Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Aristotle’s theory of justice

A

justice = equity = to give (give people proportional resources based on need)

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2
Q

Immanuel Kant’s theory of justice

A

law must be separate from any moral argument

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3
Q

Immanuel Kant’s theory of justice

A

law must be separate from any moral argument (needs to be objective)

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4
Q

Legal positivism

A

follow the law with no exceptions for sympathy

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5
Q

procedural justice

A

processes are more important than case outcomes (fair processes)

critical for trust-building & increasing the legitimacy of law enforcement

neutrality, respect, voice, trustworthiness

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6
Q

restorative justice

A

emphasizes repairing the harm caused by criminal behavior

bringing those affected together

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7
Q

restorative justice

A

emphasizes repairing the harm caused by criminal behavior

bringing those affected together (victim assistance, community services, group therapy)

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8
Q

transitional justice

A

process used to address human rights violations & crimes committed during time of conflict/dictatorship/mass violence

provides recognition & reparations to victims, promotes accountability for those responsible, & creates institutional reforms to prevent future crimes

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9
Q

general goal of the criminal justice system

A

protection of the public by investigating & punishing people who commit crimes, & preventing crimes from happening

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10
Q

mala in se crimes

A

traditional crimes that are “wrong in themselves” or by nature

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11
Q

mala prohibita crimes

A

prohibited by law, but some of society may disagree

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12
Q

three goals of the criminal justice system

A

doing justice (upholding society’s interests in a fair & just manner)

controlling crime (identifying, prosecuting, convicting, & punishing offenders in a fair, equitable, & legal manner)

preventing crime (fair, equitable, and lawful prosecutions & punishments that can serve as an example to society)

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13
Q

federalism

A

power divided between national/federal & state governments

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14
Q

order of federal courts

A

U.S. District Courts => U.S. Courts of Appeals => U.S. Supreme Court

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15
Q

order of state courts

A

State Trial Courts => State Appellate Courts => State Supreme Courts => U.S. Supreme Courts

(hold the majority of responsibility)

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16
Q

discretion

A

an official’s authority to make decisions using their own judgment (police, prosecutors, judges)

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17
Q

resource dependence

A

agencies depend on other agencies for funding

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18
Q

sequential tasks

A

decisions are made in a specific order

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19
Q

filtering

A

screening process that gradually exits people out of the system (unreported crimes, unsolved crimes, dismissed crimes, diversion of crimes, acquittal of crimes)

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20
Q

Steps of the criminal justice system

A
  1. Investigation
  2. Arrest
  3. Booking
  4. Charging
  5. Initial Appearance
  6. Preliminary Hearing or Grand Jury
  7. Information or Indictment
  8. Arraignment
  9. Trial
  10. Sentencing
  11. Appeal
  12. Corrections
  13. Release
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21
Q

investigation

A

police investigate the allegation of a crime being committed (can be arrested here if there is a lot of evidence or if they are seen committing the crime)

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22
Q

arrest

A

due to sufficient evidence/probable cause, an offender is physically taken into custody (can be same moment as investigation)

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23
Q

booking

A

offender taken to jail, photographed, & fingerprinted

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24
Q

charging

A

prosecutor decides if the case will adjudicated

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25
Q

prosecutor

A

responsible for proving the crime happened & of charging the suspect

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26
Q

initial appearance

A

defendant brought before the judge (initial contact w/judge)
-formally notified of charges & bail
-advised of rights
-judge decides if there is enough evidence to proceed

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27
Q

preliminary hearing

A

when a judge decides if there is probable cause that the accused committed the alleged crime

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28
Q

grand jury

A

a jury decides whether there is enough evidence to file the indictment

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29
Q

preliminary hearing or grand jury?

