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Food hygiene > Midterm 1 S1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 S1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Choose the correct statements (3)

a. Food hygiene is the basic system of requirements and tools of guaranteeing food safety
b. Food hygiene is the basic system of requirements and tools of guaranteeing food quality
c. Primary production means the manufacture of foodstuffs in processing plants
d. Food hygiene requirements also refer to the primary production
e. Food toxicosis is caused by toxins produced by microorganisms in the gastrointestinal tract of the consumer
f. Toxic-infection is caused by toxins produced by microorganisms in the gastrointestinal tract of the consumer

A

a. Food hygiene is the basic system of requirements and tools of guaranteeing food safety
d. Food hygiene requirements also refer to the primary production
f. Toxic-infection is caused by toxins produced by microorganisms in the gastrointestinal tract of the consumer

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2
Q

Choose the correct statements (3)

a. Viruses are obligate parasites that can also replicate in the food
b. The number of viruses getting into the food never increases
c. Foodborne virus infections are mainly of human origin
d. Prions are high molecular weight proteins that are sensitive to heat
e. BSE prions have extremely high heat resistance
f. The term of specified risk materials refers to the animal wastes at the farm

A

b. The number of viruses getting into the food never increases
c. Foodborne virus infections are mainly of human origin
e. BSE prions have extremely high heat resistance

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3
Q

Which one of the following statements is FALSE for Escherichia coli?

a. Indole positive
b. Able to decompose lactose
c. Methyl red negative
d. Citrate negative

A

c. Methyl red negative

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4
Q

What are the suitability of sampling based on suspicion monitoring plan?

a. It is used to inspect the cause of foodborne disease
b. It is used to determine the drug residues in the food
c. It is used to investigate the chemical contaminants of the food
d. It is used to detect the poisonous source

A

a. It is used to inspect the cause of foodborne disease

d. It is used to detect the poisonous source

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5
Q

What are the suitability of sampling based on annual monitoring plan?

a. It is used to inspect the cause of foodborne disease
b. It is used to determine the drug residues in the food
c. It is used to investigate the chemical contaminants of the food
d. It is used to detect the poisonous source

A

b. It is used to determine the drug residues in the food

c. It is used to investigate the chemical contaminants of the food

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6
Q

Which screening methods are used for microbial growth inhibition test:

a. Meatsafe test
b. KIS test
c. Brilliant black reduction test
d. Snap test

A

b. KIS test

c. Brilliant black reduction test

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7
Q

Which screening methods are used for receptor based test:

a. Meatsafe test
b. KIS test
c. Brilliant black reduction test
d. Snap test

A

a. Meatsafe test

d. Snap test

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8
Q

Which screening methods are used for receptor based test:

a. Meatsafe test
b. KIS test
c. Brilliant black reduction test
d. Snap test

A

a. Meatsafe test

d. Snap test

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9
Q

What is the quantity of one sample based on the legal regulation in case of the foods below?

a. Turkey meat
b. Stone fruit
c. Mammal fat
d. Cow milk

A

a. Turkey meat: 500g
b. Stone fruit: 1 kg
c. Mammal fat: 500g
d. Cow milk: 500ml

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10
Q

What are characteristics to the objective inspection program?

a. It is used to survey attributes of food
b. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely
c. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation
d. The results of the investigation are valid for the whole population

A

a. It is used to survey attributes of food

d. The results of the investigation are valid for the whole population

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11
Q

What are characteristics to the selective control?

a. It is used to survey attributes of food
b. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely
c. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation
d. The results of the investigation are valid for the whole population

A

b. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely
c. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation

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12
Q

What are characteristics to the selective control?

a. It is used to survey attributes of food
b. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely
c. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation
d. The results of the investigation are valid for the whole population

A

b. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely
c. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation

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13
Q

Which screening methods are used for microbial growth inhibition method?

a. Rosa test
b. Delvotest
c. Four plate method
d. Beta star test

A

b. Delvotest

c. Four plate method

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14
Q

Which screening methods are used for receptor based test?

a. Rosa test
b. Delvotest
c. Four plate method
d. Beta star test

A

a. Rosa test

d. Beta star test

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15
Q

What is the quantity of one sample based on the legal regulation in case of foods below?

a. Mammal meat
b. Pulse (leguminous)
c. Sausage
d. Milk

A

a. Mammal meat: 500g
b. Pulse: 1 kg
c. Sausage: 500g
d. Milk: 500ml

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16
Q

Bluish green colonies were found on a TBX plate. Based on the ISO method, how do we confirm that they are indeed Escherichia coli?

a. Biochemical tests
b. Inoculating into MMG broth
c. Repeat the test after heat treatment for 60 degrees C, 30 minutes
d. No further confirmation needed

A

d. No further confirmation needed

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17
Q

Which one of the following statements is ture for Staphylococcus aureus?

