Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the outer ear composed of?

A

Pinna

Ear Canal

Ear Drum

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2
Q

What is the outer ear responsible for?

A

Gathering sounds from the environment and funneling them down into the ear canal

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3
Q

Another word for Pinna

A

The Auricle

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4
Q

What is the pinna made of?

A

Made entirely of cartilage

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5
Q

The concha

A

Aids in localization of sounds that come from in front, behind, below and above the head

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6
Q

Anatomy of the pinna

A

Makes it more efficient at delivering high-frequency sounds than low-frequency sounds

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7
Q

The EAC (External Auditory Canal)

A

also known as external auditory meatus

elliptical shape tubed that begins at the concha and extends down to the tympanic membrane

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8
Q

What is the Tympanic Membrane also known as?

A

The eardrum

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9
Q

What is the greatest surface area of the Tympanic Membrane called?

A

Pars Tensa

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10
Q

Pars Flaccida

A

Also knowsn as shrapnells membrane is looser and contains only the epidermal and mucous membrane layers

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11
Q

What is the tympanic membrane held in place by?

A

Annulus

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12
Q

Umbo

A

the point where the bottom end of the manubrium forms the center of the eardrum

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13
Q

What does a healthy normal eardrum look like?

A

cone shaped and will produce a visible phenomenon or light reflex (cone of light)

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14
Q

Cone of light

A

anterior inferior quadrant

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15
Q

3 layers of the tympanic membrane

A

Ectoderm: cutaneous, continuous of the external auditory canal

Endoderm: mucous, continuous with the tympanic cavity

Mesoderm: fibrous, radial fibers, concentric fibers

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16
Q

Disorders of the Auricle

A

Microtia: congenital deformity where the pinna is underdeveloped

Antonia: congenital in nature , pinna is entirely absent

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17
Q

Dysfunctions of the External Auditory Canal

A

Stenosis

Collapsing ear canals

Hematoma

Cerumen Impaction

Foreign Bodies

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18
Q

Atresia

A

Absence of the external auditory canal

Unilateral is more common than bilateral

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19
Q

Growths in the External Auditory Canal

A

Osteoma: Bony Tumor

Exostoses: outward projections for the surfaces of bone

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20
Q

External Otitis

A

An infection that occurs in the skin of the external auditory canal

Develops in people who have water trapped in their ears

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21
Q

Middle Ear

A

Carries vibrations from the outer ear to the inner ear by transferring the sound energy from the air in the outer ear to the fluids in the inner ear

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22
Q

Epitympanic Recess

A

Space in the middle ear above the tympanic membrane

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23
Q

Middle Ear Cleft

A

Eustachian Tube and Middle ear

Lined with mucous membrane

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24
Q

Endoterm

A

Middle ear space and Eustachian tube form from the pharyngeal arch which is lined with endoterm

Dilated epithelium lines these spaces

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25
Q

Ossicles

A

First form as cartilage of the first and second pharyngeal arch

Begin to differentiate by the 12th fetal week, fully formed by the 16th week and total ossification if the malleus take place by week 21

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26
Q

Middle Ear Space

A

Lateral wall (membranous wall) encompasses the tympanic membrane

The roof is a thin layer of bone

Below the floor is the jugular bulb

Behind the anterior wall is the cartoid artery’s

The inner ear lies behind the media, wall

The mastoid process lies behind the posterior wall

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27
Q

The Ossicular Chain

A

Vibrations from the tympanic membrane set the ossicular chain into vibration

Contains:
Malleus (Mallet/Hammer): the manubrium is embedded in the middle,e layer of the tympanic membrane

Incus (anvil): the short crus attached to the posterior ligament of the incus, the long crus articulates with the stapes at the lenticular process

Stapes (stirrup): base forms a footplate which sits on the oval window

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28
Q

Middle ear system

A

Serves the important functions of matching the low impedance of the air in the external ear canal to the high impedance of the fluid within the inner ear

30dB would be lost

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29
Q

What is the Eustachian tube also known as?

A

Auditory tube or pharyngotympanic tube

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30
Q

Eustachian tube

A

Connects the middle ear space to the nasopharynx and is ciliated and lined with mucous

1/3 bone 2/3 cartilage

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31
Q

Opening and Closing of the Eustachian Tube

A

Legatos Veli Palatini & Salpingopharyngeus

Tnesor tympani & Tensor Veli Palatini

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32
Q

Windows of the middle ear

A

Cochlear promontory: portion of the inner ear which protrudes in the middle space

Oval Window: Membrane covered opening that indicates the end of the middle ear and beginning of the inner ear

Round Window: sealed by the secondary tympanic membrane which vibrates with opposite phase to vibrations entering the inner ear through the oval window

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33
Q

Mastoid Process (Bony Protuberance)

A

back part of the temporal bone

attaches to various muscles and has openings for the transmission of blood vessels

filled with mastoid cells

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34
Q

Non Auditory Structures (Middle Ear)

A

Facial Nerve

Chorda Tympani Nerve

Stapedius Muscle

Tensor Tympani Muscle

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35
Q

Disorders of the Middle Ear

A

Negative Middle Ear Pressure: Poor function of the eustachian tube

Facial Palsy: weakness of the facial muscles

Patulous Eustachian Tube: chronically open eustachian tube

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36
Q

What is the inner ear made up of?

