Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Adv patho > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What information is contained within the nucleolus?

A

RNA, DNA, binding proteins (Histones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The function of proteins?

A

Act as receptors, transport channels, drive active pumps, cell surface markers, cell adhesion markers (CAMs), catalysts of chemical reactions, role in ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why are water-soluble molecules unable to center cells?

A

Phospholipid bilayer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Refractory period?

A

No stimulus can evoke another response at that time?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining are replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells due to chronic irritation

A

Metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

During pregnancy, mammary glands enlarge. What type of hormonal process causes this?

A

Hyperplasia - increase in cell amount, does not affect shape/size of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A consequence of multiple blood transfusions for the patient.

A

Hemosiderosis - excess iron stored as hemosiderin in tissues/organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the physiological effect of hypernatremia?

A

High Na in blood vessels pulls H2O out of cells (ex brain) and into the blood vessels causing cells to shrink.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What condition consists of an absent homologous X chromosome with a single X chromosome and physical features of the following: Short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck?

A

Turners syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which blood type is that of a heterozygous having A & B alleles as a codominant?

A

Blood type AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Of the genetic processes, which can cause asthma in only one pair of identical twins

A

epigenetic modifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which cell is the primary defense against parasites

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why do complement and chemotaxis deficiencies occur in neonates?

A

Transient depressed inflammatory response - born in sterile environment, neutrophils/monocytes not yet capable of effective chemotaxis making them prone to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why are some vaccines administered orally vs injected?

A

Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte containing tissues resulting in a different type of cellular and humoral immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a patient is having an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what is the best intervention?

A

Antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mechanisms of type II hypersensitivity reaction

A
  • Tissue-specific
  • Antibodies (IgG/IgM) coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rh- Mom delivers a Rh+ baby, what would you tell mom about RHO(D) immunoglobulin

A

prevents alloimmunity and hemolytic anemia of the newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Neutrophils attack, engulf, and destroy which microorganism using phagocytosis?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are exotoxins

A

Released by bacteria during bacterial growth and affect surround tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Immunity decreases during stress. The helper T cell response to stress is suppressed by which hormone makes them prone to infection?

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which neurotransmitter causes a patient that is severely stressed to develop cold clammy skin.

A

Norepinephrine - causes vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What percentage of intravascular volume needs to be decreased before hypovolemic shock occurs?

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the hallmark of neurogenic shock due to overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Vasodilation d/t low SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following shock states has the highest priority to treat?

a. septic
b. hypovolemia
c. anaphylactic
d. neurogenic

A

Anaphylactic - concern for airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

During septic shock which clinical finding confirms the elevation of the immune response?

A

Leukocytosis - Increased WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

periorbital edema and hepatomegaly occur in pediatric cardiogenic shock due to?

A

Increased systemic venous congestion from high SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

true or false: Capillary refill greater than 4 seconds is normal in a child

A

False - sign of shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The primary goal of shock in a child?

A

Maximize O2 delivery, decrease demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Limited glycogen storage of a child that has been seriously burned results in what outcome?

A

Increased morbidity - limited glycogen makes it hard to meet the increased energy demands of the burn leading to metabolic dysfunction and loss of lean body mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of these behaviors would be observed in a newborn suffering shock? SATA:

a. Decreased heart variability
b. hyperalertness
c. hypoglycemia
d. temperature instability
e. increased muscle tone

A

A. decreased heart variability
C. hypoglycemia
D. temperature instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does a child physiologically compensate for cardiogenic shock?

A
  • splanchnic arteries are constricted to divert blood from the skin, kidneys, and gut to the heart and brain
  • Peripheral blood vessels are constricted to raise blood pressure
  • Adrenergic responses produce tachycardia to increase CO
  • The RAAS system is stimulated when renal function decreases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what tissue does carcinoma originate?

A

Epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When a cell loses cellular differentiation, it is referred to as?

