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Adv patho > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Define/example: Active acquired immunity

A

natural exposure to antigen
long-lived immunity - form memory cells
Ex: Immunization, contract chicken pox

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2
Q

Define/ex: Osmotic forces

A

WATER movement between ICF & ECF

thirst can activate osmoreceptors by an increase in osmotic pressure

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3
Q

define: antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

regulates water balance through ADH & thirst
stimulated by increase in plasma osmolality
thirst occurs when water loss equals 2% of an individuals body weigh or when osmotic pressure increases

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4
Q

How do GI losses cause metabolic acidosis?

A

vomitting induced metabolic acidosis causes retention of bicarb to maintain anion balance

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5
Q

the function of the nucleolus

A

contain DNA, RNA & binding proteins (Histones)

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6
Q

what is apoptosis?

A

programmed cell death

can occur when growth is excessive

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7
Q

How does carbon dioxide illicit tissue damage?

A

quickly binds to hgb so cells are unable to carry O2

S/S: normal SPO2, reddend cheeks?

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8
Q

physical findings for trisomy 21

A 
Mental challenges 
epicanthal eye folds
low nasal bridge
flat low set ears
protruding tongue 
poor muscle tone 
short stature
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9
Q

Patho behind type DM1

A 
autoimmune 
association between DM1 & several major histocompatibility complex class II alleles
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10
Q

what genes are necessary for the function and maintenance of all cells?

A

Housekeeping genes

-includes those encoding histones, DNA, RNA polymerase, ribosomal RNA genes

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11
Q

in the elderly wound healing is affect by which factors

A

underlying chronic illness which impairs inflammation

Ex: DM

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12
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

Bone marrow -

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13
Q

Type II hypersensitivity reactions

A

Tissue specific - adatptive immune response

antibodies bind to tissue-specific antigens that are attached to particular tissues on cell surface

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14
Q

purpose of Rhogam?

A

prevent alloimmunity & hemolytic disease of the newborn
- maternal antibodies can cross placenta and destroy fetal RBC
given to Rh- mom with Rh+ baby

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15
Q

describe acute rejection on a cellular level

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
-Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltration macrophages that direct cytotoxic t cells directly attacking transplant

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16
Q

what are exotoxins?

A

produced by bacterial pathogens

released during microbial growth that affects nearby CT and cells

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17
Q

what do these hormones affect during stress?

ACTH

A

ACTH = adrenocorticotropic hormone
-regulates release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex

-stress increases ACTH secretion = increased cortisol levels

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18
Q

what do these hormones affect during stress?

Cortisol

A

cortisol is a steroid (glucocorticoid) released from the adrenal cortex
Lipid soluble
increases during stress d/t increased ACTH

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19
Q

what are reperfusion injuries?

A

damage from restoration of blood flow and oxygen can cause additional injury d/t oxidative stress

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20
Q

what type of anemia is Pernicious anemia? how does it cause paresthesia?

A

Megaloblastic anemia
caused by defective secretion of an intrinsic factor essential for the absorption of B12

paresthesia caused d/t myelin degeneration in the spinal cord

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21
Q

hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary

A 
OXYTOCIN 
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
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22
Q

ADH

What are the effects of low/high levels

A

high levels = vasoconstriction which incrase aterial BP

-need pharmacological vasopressin to cause enough vasoconstriction to matter

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23
Q

Name two cells that control fungal infections

A

T lymphocytes

Phagocytes

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24
Q

A pt who is adrenally insufficient has hypoglycemia during times of stress due to which chemical

A

cortisol

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25
Q

what is the final product of impaired cellular metabolism

A

buildup of cellular waste products

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26
Q

which substance is LEAST likely to stimulate a pro-inflammatory state?

A

IL-4

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27
Q

in children/infants, what percentage of dehydration causes hypotension

A

10%

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28
Q

exposure to which virus is a carcinogenic factor?

A

Epstein-barr virus (EBV)

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29
Q

The risk of developing cancers is increased with childhood exposure to which risk factors?

hint: 4 answers

A
  1. Chemotherapy/ drugs
  2. Ionizing radiation
  3. EBV
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30
Q

which granulocyte contains vasoactive amines such as histamine?