a. Oxidase positive
b. Coagulase positive
c. Obligate anaerobe
d. Aerotolerant anaerobe

A

b. Coagulase positive

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18
Q

What does the term facultative anaerobe mean?

a. Only able to multiplicity in the presence of oxygen
b. Able to use both aerobic respiration and anaerobic fermentation
c. Able to tolerate oxygen, but cannot use it
d. Only able to multiplicity under specific oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration

A

b. Able to use both aerobic respiration and anaerobic fermentation

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19
Q

Which one of the following is true for the Enterobacteriaceae family?

a. Obligate aerobe
b. Gram positive
c. Baird Parker agar is the medium used for culturing
d. Able to multiplicate in medium containing bile

A

d. Able to multiplicate in medium containing bile

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20
Q

Which method can be used for finding the lipopolysaccharides of the gram negative bacteria?

a. Redox potential method
b. Biuret reaction
c. Limulus test
d. Bioluminescence test (lucification)

A

c. Limulus test

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21
Q

Which microbe’s detection is done by the following method?

Non-selective pre-enrichment –> Selective enrichment –> Culturing in selective-differentiating medium –> Biochemical confirmation –> Serological confirmation

a. Salmonella
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Escherichia coli
d. Enterobacteriaceae

A

a. Salmonella

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22
Q

Which statement is true for Salmonella?

a. Indol production is negative
b. Voges-Proskauer test is positive
c. Lactose-fermentation is positive
d. H2S production is positive

A

a. Indol production is negative

d. H2S production is positive

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23
Q

Which statement is FALSE for Listeria monocytogenes?

a. Catalase test is positive
b. Rhamnose negative
c. It’s typical colonies on ALOA agar are blue
d. Shows summer saulting motility at 25°C

A

b. Rhamnose negative

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24
Q

Which statement is FALSE for E. coli?

a. Citrate utilization test is positive
b. Indole test is positive
c. Voges-Proskauer test is negative
d. Methyl red test is positive

A

a. Citrate utilization test is positive

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25
Q

Enterococcus can grow:

a. Between 10-60°C
b. At pH 2.6
c. At 6.5% salt concentration
d. Grow on blood agar with 70% bile content

A

c. At 6.5% salt concentration

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26
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

a. Limulus test is suitable for detection of Gram-bacteria
b. Impedance measurement works with special media only
c. The microbial count can be determined by detecting the amount of ATP
d. The redox potential of the medium decreases during the bacterial growth

A

c. The microbial count can be determined by detecting the amount of ATP

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27
Q

Which statement is true?

a. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase positive
b. Staphylococcus aureus is cultured in Fraser broth
c. Positive colonies of E.coli are bluish green on TBX agar
d. Enterobacteriaceae cannot ferment glucose

A

c. Positive colonies of E.coli are bluish green on TBX agar

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28
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

a. Listeria monocytogenes’ B-haemolysis strengthens the haemolysis of Staphylococcus aureus
b. Salmonella colonies are reddish purple on XLD agar
c. Salmonella decomposes lactose
d. MRSV agar can be used instead of RVS broth in the enrichment procedure of Salmonella

A

c. Salmonella decomposes lactose

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29
Q

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens?

a. Cultured on Sulphite cycloserine agar
b. B and C strains pathogenic for humans
c. In LS broth incubated at 25°C
d. No haemolysis on blood agar

A

a. Cultured on Sulphite cycloserine agar

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30
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

a. Selective media of moulds have low pH
b. Enterococcus faecalis is one of the most resistant among the non-spore forming microbes
c. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase positive
d. E.coli can ferment lactose

A

c. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase positive

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31
Q

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus?

a. Produces toxin between 8-45 degrees celcius
b. Reduces the nitrate to nitrite
c. No haemolysis on blood agar
d. Gram negative

A

b. Reduces the nitrate to nitrite

32
Q

What is NOT true for gas chromatography?

a. It is not suitable for analysing in organic materials
b. Heat sensitive materials can also be analysed
c. It has higher resolution capacities than liquid chromatography
d. It can be connected with mass spectrometric detection

A

c. It has higher resolution capacities than liquid chromatography

33
Q

What is the main bottleneck of molecular spectroscopy?

a. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough
b. It is not suitable for analysing solid samples
c. Only one compound can give signal in the given wavelength
d. It requires too high amount of analytical sample

A

c. Only one compound can give signal in the given wavelength

34
Q

What are NOT characteristic of indicator organisms?

a. Should be informative in all types of waters (drinking water, lake, river, seaweed, wastewater etc.)
b. They are obligate pathogens
c. Characterised by longer survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes
d. Their quantity must show direct correlation with the degree of fecal contamination