A

Anaplasia - hallmark of CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A pts in your office with a known diagnosis of CA and their labs show hgb of 7.9. what factors will you assess for? SATA:

a. chronic bleeding
b. malabsorption of iron
c. malnutrition
d. recent blood transfusion
e. current infection

A

a. chronic bleeding
b. malabsorption of iron
c. malnutiriton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

You are tasked with developing a series of community discussions related to CA prevention strategies. Which of these topics do you choose? SATA:

a. healthy eating
b. tobacco avoidance
c. importance of early diagnosis
d. impact of obesity on one’s health
e. age-appropriate exercise

A

a. healthy eating
b. tobacco avoidance
d. impact of obesity on health
e. age appropriate exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which form of CA is linked to congenital malformation syndrome?

A

Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

a child that is diagnosed with aids, has an increased risk of developing …?

A

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which cells can destroy some types of tumor cells and some viruses infected cells without having been exposed to them before?

A

Natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender during an infection?

A

Increased antigens cause the proliferation of more B-lymphocytes which causes lymph nodes to become swollen and tender.

40
Q

What condition would cause hepatomegaly, cardiac dysfunction and bronze skin?

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis

Tx: therapeutic phlebotomy

41
Q

What is the cause of neurological symptoms in a polycythemia pt?

A

Viscous blood

42
Q

Which of the following pts would be a priority to assess for DIC?

a. heat stroke
b. pancreatitis
c. term delivery
d. HELLP
e. snake bite

A

a. heat stroke
b. pancreatitis
d. HELLP
e. snake bite

43
Q

What is the role of collagen in the clotting process?

A

Activates platelets

44
Q

How would you describe acute lymphoblastic anemia (ALL) to a pt?

A

progressive neoplasm defined by the presence of greater than 30% lymphoblasts in the bone marrow or blood

45
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma in African children associated with which virus?

A

Epstein barr virus

46
Q

early symptoms of acute leukemia include: SATA:

a. dizziness
b. paresthesia
c. anorexia
d. bruising
e. bone pain

A

c. anorexia
d. bruising
e. bone pain

47
Q

common causes of erythropoiesis in children

A

Iron deficiency

48
Q

G6PD deficiency is what form of inherited disorder

A

X-linked recessive disorder

49
Q

a potential cure for microcytic hypochromic anemia?

A

cord blood transplant

50
Q

Which disease is autosomal dominant inherited hemorrhagic disease?

A

Von Willebrand disease

51
Q

Pediatric pt presents with the following: pallor, fatigue, fever, petechiae, and purpura. What tests would you order? SATA:

a. CBC
b. renal function studies
c. bone marrow biopsy
d. CXR
e. joint fluid sampling

A

a. cbc
b. renal function studies
c. bone marrow biopsy
d. CXR

52
Q

is cortisol a lipid or water-soluble hormone?

A

Lipid

53
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone is released to stimulate thyroid hormones and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. what type of feedback is this?

A

Negative feedback

54
Q

If a diabetic pt did not take their insulin in days, and no is in the ED w/ high blood glucose, which electrolyte is a priority

A

K+

55
Q

target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor

A

Anterior pituitary

56
Q

growth hormone is inhibited by which hormone?

A

Somatostatin

57
Q

The adrenal medulla excretes which hormone?

A

Epinephrine

58
Q

if a pt is diagnosed w/ SIADH, which lab values would you expect to see?

A

hyponatremia (120)

hypoosmolality (260)

59
Q

when a pt is suffering from DI, which form will result in the target cells for ADH in the renal collecting tubules demonstrating insensitivity?

A

Nephrogenic

60
Q

What are the signs of thyrotoxic crisis?

A

Tachycardia, hyperthermia

“speed up mode”

61
Q

what is the pathophysiology of a pt with the following labs: ph 7.20, glucose 500, positive urine glucose, serum K 2.0, Na 130?

A

Decreased glucose causes fatty acid use (ketogenesis) resulting in metabolic acidosis & metabolic alkalosis

62
Q

What is the action of calcitonin?

A

Decreases serum Calcium

63
Q

In an acromegaly pt, what lifestyle patterns would you want to assess?

A

Sleep patterns

64
Q

Type 1 DM has episodes of hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What causes these symptoms?

A

Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

65
Q

what is the Somogyi effect?