A

basophils

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31
Q

endothelium role in colt formation?

A

(SATA)
the surface of the endothelium produces plasma protease inhibitors

plasma protease inhibitors assist in preventing clot formation

thrombomodulin is a protein that is converted on the surface of endothelial cells

(2x plasma protease & thrombomodulin on surface of cells)

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32
Q

what causes pancytopenia in aplastic anemia?

A

suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

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33
Q

why is hemophilia A seen mostly in men?

A

x-linked recessive

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34
Q

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) can be described as?

A

translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 creates an abnormal, fused protein identified as BCR-ABL1

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35
Q

Hemoglobin S (HbS) is a result of which amino acid mutation?

A

Valine replaces glutamic acid

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36
Q

pt has amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteoporosis. A CT scan of the head is ordered to assess for which condition

A

Prolactinoma

pituitary tumor that secrets prolactin

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37
Q

polyuria occurs with DM d/t?

A

Elevation in serum glucose produces an osmotic diuresis w/ symptoms of polyuria and thirst

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38
Q

what causes the microvascular complications in pts with DM

A

capillary basement membranes thicken, and cell hyperplasia develops

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39
Q

what is the rationale for annual eye exams for those with DM

A

retinal ischemia and RBC aggregation occur

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40
Q

common s/s of hypothyroidism

A

(SATA)

constipation
bradycardia
lethargy

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41
Q

obese individuals are at higher risk of hypertension d/t increased production of…?

A

antiotensinogen

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42
Q

pt is unable to sense the touch of a sharp pin or distinguish a hot object from cold… which are of the brain is damaged?

A

Pons

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43
Q

which part of the brain is responsible for involuntary muscle control and balance/posture?

A

cerebellum

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44
Q

pt only able to smile on one side of the face indicates dysfunction of which cranial nerve?

A

VII (facial nerve)

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45
Q

pt with COPD w/ elevated PVR has increased chance of developing which HF?

A

Right sided HF

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46
Q

VSD is a common congenital heart defect in which pt population?

A

trisomy 21 (down syndrome)

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47
Q

which physical and clinical findings would you expect to find on an infant with ASD?

A

typically asymptomatic

  • crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur
  • wide fixed spitting of the second heart sound
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48
Q

describe process of conjugation of bilirubin in the liver?

A

unconjugated (fat soluble) bilirubin converts to conjugated (water soluble) bilirubin

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49
Q

projectile vomiting w/o N&V could indicate what?

A

Neurologic lesion, Increased ICP, tumor, aneurysm

Need CT scan

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50
Q

what type of diarrhea occurs in lactase deficiency?

A

Osmotic Diarrhea

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51
Q

Frank brigh red/ burgundy blood?

A

Hematochezia

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52
Q

EARLY sign of small intestinal obstruction?

A

Distention

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53
Q

what is NOT a contributing factor to duodenal ulcer

A

-gastric emptying is slowed, causing greater exposure of the mucosa to acid

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54
Q

Alcoholic cirrhosis has an accumulation of

A

hepatic fat accumulation

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55
Q

EARLY s/s hepatitis?

A

Fatigue
Vomiting
hyperalgia

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56
Q

what structures are not completely fused in cleft lip?

A

nasomedial and intermaxiallary process

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57
Q

Mild conjugated (indirect-reacting) hyperbilirubinemia causes what condition in a newborn?

A

Jaundice?

58
Q

how does varicose bronchiectasis deform the bronchi?

A

varicose bronchiectasis exists when both constrictions and dilations deform the bronchi

59
Q

pt with transudative pleural effusion, what intervention would you do/ what does it indicate?

A

check protein levels

result of decreased capillary oncotic pressure

60
Q

which condition would you most likely find the diagnosis of ARDS

A

PNA

61
Q

pt diagnosed w/ primary emphysema w/o hx of smoking…

A

facilitate genetic testing

62
Q

definition of pleural effusion?

A

Fluid in the pleural space

63
Q

clinical findings of pulmonary hypertension

A

dyspnea on exertion
peripheral edema
JVD

64
Q

nasal congestions is a serious threat to young infants b/c?

A

they are obligatory nose breathers for first 2-3 months

65
Q

which 2 substances are inhibited with the release of natriuretic peptides?