A

b. They are obligate pathogens

35
Q

Which statement is true for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a. Gram positive, rod-shaped, oxidase positive, non-spore forming bacterium
b. Occurs in faeces, soil, water and waste water
c. As an indicator of faecal contamination can be used
d. Provides information about defects of filtering process

A

b. Occurs in faeces, soil, water and waste water

36
Q

Which statement is FALSE for sulphite-reducing Clostridia and Clostridium perfringes?

a. Obligate anaerobic, spore forming bacteria
b. Most representative is Clostridium botulinum, which is natural member of faecal microflora
c. Spore can survive in the water for long time and are highly resistant to disinfection
d. Presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts and defects of filtering process

A

b. Most representative is Clostridium botulinum, which is natural member of faecal microflora

37
Q

Which statement is FALSE for heterotrophic aerobic bacteria?

a. Determined at 15°C and 37°C
b. Long term examination can be used for control the treatment of water
c. Sudden increase in the number refers to a defect in the water treatment
d. Carried out by pour plate method

A

a. Determined at 15°C and 37°C

38
Q

Which statement is true for total coliforms?

a. Associated with a more or less faecal contamination
b. Direct indicators of faecal contamination nor have health risk
c. Presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts
d. Belonging to the Streptococcaceae family

A

a. Associated with a more or less faecal contamination

39
Q

Which statement is true for the organic acids as preservatives?

a. Usually these substances have bactericide effect
b. The organic acids are effective in dissociated form
c. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on concentration temperature
d. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher

A

c. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on concentration temperature

40
Q

Which statement is true for the water removal?

a. The microbes can multiply at each water activity circumstances
b. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms
c. The bacteria can grow below 0.8Aw
d. The Aw requirement of bacteria is lower than the moulds

A

b. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms

41
Q

Which statement is true for the heat treatment?

a. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60°C heat treatment
b. Enterococcus can survive the 80°C 30 min. heat treatment
c. All the spores can be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment
d. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

A

d. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

42
Q

The typical spoilage flora of meat products are?

a. Moulds
b. Yeasts
c. Micrococci, Lactobacilli
d. Salmonella spp.

A

c. Micrococci, Lactobacilli

43
Q

The typical spoilage flora of bakery products are?

a. Moulds
b. Lactobacilli
c. Yeasts
d. Clostridium botulinum

A

a. Moulds

44
Q

What are characteristic of indicator organisms?

a. Should be informative in all types of waters (drinking water, lake, river, seaweed, wastewater etc.)
b. They are obligate pathogens
c. Characterised by shorter survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes

d. Their quantity does not show direct correlation with the degree of fecal
contamination

A

a. Should be informative in all types of waters (drinking water, lake, river, seaweed, wastewater etc.)

45
Q

Which statement is FALSE for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a. Gram negative, rod-shaped, oxidase positive, non-spore forming bacterium
b. Occurs in faeces, soil, water and waste water
c. As an indicator of faecal contamination can be used

d. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution
system

A

c. As an indicator of faecal contamination can be used

46
Q

Which statement is true for sulphite reducing clostridia and Clostridium perfringens?

a. Obligate aerobic, spore forming bacteria

b. Most representative is clostridium botulinum, which is natural member of fecal
microflora

c. Spore can survive in the water for long time and are highly resistant to disinfection
d. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution system

A

c. Spore can survive in the water for long time and are highly resistant to disinfection

47
Q

Which statement is true for heterotrophic bacteria?

a. Determined at 15°C and 37°C
b. Long term examination can be used for control the treatment of water
c. Sudden increase in the number refers to a faecal contamination in the water treatment
d. Carried out by MPN method

A

b. Long term examination can be used for control the treatment of water

48
Q

Which statement is FALSE for total coliform?

a. Associated with a more or less faecal contamination
b. Direct indicators of faecal contamination nor have health risk
c. Provide good information on the microbiological status of the water
d. Belonging to the Enterobacteriaceae family

A

b. Direct indicators of faecal contamination nor have health risk

49
Q

Which statement is FALSE for the water removal?

a. The microbes can multiply at certain water activity circumstances
b. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms
c. The bacteria can grow below 0.7Aw
d. The Aw requirement of bacteria is higher than the moulds

A

c. The bacteria can grow below 0.7Aw

50
Q

Which statement is FALSE for the heat treatment?

a. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60°C heat treatment
b. Enterococcus can survive the 60°C 30 min. heat treatment
c. All the spores cannot be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment
d. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

A

a. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60°C heat treatment

51
Q

What part of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum can be used for analytical purposes?

a. Only the ultraviolet and the visible parts
b. The ultraviolet, visible and near infrared parts
c. The ultraviolet, visible, infrared, and the x-ray parts
d. The whole spectrum can be used

A

c. The ultraviolet, visible, infrared, and the x-ray parts

52
Q

The main bottleneck of mass spectrometry?

a. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough
b. It is not suitable for analyzing solid samples
c. It is suitable only for structure analysis of chemically clean materials
d. It requires too high amount of analytical sample

A

c. It is suitable only for structure analysis of chemically clean materials

53
Q

Limulus test is suitable for detection of Gram(-) bacteria

A

True

54
Q

Impedance measurements works with special media only

A

True

55
Q

The microbial count can be determined by detecting the amount of ATP

A

False

56
Q

Listeria monocytogenes’ B-haemolysis strengthens the haemolysis of T Staphylococcus aureus

A

True

57
Q

Salmonella colonies are reddish purple on XLD agar

A

True

58
Q

Salmonella decompose lactose

A

False

Cannot decompose lactose!!!

59
Q

MRSV agar can be used instead of RVS broth in the enrichment procedure of Salmonella

A

True

60
Q

Selective media of moulds have low pH

A

True

61
Q

Enterococcus faecalis is one of the most resistant among the non-spore forming microbes

A

True

62
Q

Enterococcus faecalis is catalase positive

A

False

63
Q

E. coli can ferment lactose

A

True

64
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive

A

False

65
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is cultured in Fraser broth

A

False

Giolitti-Cantoni broth and Baird-Parker agar

66
Q

Positive colonies of E. coli are bluish green of TBX agar

A

True

67
Q

Enterobacteriaceae cannot ferment glucose

A

False

68
Q

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens?

a. Cultured of Sulphite cycloserine agar
b. B and C strains are pathogenic for humans
c. In LS broth incubated at 25°C
d. No haemolysis on blood agar

A

a. Cultured of Sulphite cycloserine agar

(A and C strains are pathogenic,
Incubation at 46°C,
Has haemolysis)

69
Q

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus?

a. Produces toxins between 8-45°C
b. Reduces nitrate to nitrite
c. No haemolysis on blood agar
d. Gram negative

A

b. Reduces nitrate to nitrite

(Produces toxin between 20-45°C,
Has B-haemolysis,
Gram positive)

70
Q

Which statement is true for Salmonella?

a. Indole production is negative
b. Voges-Proskauer test is positive
c. Lactose fermentation is positive
d. H2S production is positive

A

a. Indole production is negative

d. H2S production is positive

71
Q

Which statement is true for Listeria monocytogenes?

a. Catalase utilisation test is positive
b. Rhamnose negative
c. Its typical colonies on ALOA agar are blue
d. Shows summersaulting motility at 25°C

A

a. Catalase utilisation test is positive
c. Its typical colonies on ALOA agar are blue
d. Shows summersaulting motility at 25°C

72
Q

Which statement is FALSE for E. coli?

a. Citrate utilisation test is positive
b. Indole test is positive
c. Voges-Proskauer test is negative
d. Methyl red test is positive

A

a. Citrate utilisation test is positive

73
Q

Enterococcus faecalis can grow:

a. Between 10-60°C
b. At pH 2.6
c. At 6.5% salt concentration
d. On blood agar with 70% bile content

A

c. At 6.5% salt concentration

(Grows btw. 10-40°C,
At pH 9.6,
and at 40% bile content)

74
Q

What is “Food safety”?

a. Assurance that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is prepared and / or eaten according to its intended use
b. All characteristics that make the food acceptable to consumers and meet relevant standards
c. All conditions and measures necessary to ensure the safety and sustainability of food at all stages of the food chain
d. Assurance that food is acceptable for human consumption according to it’s intended use

A

a. Assurance that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is prepared and / or eaten according to its intended use

75
Q

What is “Food suitability”?

a. Assurance that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is prepared and / or eaten according to its intended use
b. All characteristics that make the food acceptable to consumers and meet relevant standards
c. All conditions and measures necessary to ensure the safety and sustainability of food at all stages of the food chain
d. Assurance that food is acceptable for human consumption according to it’s intended use

A

d. Assurance that food is acceptable for human consumption according to it’s intended use

76
Q

What is “Food hygiene”?

a. Assurance that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is prepared and / or eaten according to its intended use
b. All characteristics that make the food acceptable to consumers and meet relevant standards
c. All conditions and measures necessary to ensure the safety and sustainability of food at all stages of the food chain
d. Assurance that food is acceptable for human consumption according to it’s intended use

A

c. All conditions and measures necessary to ensure the safety and sustainability of food at all stages of the food chain

77
Q

What is “Food quality”?

a. Assurance that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is prepared and / or eaten according to its intended use
b. All characteristics that make the food acceptable to consumers and meet relevant standards
c. All conditions and measures necessary to ensure the safety and sustainability of food at all stages of the food chain
d. Assurance that food is acceptable for human consumption according to it’s intended use

A

b. All characteristics that make the food acceptable to consumers and meet relevant standards

Food hygiene (3 decks)

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