A

Hypoglycemia with rebound hyperglycemia

66
Q

your diabetic pt has a routine UA, which demonstrates proteinuria. Which therapy would you prescribe?

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Frequent BG monitor
c. repeat UA

A

ACE inhibitor - protects kidneys and keeps them from spilling out proteins?

67
Q

Chronic microvascular complications for diabetes: SATA: a. eyes, b. peripheral, c. vascular, d. nerves, e. renal

A

a. eyes
d. nerves
e. renal

68
Q

which complication is a result of a reduction in parathyroid hormone? SATA:

a. asphyxiation
b. tonic clinic seizures
c. muscle spasms
d. laryngeal spasms
e. hyporeflexia

A

a. asphyxiation
b. tonic-clonic seizures
c. muscle spasms
d. laryngeal spasms

69
Q

A pt with abnormally severe tooth decay and erosion, what should a health care professional assess for?

A

Bulimia

70
Q

A health care professional speaking to a weight loss support group encourages participants for regular screening for medical conditions related to obesity: SATA:

a. cancer
b. cardiovascular disease
c. cirrhosis
d. diabetes
e. dementia

A

a. cancer
b. cardiovascular
d. diabetes

71
Q

Head injury and pt can sense heat/cold or dull/pain comes from what part of the brain?

A

Pons

72
Q

Microinfarcts resulting in pure motor or pure sensory deficit result from which stroke?

A

Lacunar Stroke

73
Q

Pt with spinal cord damage to UPPER motor neurons what assessment finding would the healthcare provider associate with this injury

A

Initial paralysis, gradual partial recovery later

74
Q

Where is CSF produced

A

Choroid plexus

75
Q

Pt who sustained cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago develops a sudden headache and blurred vision. What should be done?

A

Take BP/ pulse for hyperreflexia?

76
Q

Cognitive operations cannot occur w/o effective functioning of what part of the brain?

A

Reticular activating system

77
Q

Which midbrain dysfunction causes pinpoint pupils fixed in position?

A

pontine dysfuction

78
Q

The event most likely to occur when a person experiences a closed head injury

A

Brief instability of ones vital signs

79
Q

Pt w/ spinal cord injury C4, what should health care professional assess as a priority

A

Breathing. “C5 stay alive, C4 breathe no more”

80
Q

The neural group closes dorsally during which week of gestational life

A

4th week

81
Q

Health care professional advises pregnant women to add which supplement to prevent birth defects?

A

Folic acid

82
Q

Result of Arnold-Chiari type 2 malformation associated with myelomeningocele?

A

Downward displacement of cerebellum, brainstem, and 4th ventricle

83
Q

Pt cleaning litter box with HIV/AIDS develops fever, clumsy, trouble speaking. what medicine to give

A

pyrimethamine (pt has toxoplasmosis)

84
Q

Type of vascular malformation that most often results in hemorrhage

A

Arterial venous malformation

85
Q

Which cerebral vascular hemorrhage causes photophobia, positive kernig’s & brudzinskis, & meningeal irritation?

A

Sub arachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)

86
Q

Vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through a vascular tangle of abnormal vessels?

A

AVM - arterial venous malformation

87
Q

Which neurotransmitter is reduced in schizophrenia?

A

GABA

88
Q

Hypothalamic pituitary-adrenal system abnormalities are present in which psychiatric disorder

A

Depression

89
Q

antipsychotic drugs causes tardive dyskinesia, which mimics the effects of an increase of which neurotransmitter?

A

Dopamine

90
Q

What is the link between depression and cortisol secretion?

A

Persistently increased cortisol increases depression risk

91
Q

Decrease in receptor binding for which neurotransmitter is found in depression

A

serotonin

92
Q

Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with lithium toxicity?

A

Hyponatremia

93
Q

Nerve fiber that transmits pain impuse?

A

A-delta fibers

94
Q

endogenous opioid located in the hypothalamus and pituitary and is a strong receptor agonist?

A

Endorphins

95
Q

A pregnant pt with severe depression has been taking venlafaxine (Effexor) and asks the health care professional what options are available. what would be recommended?

A

ECT - elctroconvulsion therapy

Adv patho (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions