of the error so you can fix it during the pre-season next year.
d) tell Sally that there is a flaw in her technique but that you are going to wait until next year to work on it.
A
fix the error.
157
Q
- Corrections involving fundamental changes to the motor program:
a) take a long time to fix.
b) can be fixed almost instantaneously.
c) will never be completely fixed.
d) should be ignored.
A
take a long time to fix
158
Q
- When augmented information is provided to the learner during the movement, it is called:
a) intrinsic feedback.
b) outcome feedback.
c) concurrent feedback.
d) terminal feedback.
A
concurrent feedback
159
Q
- The one thing that should be considered prior to correcting a flaw observed in a learner’s performance is:
a) the gender of the learner.
b) the age of the learner.
c) the amount of time needed for the learner to make the correction.
d) the number of learners being observed.
A
The amount of time needed for the learner to make the correction.
160
Q
- A flaw observed in an individual’s performance is not necessarily indicative of the underlying cause of the error.
a) True
b) False
A
True
161
Q
- Intrinsic feedback is:
a) response produced information that is available from one’s sensory system.
b) information received from an external source.
c) information that is only received following the completion of a response.
d) the same as videotape feedback.
A
response produced information that is available from one’s sensory system
162
Q
- Which of the following is NOT an example of augmented feedback?
a) Video tape replay of an individual’s performance
b) Information provided to the learner regarding their performance by the coach
c) The feeling a gymnast gets as she starts to lose her balance when doing a balance beam routine
d) The score received for a dive that is posted by an official
A
The feeling a gymnast gets as she starts to lose her balance when doing a balance beam routine
163
Q
- Knowledge of performance or KP is:
a) information about the outcome of a response.
b) Information about the specific characteristics that led to the outcome.
c) physiological information concurrently fed back to the learner through some form of instrumentation.
d) information about an opponent’s outcome in relation to one’s outcome.
A
information about the specific characteristics that led to the outcome.
164
Q
- Knowledge of results or KR is:
a) information about the outcome of a response.
b) information about the specific characteristics that led to the outcome.
c) physiological information concurrently fed back to the learner through some form of instrumentation.
d) information about an opponent’s outcome in relation to one’s outcome.
A
information about the outcome of a response
165
Q
- Augmented feedback that is presented to the learner following the completion of a response is called:
a) terminal feedback.
b) concurrent feedback.
c) punishment.
d) subsequent feedback.
A
terminal feedback
166
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a function of augmented FB?
a) To provide information regarding the corrections of a response
b) To motivate
c) To reinforce
d) To accommodate learning styles
A
To accommodate learning styles
167
Q
- When augmented information is provided to the learner during the movement, it is called:
a) concurrent feedback.
b) terminal feedback.
c) intrinsic feedback.
d) outcome feedback.
e) biofeedback feedback
A
Concurrent feedback
168
Q
- Which of the following is an example of the use of concurrent augmented feedback?
a) When driving on a narrow, curvy street in a car simulator, seeing different visible signals to indicate when the car is inside or outside the street.
b) When using EMG biofeedback, hearing a beeping sound when the target muscle is activated.
c) When performing a knee-extension device, seeing a knee-angle displacement curve on a computer monitor.
d) All of these.
A
All of these
169
Q
- Which of the following is an example of knowledge of results?
a) “You need to follow through more.”
b) “Did you feel how you were off balance when you hit the ball?”
c) “Your ball landed short of the pin.”
d) “Be sure you contact the ball in front of your shoulder.”
A
Your ball landed short of the pin.
170
Q
- The experiment in which verbal encouragement given to people learning a skill led to a certain amount of
performance improvement but verbal KP led to a greater amount of improvement, the influence of KP in this
situation
a) was essential for skill learning.
b) was not essential for skill learning, but enhanced it.
c) hindered skill learning.
d) None of these
A
was not essential for skill learning, but enhanced it
171
Q
- The statement “Great effort; way to go after that ball!” is an example of:
a) punishment.
b) verbal instructions.
c) positive reinforcement.
d) negative reinforcement.
A
Positive reinforcement
172
Q
12. When augmented feedback serves to encourage a person to continue striving to achieve a performance goal,
augmented feedback functions as
a) a guide to correct errors.
b) motivation.
c) reinforcement.
d) None of these
A
Motivation
173
Q
13. When the performer of a skill is told “your score was 16 on that attempt,” the type of augmented feedback is
known as
a) sensory feedback.
b) augmented sensory feedback.
c) knowledge of results.
d) knowledge of performance.
A
Knowledge of results
174
Q
- In addition to providing information for the correction of performance errors, augmented feedback serves to:
a) criticize.
b) reinforce.
c) motivate.
d) all of the above.
e) B and C only
A
B and C only
175
Q
- Comparisons of augmented feedback that is based on performance errors and correct performance have usually shown that
a) error-based feedback is better for motor skill learning.
b) correct performance feedback is better for motor skill learning.
c) error-based feedback is better early in practice, but correct performance feedback is better later in practice.
d) correct performance feedback is better early in practice, but error-based feedback is better later in practice.
A
error-based feedback is better for motor skill learning.
176
Q
- In the videotape feedback learning stage known as the shock stag:
a) learners begin to critically observe their practice attempts and identify specific performance errors.
b) learners are preoccupied with their appearance and have to get used to seeing themselves on tape.
c) learners begin to understand why an error occurred and begin to generate error correction strategies.
d) learners can consistently identify and correct errors.
A
Learners are preoccupied with their appearance and have to get used to seeing themselves on tape
177
Q
- If videotape is used as augmented feedback for beginners, it should be used
a) in any situation.
b) only in the presence of advanced performers.
c) only with the instructor present.
d) None of these, videotape replays should not be used to help beginners.
A
Only with the instructor present
178
Q
- Which of the following can be used as a source of performance feedback?
a) Equipment
b) Videotape
c) Graphs
d) Consequent sounds
e) All of the above can be used as a source of performance feedback.
A
All of the above can be used as a source of performance feedback
179
Q
- In the sandwich approach to error correction, the learner is first reinforced. He/she is then provided information to
facilitate error correction before finally being________.
a) punished
b) ridiculed
c) consoled
d) encouraged
A
Encouraged
180
Q
- The provision of attention directing cues with videotape feedback (VTFB):
a) has no influence on skill acquisition.
b) facilitates skill acquisition.
c) hinders skill acquisition.
d) only benefits performance.
A
Facilitates skill acquisition
181
Q
- The choice to use either descriptive or prescriptive feedback is dependent on:
a) the type of error.
b) the skill level of the learner.
c) the nature of the skill.
d) the learner’s level of motivation.
A
The skill level of the learner
182
Q
- During the _________ stage of video feedback learning, learners begin to critically observe their practice attempts
and identify specific performance errors. During this stage they cannot yet identify why an error occurred.
a) shock
b) error detection
c) error correction
d) independence
A
error detection
183
Q
- Descriptive feedback:
a) describes the nature of the performance error.
b) offers a suggestion as to how to correct an error.
c) describes how the performance felt.
d) is also known as subjective feedback.
A
describes the nature of the performance error
184
Q
- If the goal of the feedback is to facilitate skill acquisition, the practitioner should provide __________ based information.
a) error
b) achievement
c) reinforcement
d) punishment
A
error
185
Q
- Which of the following statements about descriptive and prescriptive verbal KP is correct?
a) Descriptive verbal KP is preferable to prescriptive verbal KP early in practice.
b) Prescriptive verbal KP is preferable to descriptive verbal KP early in practice.
c) Either descriptive or prescriptive verbal KP is appropriate to use early in practice.
d) Neither descriptive nor prescriptive verbal KP should be used early in practice.
A
Prescriptive verbal KP is preferable to descriptive verbal KP early in practice
186
Q
- If the provision of feedback is based on a predetermined range of “correctness”, a practitioner is using:
a) faded feedback
b) bandwidth feedback.
c) summary feedback.
d) average feedback.
A
bandwidth feedback
187
Q
- If the goal of the feedback is to reinforce, feedback should be:
a) critical.
b) error based.
c) on the correct aspects of the skill.
d) on the fundamental error.