A

Federal = judge
State = judge or jury (always jury if maximum is >6 months)

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30
Q

indictment/information

A

if the preliminary hearing leads to an information, or the grand jury leads to an indictment

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31
Q

arraignment

A

defendant is read the indictment/information
-Pleads guilty or not guilty
-Plea bargain can be agreed upon any time after this
-90% of crimes stop here w/plea bargain

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32
Q

sixth amendment

A

right to a speedy & public trial, by an impartial jury

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33
Q

judge (role in trial)

A

oversees trial & ensures parties’ rights are protected

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34
Q

bench trial vs. jury trial

A

Bench => judge determines guilt/innocence
Jury => jury determines guilt/innocence

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35
Q

appeal

A

if a defendant is found guilty, they can ask a higher court to review the case to ensure no rights or legal norms were violated (if they were => new trial)

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36
Q

corrections

A

carrying out the judge’s sentence

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37
Q

sentencing

A

judge imposes punishment

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38
Q

probation

A

allows the convict to serve their sentence while not in custody

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39
Q

prison

A

custodial separation from society

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40
Q

parole

A

released early from custodial sentence & allowed to serve the rest while not in custody

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41
Q

steps of the “criminal process”

A

information/indictment, trial, sentencing, corrections

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42
Q

crime control model

A

-Efficient case processing & punishment
-Innocent may be found guilty
-“Assembly line”
-Goal to repress crime
-Values efficiency
-Process depends on police (administrative)
-Major decision point by police/pretrial processes
-Discretion is the basis of decision-making

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43
Q

due process model

A

-Doing justice by protecting individuals’ rights
-Some guilty may go free
-“Obstacle course”
-Goal to preserve individual rights
-Values reliability
-Process is adversarial (many people involved)
-Major decision point in the court room
-Law is the basis of decision-making

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44
Q

principle of legality

A

“no crime without law”

=> Criminal laws should be clear, specific, & non-arbitrary (& can’t be retroactively applied to crimes)

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45
Q

misdemeanor

A

Less serious than a felony. Typically punishable by fine or jail time up to 1 year.

Class A => 6mo-1yr
Class B => 30days-6mo
Class C => 5-30days

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46
Q

felony

A

Serious criminal offense. Typically punishable by more than 1 year (or even death sentence in some states). Murder, robbery, sexual assault, drug trafficking.

Class A => Life/Death
Class B => 25+
Class C => 10-25 years
Class D => 5-10 years
Class E => 1-5 years

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47
Q

infraction (petty offense)

A

punished by 5 days or less of imprisonment, or a fine

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48
Q

visible crimes

A

offenses against persons or property that are difficult to hide (street crimes)
-Violent (homicide, rape, aggravated assault)
-Property (shoplifting, burglary)
-Public-order (vandalism, disorderly conduct)

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49
Q

occupational crimes

A

committed through legal business opportunities (bribery, fraud, insider trading, tax fraud, embezzlement)

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50
Q

organized crimes

A

enterprise of illegal activity (gambling, sex trafficking, money laundering)

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51
Q

transnational crimes

A

planning or execution crosses the borders of countries (sex trafficking, forced labor, drug trafficking)

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52
Q

victimless crimes

A

willing exchange of illegal goods & services (drug sales, prostitution)
-Those involved don’t feel as though they are being harmed

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53
Q

political crimes

A

crimes committed for ideological purposes (treason, espionage)

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54
Q

cybercrime

A

crime that involves the use of the internet (most/largest losses of $)

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55
Q

crime reports

A

Uniform Crime Reports (UCR)
-Annual report from FBI
-Info from NIBRS

National Incident-Based Reporting System (NIBRS)
-Police reporting offense, offender data, & victim data
-If not reported => Not included

National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)
-Created to mitigate unreported crimes
-Interviews victims of reported & unreported crimes

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56
Q

victimology

A

study of the role & impact of crime on a victim

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57
Q

lifestyle-exposure theory

A

unequal distribution of crime & victimization based on victims demographics

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58
Q

routine activities theory

A

crimes arise at times & places where there is a convergence of specific elements

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59
Q

impacts of crimes

A

costs => economic (incarceration, reparations), physical, emotional
fear => limits freedom, less safe

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60
Q

classical criminology

A

criminal behavior is rational & the product of a cost benefit analysis

offenders should always be held accountable & punished because the certainty, not the amount of penalty, is what prevents crime

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61
Q

Cesare Beccaria (1764)

A

“crimes are more effectually prevented by the certainty than the severity of punishment”

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62
Q

positivist criminology

A

used science to study the body, mind, & environment

social, biological, & psychological factors determine the criminal

criminals are different than the other

punishment specific to need of offender

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63
Q

Cesare Lombroso (1835-1909)

A

criminals are at a more primitive state of evolution & they are born criminals

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64
Q

criminogenic

A

born criminals (physical traits or hereditary through disease)

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65
Q

issue with biological explanations

A

exposed as racist & prejudice

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66
Q

psychological explanation

A

crime is caused by unconscious forces & drives (Freud)

Negative life experiences such as abuse, neglect, or trauma, can have a lasting impact on an individual’s psychological well-being & increase their likelihood of engaging in criminal behavior

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67
Q

social structure theories

A

criminal behavior related to social class could construct a reality in which members are more likely to engage in crime (anyone can be a criminal offender)

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68
Q

learning theories

A

criminal activity is learned

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69
Q

differential associations

A

learned from interactions with others

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70
Q

control theories

A

social links keep society in line (church, family, peers) are broken or weakened

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71
Q

labeling theories

A

causes of criminal behavior are found not in the individual, but because persons are labeled as criminals by society (justice system creates lawbreakers)

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72
Q

critical criminology

A

laws & justice made by the powerful to control the weak & impose their morality on society

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73
Q

social conflict theories

A

crimes due to conflict within society (marxist)

those who are in power can use the law to enforce their own interests & are normally against the other classes

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74
Q

feminist theories

A

traditional theories focus on male criminality, but these focus on the ways in which gender influences the commission of crime, the responses of the criminal justice system to crime, & the experiences of women within the criminal justice system

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75
Q

life course theories

A

identify factors that shape criminal activity over the lifetime of an individual

try to identify key factors that positively & negatively affect their behavior

do not correlate crime to one event, but a potential series of events & life choices

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76
Q

integrated theories

A

combine differing theoretical perspectives into larger model

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77
Q

civil law

A

governs business deals, contracts, real estate, & civil harm

78
Q

criminal law

A

substantive (defines actions the gov can punish)
procedural (defines rules that govern how the law will be enforced)

79
Q

elements of a crime (that must be proven)

A

the act
the attendant circumstances
the state of mind

80
Q

inchoate/incomplete offense

A

act of crime not completed (attempted or conspiracy to commit something considered crime)

81
Q

actus reus (principle)

A

there must be an act (commission or ommission)

82
Q

principle of causation

A

causal relationship between the act and the harm

83
Q

principle of harm

A

harm to a legally protected value

84
Q

principle of concurrence

A

intent & act are present at the same time

85
Q

mens rea (principle)

A

guilty state of mind (must have intent/not be an accident)

86
Q

principle of punishment

A

provision in the law calling for punishment (of the crime)

87
Q

justification defenses

A

focus on the ACTION and whether they are socially acceptable under the circumstances

88
Q

excuse defenses

A

focuses on the PERSON and whether they can or can’t be held responsible in the case

89
Q

justification defense examples

A

-Accident/Negligence
-Self-defense
-Necessity

90
Q

excuse defense examples

A

-Duress/Coercion
-Entrapment
-Infancy
-Mistake of Fact
-Intoxication
-Insanity

91
Q

Accident/Negligence defense

A

lack of intent

92
Q

self-defense

A

lack of criminal intent (ATTACK is key word)

force to defend self cannot exceed the reasonable perception of the threat (proportionality)

93
Q

necessity defense

A

can engage in (otherwise) criminal conduct if it was necessary to prevent harm to self or others

94
Q

necessity defense

A

can engage in (otherwise) criminal conduct if it was necessary to prevent harm to self or others (HARM is key word)

chose lesser of 2 evils in situation

95
Q

must be proven for necessity defense:

A

-Faced with immediate threat of harm to self or others
-Had no reasonable alternative
-Harm they sought to prevent was greater than the harm caused by the act

96
Q

duress/coercion defense

A

committed the crime because they were forced to (moral or material coercion)

97
Q

entrapment defense

A

induced by police to commit the crime (different than police waiting for the crime to occur)

98
Q

infancy defense

A

excuses crimes of children under age 7 (common law age)

99
Q

mistake-of-fact defense

A

mistake made in crucial fact (genuine belief would have made the action not a crime)

100
Q

intoxication defense

A

involuntary intoxication (defendant needs credible & sufficient evidence of intoxication to the extent they are unable to distinguish right from wrong)

101
Q

insanity defense

A

mental illness prevented the accused from forming intent (many different tests)

102
Q

procedural criminal law

A

approaches HOW the state must process cases (aren’t always in the law)

defined by courts through judicial rulings, and in the constitution)

103
Q

powell v. alabama (1932)

A

Supreme Court added that states must provide lawyers to defendants (regardless of ability to pay)

104
Q

brady v. maryland (1963)

A

supreme court decided that the due process clause requires prosecutors to disclose exculpatory evidence to the defense (no surprises)

105
Q

apprendi v. new jersey (2000)

A

supreme court decided that the due process clause requires that any fact that increases the maximum penalty for a crime BEYOND the statutory maximum MUST be submitted to a jury (not judge) & proven beyond a reasonable doubt

106
Q

fourteenth amendment

A

no state shall…deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without DUE PROCESS OF LAW; nor deny any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws

107
Q

fourth amendment

A

-Protects against unreasonable search & seizure
-Limits ability for police to detain persons w/o proper justification (warrants)

108
Q

fifth amendment

A

-Right to grand jury trial
-Indictment by grand jury
-Protection from self-incrimination
-Protection from double jeopardy
-Miranda Rights

109
Q

double jeopardy

A

never can be tried/convicted of the same crime twice (unless in other jurisdictions, such as state & federal)

110
Q

miranda rights

A

remain silent, to a lawyer, everything you say can & will be used against you

111
Q

sixth amendment

A

-Right to an attorney (Gideon v. Wainwright)
-Right to a quick & speedy trial
-Right to an impartial jury

112
Q

eighth amendment

A

-No excessive bail or fines
-No cruel or unusual punishment

113
Q

breach of ethics in brazil article

A

Judge & prosecutor working together & giving tips. Judge now a senator & the prosecutor a congressman. In the case, they had a clear bias against the defendant & weren’t supposed to be communicating privately.

114
Q

english legal tradition

A

-Limited authority (defined by law, specifically)
-Local control (no national police)
-Fragmented organization (many different officers & agencies)

115
Q

colonial era policing

A

northern watch system => night observers to warn of crime & fires

southern slave patrols => citizens patrolled to catch & control slaves

116
Q

political era of policing (1840-1920)

A

-Local politicians & police were closely aligned
-Police were hired who supported the politicians

117
Q

u.s. marshals

A

-Formed after Civil War
-Federal officers who were used to enforce federal law in the West

118
Q

professional model era of policing (1920-70)

A

-Progressive concept
-“The police have to get out of politics, and politics has to get out of the police”
-Reducing political influence
-Professional law enforcement officials to benefit all of society
-New tech to solve crimes
-Crime control focus
-Lost ties to community

119
Q

community policing era (1970-present)

A

-Emphasizes close contact btwn police & community members
-Modern police model in most cities
-Community & service is main focus (rather than crime fighting)
-Greater community communication = Police & community brought together to solve criminal behaviors
-Federal gov. encouraged programs & awarded hundreds of millions to local police departments for community policing programs

120
Q

federal bureau of investigation (FBI)

A

investigates all federal crimes not placed under the jurisdiction of other agencies (terrorist attacks, foreign intelligence, espionage, cyber attacks, civil rights, police corruption, etc)

121
Q

drug enforcement administration (DEA)

A

investigated the importation, sale, & trafficking of drugs

122
Q

internal revenue service (IRS)

A

violations of tax law

123
Q

bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, & explosives (ATF)

A

investigates untaxed tobacco, firearm sales, firearm dealers, firearm manufacturers, & illegal possession/manufacturing of explosives

124
Q

department of homeland security

A

includes customs & border protection, secret services, & transportation security administration (TSA)

125
Q

state agencies (police)

A

-Highway patrol
-State troopers
-State police
-State bureau of investigation

126
Q

special jurisdiction agencies

A

-Campus police
-Park rangers
-Liquor control

127
Q

Who are the police?

A

Requirements:
-U.S. citizens
-Min. 21
-HS diploma (bachelor’s for some federal agencies)
-Driver’s license
-Healthy weight
-Background, health, written exams

predominantly white & male

128
Q

culture of silence in policing

A

officers are afraid to speak up (especially to higher officers) in fear of being ostracized

129
Q

police violence theories

A

bad apple theory => not systematic, just individuals

systematic problem theory => entire system is the problem

police culture theory => police are trained in an “us-against-them” mindset where they always fear for themselves

130
Q

body cams

A

improves the civility of police-citizen encounters & enhances citizen perceptions of police transparency/legitimacy