A

Renin & Aldosterone

66
Q

best lab to eval renal function?

A

GFR

67
Q

What measures can be done to decrease colon cancer risk

A

exercise

68
Q

what causes renal failure in children after electrical burns?

A

myoglobin that is relseased from damaged muscles

69
Q

pressure from a pitutiary tumor on the optic chiasm can cause what?

A

visual distrubances

70
Q

what are effects of age related anorexia cause (SATA)

A

decreases in saliva and the sense of taste are contributing factors

age related loss of appetite common

social stimulation at meals may promote better eating habits

71
Q

how does surfactant facilitate alveolar distention and ventilation ?

A

Decreases surface tension in the alveoli

72
Q

what are expected changes in a UA for an elderly pt?

A

Lower specific gravity (1.003)

73
Q

what are expected changes in a UA for an elderly pt?

A

Lower specific gravity (1.003)

74
Q

what is the role of pyrophosphate, potassium citrate, and magnesium in the formation of kidney stones?

A

inhibit crystal growth

75
Q

how to differentiate between pyelonphritis or cystitis

A

UA confirmation of white blood cell casts

76
Q

pt with hematuria, RBC casts, proteinuria exceeding 3-5g/day, with albumin as the major protein. What diagnostic test or treatment regime would be the next intervention?

A

renal biopsy

77
Q

a child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is voiding smoky, brown colored urine. what does this indicate?

A

presence of RBCs

78
Q

In IgG nephropathies such as glomerulonephritis, IgG is deposited in ___ of the kidney

A

glomerulus basement membrane

79
Q

what causes vesicoureteral reflux in children

A

short ureter making anti-reflux mech inefficient

80
Q

term used to identify a functional urinary tract obstruction caused by an interruption of the nerve supply to bladder

A

neurogenic bladder

81
Q

articular cartilage

A

insensitive to pain and regenerates slowly and minimally after injury

82
Q

what is transporting glycoprotein between bone cells for essential elements such as hormones, ions, and other metabolites?

A

bone albumin

83
Q

what is the function of osteocytes

A

maintain bone matrix

84
Q

what is a pathologic fracture

A

a fracture that happens at the site of an abnormality already in that bone

85
Q

when a patient injuries the upper motor neuron, the damage is expected to be ___paralysis, with gradual ____ recovery later

A

inital, partial

86
Q

what separates the brains cerebellum

A

tentorium cerebelli

87
Q

defect of the arachnoid villi causes

A

too little absorption of CSF

88
Q

executive attention functions is mediated from which area of the brain?

A

prefrontal

10 sec tom -cant keep attention

89
Q

complex focal seizure

A

loss of consciousness

dreamlike state

90
Q

vasogenic cerebral edema

A

increased permeability of the capillary endothelium of the brain after injury to the vascular structure

91
Q

inability to identify an object when ones eyes are closed

A

tactile agnosia

92
Q

which type of injury is expected to cause more pain based on the process of nocieptors?

A

crushed fingers

93
Q

gate control theory

A

balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system modulates the transmission of pain

94
Q

nerve fiber that transmits pain impulses

A

a-delta fibers

95
Q

primary-order transmitting neuron in the spinal cord

A

dorsal root ganglia

96
Q

endogenous opioid located in the hypothalamus and pituitary gland

A

endorphins

97
Q

major depressive patients have an abnormality in the

A

hypothalamic pituitary adrenal system (HPA)

98
Q

decrease in receptor binding for which neurotransmitter found in depression

A

serotonin

99
Q

electrolyte abnormaility associated with lithium toxicity

A

hyponatremia

100
Q

complication of panic disorder

A

agoraphobia

101
Q

correlation between major depression and cortisol secretion

A

persistently elevated plasma cortisol levels can result in inflammation that is believed to trigger depression

102
Q

Which of these statments are correct regarding the pericardium?

a. its a double walled membranous sac that encloses the heart
b. made up of connective tissue and a surface layer of squamous cells
c. protects the heart against infection and inflammation
d. contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate

A

ACD

103
Q

function of papillary muscles

A

prevent backward expulsion of the AV valves

104
Q

electrolyte imbalance of the phase 0 cardiac cycle

A

hyponatremia

105
Q

explain raynaud disease to a new student

A

vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers and less commonly of the toes

106
Q

age related bone loss in older women is associated with

A

increased oxidative stress and increased intracellular reactive oxygen species

107
Q

for a pt found down on the ground after a fall, what lab to order?