A
on the correct aspects of the skill
188
Q
- When you give a person augmented feedback based on a “performance bandwidth,” you give feedback only when
the person’s performance is
a) outside a specific range of correctness.
b) within a specific range or correctness.
c) Either A or B.
d) Neither A or B.
A
outside a specific range of correctness
189
Q
- Which of the following is true of the development of an overdependence on external feedback?
a) It occurs when a learner receives augmented feedback at a high frequency.
b) Overdependence is positive as a learner becomes more attentive.
c) It forces the learner to focus on his or her own intrinsic feedback.
d) It increases the learner’s ability to self diagnose errors.
A
It occurs when a learner receives augmented feedback at a high frequency
190
Q
- A form of augmented feedback that measures physiological information that is concurrently available to the learner
through some form of instrumentation is called:
a) instrumental feedback.
b) intrinsic feedback.
c) monitoring.
d) biofeedback.
A
biofeedback
191
Q
- The interval of time from the end of one performance attempt to the beginning of the next is known as:
a) the feedback-delay interval.
b) the inter-trial interval.
c) the post-feedback interval.
d) the total response interval.
A
the inter-trial interval
192
Q
32. The interval of time from the provision of augmented feedback to the initiation of the next performance attempt is
called the:
a) feedback-delay interval.
b) inter-trial interval.
c) post-feedback interval.
d) total response interval.
A
post-feedback interval
193
Q
- In order to assist learners in the development of their ability to detect and correct their performance, a practitioner:
a) should give the learner an opportunity to process intrinsic feedback.
b) should ask learners questions during practice to provoke reflective thinking regarding practice attempts.
c) should provide feedback immediately following the performance attempt.
d) A and B only
A
A and B only
194
Q
- One activity shown to actually benefit skill learning when it occurs in the KR-delay interval is
a) practicing another skill that has KR presented on each trial.
b) performing any type of motor skill.
c) performing any type of verbal skill.
d) estimating your own error for the just completed response.
A
estimating you own error for the just completed response
195
Q
- By asking learners what they are thinking about with respect to the upcoming attempt during the post-feedback
interval, a practitioner can:
a) check for understanding.
b) encourage active processing of the feedback provided.
c) encourage active processing for movement modification.
d) All of the above
A
All of the above
196
Q
- The “guidance hypothesis,” which relates to the frequency of KR, takes issue with which traditional viewpoint about
the best frequency for KR?
a) The more frequently KR is given, the better the learning will be.
b) The less frequently KR is given, the better the learning will be.
c) A combination of 100% and relative frequency leads to the best learning.
d) More frequent KR early in practice and less frequent KR later in practice leads to the best learning
A
The more frequently Kr is given, the better the learning will be
197
Q
37. The interval during which the learner synthesizes the information received both intrinsically and extrinsically is
called the:
a) feedback-delay interval.
b) inter-trial interval.
c) post-feedback interval.
d) total response interval.
A
inter-trial interval
198
Q
- If a person throws a series of 50 darts at a target that cannot be seen and is shown the results of each set of 10 throws
at the end of every 10 throws, the augmented feedback technique is called the
a) performance-bandwidth technique.
b) averaged augmented feedback technique.
c) summary augmented feedback technique.
d) self-selected technique.
A
summary augmented feedback technique
199
Q
- Augmented feedback can be redundant.
a) True
b) False
A
True
200
Q
- The more frequently augmented feedback is given, the greater the learning gains.
a) True
b) False
A
False
201
Q
- Augmented feedback should be delivered to learners immediately following their performance attempt.
a) True
b) False
A
False
202
Q
- Augmented feedback that tells a beginner those aspects of the performance that were correct can serve a
motivational role to encourage the person.
a) True
b) False
A
True
203
Q
- It is preferable to give prescriptive verbal KP to beginners rather than descriptive verbal KP.
a) True
b) False
A
True
204
Q
- Giving augmented feedback to a beginner only when he or she requests it is better than giving the augmented
feedback on every trial.
a) True
b) False
A
True