131
Q

police functions

A

order maintenance (noise disturbances, panhandlers, disorderly conduct) & law enforcement (law broken => crime committed)

132
Q

Mapp v. Ohio (1961)

A

established exclusionary rules were evidence from an improper stop & search cannot be used in court

133
Q

use of force

A

at times, officers must use force to affect an arrest or control a disturbance

134
Q

excessive use of force

A

force that violates department policy or the constitutional rights of an individual by exceeding the force necessary

135
Q

research on use of force shows:

A

-Used infrequently by police
-Usually “lower end” of spectrum (grabbing, pushing, shoving)
-Typically only used when suspect is resisting arrest

136
Q

police corruption

A

Officers who violate the law & department policy for personal gain

grass eaters => officers who take payoffs
meat eaters => officers who actively abuse their authority (robbing drug dealers, illegal searches to steal drugs or money)

137
Q

internal affairs unit

A

part of a police department that investigates complaints against its police officers

138
Q

civilian review boards

A

investigates complaints against officers (when a department cannot show that they efficiently combat these issues)

139
Q

commission of accreditation for law enforcement agencies (CALEA)

A

private org of law enforcement executives that review & can award accreditation to police department policies & standards

140
Q

qualified immunity

A

legal immunity granted to officers if their actions did not clearly violate a right established & defined by law

141
Q

reactive police responses

A

Responding to calls for service
-Main type
-81% calls
-5% citizens directly approaching police

142
Q

proactive police responses

A

actively searching for potential offenders (14%)

143
Q

incident-driven policing

A

calls for service are the primary instigation of action

144
Q

differential response

A

calls for service are assigned priorities

145
Q

sworn officers

A

police employees who have taken an oath to uphold the constitutional rights of individuals, wear a badge, & carry a firearm

crime occurs, preliminary investigation

146
Q

detectives

A

sworn officers, usually in plain clothes, who investigate crimes (more reactive)

follow-up investigations, clearance & arrest

147
Q

school resource officers (SROs)

A

police officers assigned to HS

148
Q

traffic officers

A

both proactive enforcement through traffic law violation enforcement, & reactive in vehicle accident investigations

149
Q

vice officers

A

undercover detectives (mostly proactive)

150
Q

drug law enforcement

A

focus on organized crime & gangs that deal drugs

151
Q

aggressive patrol

A

get a large # of arrests to stop street dealing

152
Q

search

A

hunt for evidence on person or on property

153
Q

seizure

A

arrest of person, or taking of item(s)

154
Q

reasonable search/seizure

A

doesn’t violate the reasonable expectation of privacy

155
Q

plain view doctrine

A

officers may examine an area without a warrant if the area is in open view at a location where the public is legally permitted (however, doesn’t allow them to enter)

156
Q

stop

A

brief (usually <1 hour) interference of an individual’s freedom of movement, and the individual voluntarily interacts with the officer

157
Q

affidavit

A

a written statement of fact, supported by oath or affirmation, submitted to a judge to fulfill the requirements of probable cause for obtaining a warrant

158
Q

warrantless searches

A

-Special needs beyond normal law enforcement (protect public safety; metal detectors, TSA)
-Stop-and-Frisk
-Search leads to lawful arrest
-Exigent circumstances (threat to public safety or risk of evidence being destroyed)
-Consent search (subject allows officers to search)
-Automobile searches (because they can be driven away, can be searched w/o a warrant)

159
Q

warrant requirements:

A

-Probable cause
-Oath or affirmation
-Judge signature
-Specific description of where, who, what

160
Q

exceptions to exclusionary rule of evidence:

A

-Good faith (officer believed they were following law)
-Inevitable discovery (even if had not been discovered then, would have been very soon after)
-Attenuation (warrant already out & find evidence)

161
Q

Carroll v. U.S.

A

First-time acknowledgement of the “automobile exception” of the fourth amendment. States that officers don’t need a warrant, only probable cause, to search a vehicle.

162
Q

Utah v. Stuart

A

officers had reasonable suspicion that someone was being injured, so they didn’t need a warrant to enter the house

163
Q

U.S. v. Drayton

A

officers do not need to inform suspects of their right to decline to a consent search

164
Q

Arizona v. Gant

A

even with a warrant for arrest for missing a court date, police can only search a vehicle if they have probable cause that there is evidence of the crime in the vehicle

165
Q

Chimel v. California

A

searches incident to arrest are lawful bc officers need to ensure arrestees are unarmed & that potential evidence isn’t destroyed

166
Q

Terry v. Ohio

A

if an officer has a good reason to conclude that a person is endangering the public by being involved in criminal activity, they can stop & search their person (stop-and-frisk)

167
Q

Rodriguez v. U.S.