A

serum creatine kinase

108
Q

paget disease explanation

A

problem with bone resorption and formation

109
Q

what does sequestrum mean regarding osteomyelitis?

A

area of devascularized and devitalized bone

110
Q

what is ankylosing spondylitis

A

chronic inflammatory diseae with stiffening and fusion of the spine

111
Q

subluxated hip?

A

maintains contact with the acetabulum but is not well seated within the joint

112
Q

allergic contact and stasis dermatitis have in common

A

erythemia and pruritus

113
Q

demarcated lesions on the elbow and knees that are thick, silver, scaly, and erythemaous describe…

A

plaque psoriasis

114
Q

collection of infected hair follicles on the back of the neck

A

carbuncles

115
Q

highly contagious infection

A

impetigo

116
Q

tinea corporis (ringworm) can be described as

A

circular lesions with erythema and scaling pathces

117
Q

facts regarding kaposi sarcoma (quick)

A

AIDS
drug induced
African American
Lower legs

118
Q

onychomycosis location

A

finernail

119
Q

malignancy lesion of face/neck with depressed centers with rolled borders

A

basal cell carcinoma

120
Q

pelvic inflammatory disease caused by inflammation that results in permanent changes to ____of the ____

A

ciliated epithelium, fallopian tubes

121
Q

benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells

A

leiomyomas

122
Q

cervical carcinoma in situ defined as

A

full epithelial thickness of the cervis

123
Q

gene mutation associated with breast/ovarian cancer

A

BRACA1

124
Q

clinical findings of superficial breast cyts

A

squishy feeling and eaily palpated

125
Q

what do you want to assess in balanitis

A

check blood glucose

126
Q

frim nontender testicular mass can indicate

A

testicular cancer

127
Q

a man reports that he had sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dyuria, nocturia, and urinary retention. what is the next most steps?

A

urine sample

128
Q

clinical findings of prostate cancer (SATA)

a. ranks 2nd to lung cancer as being most common among American men.
b. >65 yrs of age increases risk
c. Dietary habits increases risk
d. African American men have increased risk

A

BCD

129
Q

condition in which the foreskin cannot be attracted back over the glans

A

phimosis

130
Q

newborn with gonococcal STI will have

A

bilateral corneal ulceration

131
Q

stage of syphilis would the following be found: destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesion, aneurysms, HF, neurosyphils

A

tertiary

132
Q

what is reposible for the development of syphilis

A

Treponema Pallidum

133
Q

how to treat strawberry spots on vagina and cervix

A

metronidazole

134
Q

which two STI frequently coexist?

A

Chlamydia & Gonorrhea

135
Q

woman with severe preeclampsia. What clincial findings could be present (SATA)

a. edema of hands and face
b. clonus
c. fetal heart rate accelerations
d. right upper quadrant pain
e. headache

A

A.B.D.E

136
Q

A woman who is G3 T2 P2 A0 L2is admitted to the obstetric unit at 30 weeks gestation with a sudden onset of vaginal bleeding that is bright red in color. Upon exam, her uterus is soft and she pain reports no pain. The fetal heart rate is 140 beats/minute. The healthcare provider correctly identifies these assessment findings are related to which of the following problems?

A

no pain is clue—-

Placenta Previa

137
Q

A 45 y/o woman with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) presents to the primary care clinic with a report of dizziness, sharp abdominal pain, and scant dark red vaginal discharge. She has missed two menstrual periods and is concerned about being pregnant. A pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy. These assessment findings indicate the woman is experiencing which of the following problems?

A

ruptured ectopic pregnancy — SHARP Pain

138
Q

during amniocentesis to look for neural tube defect

A

alpha feto protein

139
Q

which pt would you want to check to see if they have an elevated ADH level?

A

small cell carcinoma of the stomach

140
Q

pt with closed head injury and significant urine output, hypotension

A

Give desmopressin to decrease urine output and increase BP

Adv patho (2 decks)

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