midterm Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse is admitting a patient with acute shortness of breath. What actions should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?

A

Perform a respiratory system assessment and ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.

Rationale: When a patient has severe respiratory distress, only information pertinent to the current episode is obtained, and a more thorough assessment is deferred until later. Obtaining a comprehensive health history or full physical examination is unnecessary until the acute distress has resolved. Brief questioning and a focused physical assessment should be done rapidly to help determine the cause of the distress and suggest treatment. Checking for allergies is important, but it is not appropriate to complete the entire admission database at this time. The initial respiratory assessment must be completed before any diagnostic tests or interventions can be ordered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The nurse is preparing a patient with a right-sided pleural effusion for a thoracentesis. Which position should the nurse position the patient?

A

Sitting upright with the arms supported on an over bed table

Rationale:The upright position with the arms supported increases lung expansion, allows fluid to collect at the lung bases, and expands the intercostal space so that access to the pleural space is easier. The other positions would increase the work of breathing for the patient and make it more difficult for the health care provider performing the thoracentesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The nurse is auscultating a patient’s lungs and hears short, high-pitched sounds during exhalation in the lower 1/3 of both lungs. Which of the following information should the nurse document?

A

Expiratory wheezes in both lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The nurse is palpating the posterior chest of a patient while the patient says “99” and notes that no vibration is felt. What information should the nurse document?

A

Absent tactile fremitus (the palpable vibration of the chest wall that results from the transmission of sound vibrations through the lung tissue to the chest wall) an increase in tactile fremitus indicates denser or inflamed lung tissue

Rationale: To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as 99. Different techniques are used to assess for dullness to percussion, decreased breath sounds, and diminished expansion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with respiratory disease and observes that the patient’s SpO2 drops from 92% to 88% while the patient is ambulating in the hallway. What actions should the nurse take next?

A

Nurse should administer the PRN supplemental O2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The nurse is assessing the respiratory system of an older-adult patient. What findings would indicate that the nurse should take immediate action?

A

Crackles are heard from the lung bases to the midline.

Rationale: Crackles in the lower half of the lungs indicate that the patient may have an acute problem such as heart failure. The nurse should immediately accomplish further assessments, such as oxygen saturation, and notify the health care provider. A barrel-shaped chest, hyperresonance to percussion, and a weak cough effort are associated with aging. Further evaluation may be needed, but immediate action is not indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. What assessment information best supports this diagnosis?

A

Weak, nonproductive cough effort.

the weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the client is unable to clear the airway effectively. The other data would be used to support diagnoses such as impaired gas exchange and ineffective breathing pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The nurse is conducting a chest assessment on a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to assess?

A

Increased tactile fremitus.

Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias. Dullness to percussion would be expected. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The nurse is providing teaching to a patient with pneumonia. What education should the nurse ensure to include in the discharge instructions?

A

“I will continue to do the deep-breathing and coughing exercises at home.”

Clients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge for up to 6-8 weeks. Fatigue for several weeks is expected. Home oxygen therapy is not needed with successful treatment of pneumonia. The pneumonia and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What nursing actions are most effective in preventing aspiration pneumonia in patients who are at risk?

A

Place clients with altered consciousness in side-lying position.

The risk for aspiration is decreased when clients with a decreased level of consciousness are placed in a side-lying or upright position. Frequent turning prevents pooling of secretions in immobilized clients but will not decrease the risk for aspiration in clients at risk. Monitoring of parameters such as breath sounds and oxygen saturation will help detect pneumonia in immuno-compromised clients, but it will not decrease the risk for aspiration. Continuous subglottic suction is recommended for intubated clients but not for all clients receiving enteral feedings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking. What information should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A

Options for smoking cessation.

Because smoking is the major cause of lung cancer, the most important role for the nurse is educating clients about the benefits of and means of smoking cessation. Early screening of at-risk clients using sputum cytology, chest x-ray, or CT scanning has not been effective in reducing mortality. Erlotinib may be used in clients who have lung cancer but not to reduce risk for developing tumours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident and the nurse notes that the breath sounds are absent on the right side. What actions should the nurse anticipate?

A

Intersertation of chest tube with a chest drainage system.

The client’s history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. The other therapies would be appropriate for an acute asthma attack, flail chest, or cardiac tamponade, but the client’s clinical manifestations are not consistent with these problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What patients would benefit from education and encouragement to use an incentive spirometry and why?

A

The spirometer is a device used to help you keep your lungs healthy. Take your time so you do not get dizzy or light-headed. If you are in pain, you may need to take pain medicine before doing incentive spirometry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The nurse caring for a patient with pneumonia has a fever of 38.4°C (101.1°F), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 89%. The patient is very weak and needs assistance to get out of bed. What nursing diagnoses are a priority?