A

traffic stops can only last as long as it takes to solve the matter of the stop (unless searches are done during this time, before the matter is solved)

168
Q

Byrd v. U.S.

A

if given permission by an authorized driver, a driver of a rental car has the right to reasonable expectations of privacy

169
Q

Mullenix v. Luna (2015)

A

there was no clear establishment/law/rule that shooting at an armed person in a vehicle was inappropriate, so he was given qualified immunity

170
Q

What does section 1983 of the Civil Rights Act of 1871 protect against?

A

allows citizens to sue state & local officials for civil rights violations

171
Q

Utah v. Strieff

A

saw a warrant for the arrest after stopping someone, so they arrested him & searched, finding evidence for a different crime

ruled that the evidence was allowed (exclusionary rule has some “exclusions” itself)

172
Q

Mapp v. Ohio

A

established the exclusionary rule according to which evidence obtained from an improper stop or search cannot be used in court

173
Q

Lockyer v. Andrade (2003)

A

district court ruled that the sentencing was disproportionate, but the supreme court overruled that ruling as the punishment wasn’t “extraordinary”

174
Q

Gideon v. Wainwright

A

states must provide free attorneys to defendants with low incomes

also => right to cousel at preliminary hearings, initial appeals, post-indictment line-ups, & to children

175
Q

Miranda v. Arizona

A

in instances of interrogation or arrest, suspects must be warned of their rights (silence, lawyer/attorney, evidence can/will be used against you)

176
Q

Florida v. Jardines (2013)

A

deemed that searching a front porch can only be done with a warrant since it is part of the house/property

177
Q

Illinois v. Caballes (2005)

A

canine sniff widened the scope of knowledge w/o facts for probable cause to do the search

178
Q

Apprendi v. New Jersey (2000)

A

requires that any fact or information that increases the maximum penalty of a case beyond the statutory maximum must be submitted to a jury

179
Q

Brady v. Maryland (1963)

A

due process clause requires prosecutors to disclose exculpatory evidence to the defense (no surprises)

180
Q

Powell v. Alabama (1932)

A

supreme court added that states will provide lawyers to defendants, regardless of ability to pay

181
Q

U.S. v. Brawner (1972)

A

overruled the Durham test for insanity (which stated that the conduct was caused by the mental illness)
=> Defendants need to prove the mental illness causes a defect in the ability to see wrongfulness (moral or legal)

182
Q

Kahler v. Kansas (2020)

A

due process doesn’t require that a state adopt an insanity test that relies on the defendant’s ability to recognize that their crime is morally wrong
=> States can abolish the insanity defense w/o violating the constitution

183
Q

Roper v. Simmons

A

unconstitutional to impose the death penalty for crimes committed by minors

184
Q

U.S. v. Russell (1973)

A

Russell was approached by government agents who offered to sell him drugs, which he eventually agreed to
=> Acquitted on grounds of entrapment

185
Q

State v. McMorris

A

McMorris chose to shoot & kill someone who was breaking into his home (instead of retreating & calling the police)
=> Unreasonable action to threat since the man was unarmed & fleeing the home

186
Q

Tennessee v. Garner

A

Self-defense against resistance

=> Police cannot use deadly force unless a suspect is armed or poses a risk to the community

187
Q

Johnson v. U.S.

A

About the unclear phrasing of “violent felonies”

=> Unconstitutional phrasing (too vague)

188
Q

McBoyle v. U.S.

A

flew a stolen plane across state lines

=> Acquitted since law didn’t specify that aircraft were included, only “automobiles”

189
Q

Baldwin v. New York

A

ruled that any crime with a minimum sentence of >6 months must be by grand jury

190
Q

Michigan v. Christopher Jones

A

-Attorney wasn’t there for many instances
-Made a plea bargain for him w/o consultation
-Line-up wasn’t done correctly
-Never given polygraph after asked for it

191
Q

evidence-based policy

A

policies developed based on research studies that show the most effective ways to do things