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Pharm ‘23 > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two properties of an ideal drug?

A

Must work and must be safe

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2
Q

Is selectivity required for FDA approval?

A

No

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3
Q

What is pharmacokinetics defined as?

A

What the body does to a drug

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4
Q

What are the four components of pharmacokinetics?

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

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5
Q

What does pharmacodynamics mean?

A

What the drug does to the body

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6
Q

What is absorption defined as?

A

The movement of a drug from its administration site into the blood

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7
Q

What does the rate of absorption determine?

A

How soon the drug effects begin

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8
Q

What does the amount of drug absorbed determine?

A

The intensity of the drug response

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9
Q

What is a drugs half life?

A

The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50%

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10
Q

How many half lives does it take for a drug to reach steady state?

A

4-5

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11
Q

How many half lives does it take for a drug to be eliminated from the body?

A

4-5

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12
Q

Do beta lactamase inhibitors have antibiotic activity?

A

No

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13
Q

What do beta lactamase inhibitors do?

A

Extend the activity of abx by de-activiting beta lactamase inhibition by bacteria

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14
Q

What is the only beta lactam that has no cross-reactivity with penicillin?

A

Aztreonam

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15
Q

What is a major side effect of daptomysin?

A

Rhabdo

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16
Q

Fluoroquinolones have black box warning for what two things?

A

Tendon rupture and myasthenia gravis

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17
Q

Which abx class can cause hypo and hyperglycemia?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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18
Q

Which class of abx prolongs QT?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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19
Q

Which abx causes a disulfiram effect when drunk with ETOH?

A

Flagyl

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20
Q

How long after taking the last dose of Flagyl can a pt drink ETOH?

A

48 hours

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21
Q

What medication class increases risk of CAP?

A

PPI

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22
Q

What is the duration of therapy for CAP?

A

Minimum of 5 days

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23
Q

What class of drugs increases risk of C. diff?

A

PPI

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24
Q

You need to test for HLAB5701 before starting what HIV drug?

A

Abacavir

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25
Q

Can a pt who tests positive for HLAB5701 be started on Abacavir?

A

No

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26
Q

What will happen if a pt who is positive for HLAB5701 is started on Abacavir?

A

Hypersensitivity rx

27
Q

Does abacavir require dose adjustment for renal insufficiency?

A

No

28
Q

There is an increased risk of adverse cardiovascular events in pts taking which HIV drug?

A

Abacavir

29
Q

Which HIV drug will have its levels increased by ETOH?

A

Abacavir

30
Q

What is the preferred initial ART for HIV?

A

Emtricitabine

31
Q

What other virus is emtricitabine active against?

A

Hep B

32
Q

What happens if you stop taking Hep B meds?

A

You can have a flare up of Hep B

33
Q

Is emtricitabine active against Hep B?

A

Yes

34
Q

Is Lamivudine active against Hep B?

A

Yes

35
Q

What are the two most common side effects of efavarinz?

A

Vivid dreams and CNS effects

36
Q

Which HIV agent has more CNS side effects, efavarinz or rilpivirine?

A

Efavarinz

37
Q

Rilpivirine can only be given to pts with less than what viral load?

A

Less than 100,000 copies/mL

38
Q

Is resistance testing required for all HIV medications?

A

Yes

39
Q

What is salvage therapy?

A

Treatment for people who have already failed ART

40
Q

What kind of environment does atazanavir require for absorption?

A

Acidic

41
Q

What class of med should not be taken with atazanavir?

A

PPIs

42
Q

How long after taking an H2 blocker can a pt take atazanavir?

A

10 hours

43
Q

Protease inhibitors interact most with which drug class?

A

Statins

44
Q

What is a major side effect of ibalizumab?

A

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome

45
Q

Which HIV med contains sulfa?

A

Darunavir

46
Q

What is the only two agent HIV med approved for initial therapy?

A

Dovato

47
Q

If a pt with HIV has Hep B as well, how many agents do they need to be on that are active against Hep B?

A

Two

48
Q

How much time do you have to initiate post exposure HIV prophylaxis after exposure?

A

72 hours

49
Q

Can you combine ACE and ARB for BP control?

A

No - too many risks

50
Q

Nifedipine in large doses increases risk of what?

A

MI in pts with cardiovascular disease

51
Q

What is considered a large dose of nifedipine?

A

Over 80mg/day

52
Q

ACE/ARB should not be combined with which other anti-HTN?

A

Aliskiren

53
Q

Can you give renin inhibitor with ACE or ARB?

A

No

54
Q

Why should you not give renin inhibitor with ACE or ARB?

A

Increased risk of cardiovascular adverse events

55
Q

What is the preferred initial agent for HTN in black pts?

A

Calcium channel blockers

56
Q

How long to wait when switching from ACEi to ARNi and why?

A

36 hours to prevent angioedema

57
Q

Can you give ACEi or ARNi if pt has hx of angioedema?

A

No

58
Q

What percent of strokes are caused by afib?

A

15-20%

59
Q

VKORCI and CYP2C9 affect dose variation of what drug?

A

Warfarin

60
Q

Which DOAC needs to be stored in its original container?

A

Pradaxa

61
Q

Which DOAC cannot be given in a pt with CrCl above 95?

A

Edoxaban

62
Q

Pt must have 2 of what three factors to get a dose of Eliquis of 2.5 rather than 3?

A

Cr > 1.5, weight < 60kg, age 80

63
Q

What is the only DOAC superior to Warfarin?

A

Eliquis

Pharm ‘23 (2 decks)

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