A

Ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with a possible pulmonary embolism who has symptoms of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 142, BP 100/60 mm Hg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. What actions should the nurse implement with priority?

A

Elevate the head of the bed to 45-60 degrees. The client has symptoms consistent with a pulmonary embolism. Elevating the head of the bed will improve ventilation and gas exchange. The other actions can be accomplished after the head is elevated (and oxygen is started).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia who has symptoms of a sharp pain “whenever I take a deep breath.” What actions should the nurse take next?

A

Listen to client’s lungs.

The client’s statement indicates that pleurisy or a pleural effusion may have developed and the nurse will need to listen for a pleural friction rub or decreased breath sounds. Assessment should occur before administration of pain medications. The client is unlikely to be able to cough forcefully until pain medication has been administered. The nurse will want to obtain more assessment data before calling the health care provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic bronchitis who has a new prescription for a combined fluticasone and salmeterol inhaler and the patient asks the nurse the purpose of using two drugs. How should the nurse respond?

A

The combination of two drugs work together to block the effects of histamine on the bronchioles. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator, and fluticasone is a corticosteroid. They work together to prevent asthma attacks. Neither medication is an antihistamine. The two-drug combination of salmeterol and fluticasone is not used during an acute attack because the medications do not work rapidly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The nurse has completed patient teaching about the administration of salmeterol using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What would they include?

A

The patient attaches a spacer before using the MDI. Spacers can improve the delivery of medication to the lower airways. The other client actions indicate a need for further teaching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What information should the nurse include when teaching the patient with asthma about the prescribed medications?

A

Tremors are an expected adverse effect of rapidly acting bronchodilators.

Tremors are a common adverse effect of short-acting 2-adrenergic (SABA) medications and not a reason to avoid using the SABA inhaler. Inhaled corticosteroids do not act rapidly to reduce dyspnea. Rapid inhalation is needed when using a DPI. The client should hold the breath for 10 seconds after using inhalers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of therapy for a patient who has received treatment during an asthma attack. What findings are the best indicator that the therapy has been effective?

A

Oxygen saturation is >92%.

The goal for treatment of an asthma attack is to keep the oxygen saturation >92%. The other client data may occur when the client is too fatigued to continue with the increased work of breathing required in an asthma attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic bronchitis who has a nursing diagnosis of impaired breathing pattern related to anxiety. What nursing actions should be included in the plan of care?

A

Teach the client how to effectively use purse lip breathing.

Pursed lip breathing techniques assist in prolonging the expiratory phase of respiration and decrease air trapping. There is no indication that the client requires oxygen therapy or an improved diet. Sedative medications should be avoided because they decrease respiratory drive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. What interventions are best to address this problem?

A

Offer high calorie snacks between meals and at bedtime.

Eating small amounts more frequently (as occurs with snacking) will increase caloric intake by decreasing the fatigue and feelings of fullness associated with large meals. Clients with COPD should rest before meals. Foods that have a lot of texture may take more energy to eat and lead to decreased intake. Although fruits and juices are not contraindicated, foods high in protein are a better choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The nurse is interviewing a patient with a new diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What information will help most in confirming a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis?

A

The client complains about a productive cough every winter for 3 months.

A diagnosis of chronic bronchitis is based on a history of having a productive cough for 3 months for at least 2 consecutive years. There is no familial tendency for chronic bronchitis. Although smoking is the major risk factor for chronic bronchitis, a smoking history does not confirm the diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What assessment findings by the nurse for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange will be most useful in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment?

A

Pulse ocimetry reading of 91%.

For the nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange, the best data for evaluation are arterial blood gases (ABGs) or pulse oximetry. The other data may indicate either improvement or impending respiratory failure caused by fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen. What actions are best for the nurse to implement to determine the appropriate oxygen flow rate?

A

Maintain the pulse oximetry level at 90% or greater.

The best way to determine the appropriate oxygen flow rate is by monitoring the client’s oxygenation either by arterial blood gases (ABGs) or pulse oximetry; an oxygen saturation of 90% indicates adequate blood oxygen level without the danger of suppressing the respiratory drive. For clients with an exacerbation of COPD, an oxygen flow rate of 2 L/minute may not be adequate. Because oxygen use improves survival rate in clients with COPD, there is not a concern about oxygen dependency. The client’s perceived dyspnea level may be affected by other factors (such as anxiety) besides blood oxygen level.

26
Q

The nurse is developing a teaching plan to help increase activity tolerance at home for a 70-year-old patient with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What exercise goals should the nurse teach the patient?