A

semicircular canals and the cochlea

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37
Q

What is the function of the inner ear?

A

transduce the mechanical energy delivered from the middle of the ear into a form of energy that can be interpreted by the brain

reports information regarding the body position and movement in space to the brain

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38
Q

Bony Labyrinth

A

rigid bony outer wall in the temporal bone

consists of:
vestibule, semicircular canals and cochlea

39
Q

Membranous Labyrinth

A

collection of fluid filled tubes and chambers which contain the receptors for the senses of equilibrium and hearing

lodged within the bony labyrinth

consists of:
utricle and saccule

40
Q

Vestibular Mechanism

A

the vestibular system sends signals primarily to the neural structures that control eye movements

contributes to out sense of balance and spatial orientation

41
Q

What 2 components are the vestibular components composed of?

A

Semicircular canals: rotational movements
superior X
Posterior Y
Horizontal/Lateral Z

Otoliths: linear accelerations
Saccule
Utricle

42
Q

Cochlea

A

part of the inner ear involved in hearing

spiral shaped cavity which is made up of the bony and membranous labyrinth

43
Q

organ of the corti

A

the sensory organ of hearing which is distributed along the partition separating the fluid chambers in the cochlea and runs from the bottom to the top

Scala Vestibuli: lies superior to the cochlear duct and connects with the oval window
Scala Tympani: lies inferior to the cochlear duct and terminates at the round window
Scala Media: a region of high potassium ion concentration that the stereocilia of the hair cells project into

44
Q

Reissners membrane

A

separates the scala vestibuli from the scala media

45
Q

Basilar Membrane

A

main structural element that separates the sala media from the scala tympani and determines the mechanical wave propagation properties of the cochlear partition

46
Q

Cochlear Tonotpy

A

Higher frequencies cause movement in the base of the cochlea and lower frequencies work at the apex

47
Q

Outer Hair Cells

A

primarily innervated by efferents, originating from neuronal cells found in the brain stem

responsible for the sharpening of the traveling wave and further enhance frequency discrimination

48
Q

Inner Hair Cell

A

innervated by approximately 95% of the spiral ganglion cells

transduce basilar membrane vibration into electrical activity

49
Q

Audiological Evaluation

A

aid in the process of making decisions regarding:

the type of hearing loss present
the extent of the hearing loss
developing a plan

50
Q

Audiogram

A

a graph that shows the softest sounds a person can hear at different pitches or frequencies

the closer the marks to the top of the graph, the softer the sounds that person can hear

51
Q

normal hearing

A

-10 to 15 dB

52
Q

slight hearing loss

A

16 - 25 dB

53
Q

mild hearing loss

A

26 - 40 dB

54
Q

moderate hearing loss

A

41 - 55 dB

55
Q

moderate severe hearing loss

A

56 - 70 dB

56
Q

severe hearing loss

A

71 - 90 dB

57
Q

profound hearing loss

A

higher than 90

58
Q

Normal Hearing (Audiometric presentation)

A

bone conduction and air conduction match and are within the normal range of hearing

little to no air bone gap is present

59
Q

Cause of Conductive Hearing Loss

A

Fluid in the middle ear from colds, allergies, poor ET, ear infection

impacted earwax

infection in the ear canal

60
Q

Conductive HL (Audiometric)

A

usually involves a reduction in sound level

bone conduction is normal and air conduction is depressed due to the reduced amplitude of sound energy

61
Q

Sensorineural HL (Audiometric)

A

Occurs when hair cells, neural fibers or their connections to the cochlea are damaged

Bone conduction matches air conduction and is usually present as a sloping hearing loss

62
Q

Causes for Sensorineural HL

A

Aging

Noise exposure

Genetic conditions

Congenital and birth related hearing loss

Drugs and medication

63
Q

Causes for mixed HL

A

A mixed loss is the type of hearing loss associated with a mixture of a conductive and sensorineural hearing loss

64
Q

Mixed HL (Audiometric)

A

Used only when both conductive and sensorineural hearing losses are present

Bone conduction and air conduction are both depressed and a difference exists between the two

65
Q

Vestibular Ocular reflex

A

Required for clear vision
and enables us to maintain our desired position in space
Stabilizes images on the retina during head movement

66
Q

Length

A

Frequency increases as length of the vibrating portion of the string is shortened

Frequency decreases as the vibrating portion of the string is lengthened

67
Q

Mass

A

The mass of an object also affects the frequency of vibrations. Thicker guitar strings produce lower-frequency vibrations, whereas thinner guitar strings produce higher frequency vibrations

68
Q

Stiffness

A

The frequency of vibrations increases directly as stiffness of the object is increased and Vice versa.

If tension is decreased, vibration frequency decreases.

69
Q

Otoscopy

A

To identify abnormalities which may require alternate Audiometric procedures or influence the results obtained

To identify conditions which may require medics, referral

70
Q

Air Condition

A

Conducted using headphones or speakers

Ear specific information can be obtained with headphones

71
Q

Bone Conduction

A

Signals are delivered directly to the cochlea, bypassing the outer and middle ear and delivered via bone oscillator

The bone oscillater is placed on the mastoid behind the test ear

Responses are recorded by the site in which the bone oscillator is placed

Bone conduction must be obtained to determine the type of HL

72
Q

Tuning Forks

A

When the skull is set into vibration as by a bone conduction vibrator or a tuning fork, the bones of the skull become distorted resulting in the distortion of:

-the structures of hearing within the cochlea of the inner ear (distortions, bone conduction)
-this distortion can also set the stapes

73
Q

Tuning Fork Tests

A

Rinne Test
Weber Test
Audiometric Weber

74
Q

Acute Otitis Media

A

Acute Otitis Media: an infection of rapid onset that usually presents with ear pain

Signs include building of the tympanic membrane

Treat by wait and see

75
Q

Otitis Media w/Effusion

A

also known as serious otitis media

A collection of usually non infected fluid accumulation that can occur in the middle ear and mastoid air cells due to negative pressure produced by dysfunction of the Eustachian tube

Treatment: wait and see, possibly ademoidectomy

76
Q

Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media

A

Chronic inflammation causing mucosal edema, ulceration and perforation of the middle ear and mastoid cavity

Discharge

Antibiotics

77
Q

Complications of Middle Ear Surgery

A
  • Cause hearing loss
78
Q

What is the inner ear also known as?

A

Labyrinth

79
Q

Afferent System

A

Traveling upwards towards the brain

80
Q

Ipsilateral

A
81
Q

Contralateral

A
82
Q

Audiometric Testing Booth

A

Booths are not soundproof but rather sound proofed or sound treated

The room is designed to minimize reverberation

83
Q

Test Booth

A

vary in size

windows to see and communicate with the patient

doors with acoustic seal

84
Q

Position of the Patient

A

Patient should not be able to oversee the audiologist so as to obtain any cue

Patient should still remain observable by the audiologist

85
Q

Why is HIPPA needed?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

HIPPA was created primarily to modernize the flow of health care information

86
Q

Adult Case History

A

General:
What brings you in?

Medical

Other

87
Q

Pediatric Case Study

A

Utero health and birthing process

Development and Milestones

Overall Health

Parent Observations

Observations by others

88
Q

Non organic HL (Malingering)

A

Patients who claim to have hearing loss but actually have normal hearing or lesser degree hearing loss than is being presented

89
Q

Objective Tests for Malingers

A

Auditory Evoked Potentials: The auditory pathway is stimulated under headphones and responses are recorded, evaluated, and interpreted by the audiologist

Otoacoustic Emissions: can serve as a screener for person suspected of falsifying their results

90
Q

Threshold Measurement Procedures

A

Present the tone

If they do not respond, increase the intensity

When a positive responses is obtained from the examiner, drop 10 dB, if they can’t hear it raise 5 dB

Count this response towards the threshold

91
Q

Hughson Westlake Method of obtaining threshold

A

THRESHOLD IS DEFINED AS THE
LOWEST INTENSITY AT WHICH
THE TONE HAS BEEN HEARD BY
THE PATIENT AT LEAST 50% OF
THE TIME FOLLOWING A MINIMUM
OF THREE ASCENDING
PRESENTATIONS AT THAT LEVEL
(E.G., AT LEAST 2 OUT OF 3, 2

92
Q

Speech Detection Threshold (SDT)/Speech Awareness Threshold (SAT)

A

Lowest level at which a patient can barely detect the presence of speech and identify it as speech

Useful when a patient cannot engage in other speech measuring tasks

93
Q

Speech Recognition Threshold (SRT)

A

Lowest hearing level at which speech can be understood

Uses 2 syllable words

94
Q

Speech Recognition Score

A

Estimating the communicative ability of the individual at normal conversational level