A

Walk for a total of 20 minutes daily.

The goal for exercise programs for clients with COPD is to increase exercise time gradually to a total of 20 minutes daily. Shortness of breath is normal with exercise and not an indication that the client should stop. Limiting exercise to ADLs will not improve the client’s exercise tolerance. A 70-year-old client should have a pulse rate of 120 or less with exercise (80% of the maximal heart rate of 150).

27
Q

What actions should the nurse in the hypertension clinic take in order to obtain an accurate baseline blood pressure (BP) for a new patient?

A

Have the patient sit in a chair with the feet flat on the floor.

The client should be seated to assess the initial BP and P. The BP is obtained in both arms, but the results of the two arms are not averaged. The client does not need to be in the supine position. The cuff should be deflated at 2-3 mm Hg/second.

28
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with hypertension and just administered the initial dose of a beta blocker. What actions should the nurse ensure is taken?

A

Ask the client to request assistance when getting out of bed.

Beta blockers decreases sympathetic nervous system activity by blocking both a- and/or b-adrenergic receptors, leading to vasodilation and a decrease in heart rate, which can cause severe orthostatic hypotension. Heart palpitations, dehydration, and headaches are possible adverse effects of other antihypertensives.

29
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just diagnosed with hypertension and has a new prescription for captopril. What information is important to include when teaching the patient?

A

Change position slowly to help prevent dizziness and falls.

The angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors frequently cause orthostatic hypotension, and clients should be taught to change position slowly to allow the vascular system time to compensate for the position change. Increasing fluid intake may counteract the effect of the medication, and the client is taught to use gum or hard candy to relieve dry mouth. The BP does not need to be checked at home by the client before taking the medication. Because ACE inhibitors cause potassium retention, increased intake of high-potassium foods is inappropriate.

30
Q

During change-of-shift report, the nurse obtains this information about a patient who is hypertensive and received the first dose of propranolol during the previous shift. What assessment information indicates that the patient needs immediate intervention?

A

The client has developed wheezes throughout the lung fields.

The most urgent concern for this client is the wheezes, which indicate that bronchospasm (a common adverse effect of the noncardioselective b-adrenergic blockers) is occurring. The nurse should immediately obtain an oxygen saturation measurement, apply supplemental oxygen, and notify the health care provider. The mild decrease in heart rate and complaint of cold fingers and toes do not require any change in therapy. The BP reading may indicate that a change in medication type or dose may be indicated; however, this is not as urgently needed as addressing the bronchospasm.

31
Q

When a patient with hypertension who has a new prescription for atenolol returns to the health clinic after 2 weeks for a follow-up visit, the BP is unchanged from the previous visit. What assessments should the nurse include?

A

Ask the client about weather the medication is actually being taken.

Since nonadherence with antihypertensive therapy is common, the nurse’s initial action should be to determine whether the client is taking the atenolol as prescribed. The other actions also may be implemented, but these would be done after assessing client compliance with the prescribed therapy.

32
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic heart failure. What conditions is a cause of chronic heart disease?

A

Congenital heart disease.

Congenital heart disease is a cause of chronic heart failure. Dysrhythmias, pulmonary embolus, and myocarditis are causes of acute heart failure.

33
Q

A patient who has chronic heart failure tells the nurse, “I felt fine when I went to bed, but I woke up in the middle of the night feeling like I was suffocating!” What should the nurse document related to this assessment?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is caused by the reabsorption of fluid from dependent body areas when the client is sleeping and is characterized by waking up suddenly with the feeling of suffocation. Pulsus alternans is the alternation of strong and weak peripheral pulses during palpation. Orthopnea indicates that the client is unable to lie flat because of dyspnea. Pleural effusions develop over a longer time period.

34
Q

During a visit to a patient with chronic heart failure, the home care nurse finds that the patient has ankle edema, a 2 kg weight gain, and complains of “feeling too tired to do anything.” Based on these data, what is the best nursing diagnosis for the patient?

A

Activity intolerance related to physical deconditioning.

The client’s statement supports the diagnosis of activity intolerance. There are no data to support the other diagnoses, although the nurse will need to assess for other client problems.

35
Q

The nurse is teaching the patient with heart failure about a 2 g sodium diet. What foods should the nurse explain to the patient that need to be restricted?

A

Milk, yogurt, and other milk products.

Milk and yogourt naturally contain a significant amount of sodium, and intake of these should be limited for clients on a diet that limits sodium to 2 g daily. Other milk products, such as processed cheeses, have very high levels of sodium and are not appropriate for a 2g sodium diet. The other foods listed have minimal levels of sodium and can be eaten without restriction

36
Q

What diagnostic tests will be most useful to the nurse in determining whether a patient admitted with acute shortness of breath has heart failure?

A

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

BNP is secreted when ventricular pressures increase, as with heart failure, and elevated BNP indicates a probable or very probable diagnosis of heart failure. 12-lead ECGs, ABGs, and CK also may be used in determining the causes or effects of heart failure but are not as clearly diagnostic of heart failure as BNP.

37
Q

A patient with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with severe dyspnea and a dry, hacking cough. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

A

Ausculatate lung sounds.

This client’s severe dyspnea and cough indicate that acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) is occurring. ADHF usually manifests as pulmonary edema, which should be detected and treated immediately to prevent ongoing hypoxemia and cardiac or respiratory arrest. The other assessments will provide useful data about the client’s volume status and also should be accomplished rapidly, but detection (and treatment) of pulmonary complications is the priority.

38
Q

The home health nurse is visiting a patient with chronic heart failure who has prescriptions for a diuretic, an ACE-inhibitor, and a low-sodium diet and tells the nurse about a 2.3 kg weight gain in the last 3 days. What actions should the nurse do first?

A

Assess the client for clinical manifestations of acute heart failure.

The development of dependent edema or a sudden weight gain of more than 2 kg in 2 days is often indicative of exacerbated HF. It is important that the client be immediately assessed for other clinical manifestations of decompensation, such as lung crackles. A dietary recall to detect hidden sodium in the diet, reinforcement of sodium restrictions, and assessment of medication compliance may be appropriate interventions but are not the first nursing actions indicated.

39
Q

An outpatient who has heart failure returns to the clinic after 2 weeks of therapy with an ACE inhibitor. What assessment findings is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

A

BP of 88/42mm H.

The client’s BP indicates that the dose of the ACE inhibitor may need to be decreased because of hypotension. Bradycardia is a frequent adverse effect of b-adrenergic blockade, but the rate of 56 is not unusual with b-blocker therapy. b-adrenergic blockade initially will worsen symptoms of heart failure in many clients, and clients should be taught that some increase in symptoms, such as fatigue and edema, is expected during the initiation of therapy with this class of drugs.

40
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with right-sided heart failure who asks the nurse what caused the heart failure. What should the nurse explain as the primary cause of right-sided heart failure?

A

Left sided heart failure.

The primary cause of right-sided failure is left-sided failure. In this situation, left-sided failure results in pulmonary congestion and increased pressure in the blood vessels of the lungs (pulmonary hypertension).

41
Q

The nurse is interpreting an ECG strip to determine whether there is a delay in impulse conduction above the ventricles. Which components of an ECG strip should the nurse measure?

A

QRS complex.

The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The P wave represents the depolarization of the atria. The PR interval represents depolarization of the atria, atrioventricular node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and the Purkinje fibers. The Q wave is the first negative deflection following the P wave and should be narrow and short.

42
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with atrial fibrillation that has been unresponsive to drug therapy for several days. What interventions/ actions should the nurse anticipate?

A

Anticoagulant therapy.

Atrial fibrillation therapy that has persisted for more than 48 hours requires anticoagulant treatment for 3 weeks before attempting cardioversion. This is done to prevent embolization of clots from the atria. Cardioversion may be done after several weeks of anticoagulation therapy. Adenosine is not used to treat atrial fibrillation. Pacemakers are routinely used for patients with bradydysrhythmias. Information does not indicate that the patient has a slow heart rate.

43
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who develops sinus bradycardia at a rate of 32 beats/minute, has a BP of 80/36 mm Hg, and symptoms of feeling faint. What actions should the nurse take?

A

Apply the transcutaneous pacemaker pads.

The patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia, and treatment with TCP is appropriate. Continued monitoring of the rhythm and BP is an inadequate response. Calcium channel blockers will further decrease the heart rate, and the diltiazem should be held. The Valsalva maneuver will further decrease the rate

44
Q

A young adult patient arrives at the student health centre at the end of the quarter complaining that, “My heart is skipping beats.” An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows occasional premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). What actions should the nurse take first?

A

Question the patient about current stress level and caffine use.

In a patient with a normal heart, occasional PVCs are a benign finding. The timing of the PVCs suggests stress or caffeine as possible etiologic factors. It is unlikely that the patient has coronary artery disease, and this should not be the first question the nurse asks. The patient is hemodynamically stable, so there is no indication that the patient needs to be seen in the ED or that oxygen needs to be administered

45
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient whose cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132, and is apneic with no pulses are palpable by the nurse. Which actions should the nurse do first?

A

Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

The patient’s clinical manifestations indicate pulseless electrical activity and the nurse should immediately start CPR. The other actions would not be of benefit to this patient

46
Q

The nurse is preparing a patient for a biopsy of a lump in the right breast and the patient asks the nurse about the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. How should the nurse respond?

A

Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs.

The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur.

47
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. What adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

A

Hematuria.

The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy.

48
Q

The nurse in the outpatient clinic is caring for a patient who smokes heavily. To reduce the patient’s risk of dying from lung cancer, what actions will be best for the nurse to take?

A

Discuss the risks associated with cigarettes during ever client encounter.

Education about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every client encounter, since cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. A tumour must be at least 0.5 cm large before it is detectable by current screening methods and may already have metastasized by that time. Oncofetal antigens such as CEA may be used to monitor therapy or detect tumour reoccurrence, but are not helpful in screening for cancer. The seven warning signs of cancer are actually associated with fairly advanced disease.

49
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a needle biopsy of the prostate. What should the nurse include in educating the patient about the purpose of this procedure?

A

A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. Biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the client’s life

50
Q

A patient with a large stomach tumor that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure. When teaching the patient, what is the expected outcome of this surgery?

A

Decrease in tumor size to improve the effects of other therapy.

A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumour growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs.

51
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with ovarian cancer who is distressed because her husband rarely visits and tells the nurse, “He just doesn’t care.” The husband indicates to the nurse that “I never know what to say to help her.” What nursing diagnoses are most appropriate?

A

Dysfunctional family processes related to insufficient problem solving skills.

The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest preoccupation with an outside concern as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities.

52
Q

What information noted by the nurse reviewing the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy is most important to report to the health care provider?

A

WBC of 4 x 10^9/L.

The low WBC count places the client at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapeutic drug dose may need to be lower or that white blood cell (WBC) growth factors such as filgrastim are needed. The other laboratory data do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy.

53
Q

Use of dental floss is contraindicated in the patient with what abnormal lab values?

A

A decreased platelet count.

Use of dental floss is contraindicated in the client that has a decreased platelet count but otherwise critical to use to enhance oral care. Halitosis, xerostomia, and an increased WBC are not contraindications for the use of dental floss.

54
Q

The nurse is discussing risk factor modification for a patient who has a 4-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm. The nurse should focus patient teaching on which risk factors?

A

Uncontrolled hypertension.

55
Q

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a patient who has a 5-cm thoracic aortic aneurysm that was discovered during a routine chest x-ray. What symptoms should the nurse expect to assess in the patient?

A

Trouble swallowing

Rationale: difficulty swallowing due to thoracic aneurysm because of pressure on the esophagus.

56
Q

A patient in the outpatient clinic has a new diagnosis of peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which class of medication should the nurse plan to include when providing patient teaching about PAD management?

A

Statins.

Research indicates that statin use by patients with PAD improves multiple outcomes. There is no research that supports the use of the other drug categories in PAD.

57
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation who develops sudden severe pain, pulselessness, pallor, and coolness in the left leg. What actions should the nurse implement first, and what is your rationale?

A

Keep the patient in bed in the supine position.

The patient’s history and clinical manifestations are consistent with acute arterial occlusion, and resting the leg will decrease the O2 demand of the tissues and minimize ischemic damage until circulation can be restored. Elevating the leg or applying an elastic wrap will further compromise blood flow to the leg. Exercise will increase oxygen demand for the tissues

58
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient who has chronic peripheral artery disease (PAD) of the legs and an ulcer on the left great toe. What findings should the nurse expect?

A

Prolonged capillary refill in all toes.

Capillary refill is prolonged in PAD because of the slower and decreased blood flow to the periphery. The other listed clinical manifestations are consistent with chronic venous disease

59
Q

A patient with a venous thrombo-embolism (VTE) is started on enoxaparin and warfarin. The patient asks the nurse why two medications are necessary. How should the nurse respond?

A

“Enoxaparin will work right away, but warfarin takes several days to begin preventing clots.”.

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is used because of the immediate effect on coagulation and discontinued once the international normalized ratio (INR) value indicates that the warfarin has reached a therapeutic level. LMWH has no thrombolytic properties. The use of two anticoagulants is not related to the risk for pulmonary embolism, and two are not necessary to reduce the risk for another VTE. Anticoagulants do not thin the blood.

60
Q

The nurse has initiated discharge teaching for a patient who is to be maintained on warfarin following hospitalization for venous thrombo-embolism (VTE). What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

A

Patients taking warfarin are taught to follow a consistent diet with regard to foods that are high in vitamin K, such as green, leafy vegetables.

They will need routine blood tests to monitor effects. Check on with a health care provider before starting new drugs. They should get a Medic Alert device.