FINAL Pqs

Question 1

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a. Cheeses made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk
b. Cheeses made from raw milk may pose lower microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk
c. Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by clostridia
d. Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by coliforms

Answer 1

a. Cheeses made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk
d. Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by coliforms

Question 2

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a. Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
b. Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of milk fats
c. Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia
d. Late blowing or hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by coliforms

Answer 2

a. Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins

c. Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia

Question 3

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a. Caseins are produced in the udder
b. Caseins originate from the blood
c. Caseins remain in solution during sour coagulation
d. Whey proteins remain in solution during sour coagulation

Answer 3

a. Caseins are produced in the udder

d. Whey proteins remain in solution during sour coagulation a. Caseins are produced in the udder

Question 4

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a. After UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically
b. After heat treatment at very high temperature (ESL) the milk is packed aseptically
c. UHT-treated milk needs cold storage
d. Milk treated at very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage

Answer 4

a. After UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically

d. Milk treated at very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage

Question 5

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a. The maximum allowed somatic cell count in raw cow’s milk is 100 000 / ml
b. The maximum allowed somatic cell count in raw cow’s milk is 400 000 / ml
c. The total plate count at 30°C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 100 000 / ml
d. The total plate count at 30°C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 400 000 / ml

Answer 5

b. The maximum allowed somatic cell count in raw cow’s milk is 400 000 / ml
c. The total plate count at 30°C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 100 000 / ml

Question 6

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a. Skimming increases the density of milk
b. Skimming decreases the density of milk
c. Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk
d. Mastitis usually reduces the electrical conductivity of milk

Answer 6

a. Skimming increases the density of milk

c. Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk

Question 7

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a. The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
b. The fermentation of kefir is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
c. For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at high temperature for 2-3 minutes
d. For manufacturing of yoghurt, the milk is pasteurised at low temperature without holding

Answer 7

a. The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
c. For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at high temperature for 2-3 minutes

Question 8

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a. Campylobacters are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurisation
b. Campylobacters are sensitive to heat, they are killed by pasteurisation
c. Salmonellae are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurisation
d. Salmonellae are rather sensitive to heat, they are killed by pasteurisation

Answer 8

b. Campylobacters are sensitive to heat, they are killed by pasteurisation
d. Salmonellae are rather sensitive to heat, they are killed by pasteurisation

Question 9

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a. Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurisation
b. Peroxidase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of HTST pasteurisation
c. Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72°C within 15 seconds
d. Peroxidase is inactivated at 72°C within 15 seconds

Answer 9

a. Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurisation
c. Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72°C within 15 seconds

Question 10

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a. Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of colloidal micelles
b. Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules
c. Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of globules
d. Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles

Answer 10

b. Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules
d. Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles

Question 11

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a. Control of the proper identification of critical control point is a major element of the GHP audit
b. Control of the proper identification of critical control point is a major element of the HACCP audit
c. The poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
d. The poultry meat put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution

Answer 11

b. Control of the proper identification of critical control point is a major element of the HACCP audit
c. The poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution

Question 12

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a. Retail supermarkets are subject of approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
b. Retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
c. Mass caterers are subject to approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
d. Mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC

Answer 12

b. Retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
d. Mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC

Question 13

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a. Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as illegal distribution
b. Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
c. The health mark (meat stamp) shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment, but it is not included in the identification marking
d. Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment

Answer 13

a. Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as illegal distribution
d. Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment

Question 14

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a. The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
b. According to the corresponding EU legislations, food processing establishments shall be controlled at least annually
c. Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major role of the GHP audit
d. Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major role of the HACCP audit

Answer 14

a. The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
d. Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major role of the HACCP audit

Question 15

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a. Emergency slaughter involved the urgent bleeding of animals being suspected of infection
b. Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
c. Immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals being suspected of infection
d. Immediate slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals

Answer 15

b. Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
c. Immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals being suspected of infection

Question 16

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a. Pigs can be health-marked before the results of Trichinella test are available
b. Pigs must not be health-marked before the results of Trichinella test are available
c. Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
d. Poultry meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Answer 16

a. Pigs can be health-marked before the results of Trichinella test are available
c. Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Question 17

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a. During meat ageing, the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the pH reduction
b. During meat ageing, the water holding capacity of proteins increase due to pH reduction
c. After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of cattle decreases faster to the final pH than in pigs
d. After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster to the final pH than in cattle

Answer 17

a. During meat ageing, the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the pH reduction
d. After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster to the final pH than in cattle

Question 18

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a. In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community regulation
b. In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community directive
c. In the EU, the meat inspection rules laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all Member States
d. In the EU, the meat inspection rules laid down in the corresponding legislation shall be adopted by the individual Member States

Answer 18

a. In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community regulation
c. In the EU, the meat inspection rules laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all Member States

Question 19

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a. In pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
b. In pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of an identity mark
c. In cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
d. In cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of an identity mark

Answer 19

a. In pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
c. In cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)

Question 20

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a. For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at low temperature without holding
b. For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at high temperature with holding
c. For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to technological aspects
d. For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to food safety aspects

Answer 20

b. For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at high temperature with holding
d. For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to food safety aspects

Question 21

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a. The routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed visually

b. The routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed by visual inspection, palpation, and incision
c. As part of the routine meat inspection of young cattle (<8 months old), the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced
d. In young cattle (<8 months old), the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only

Answer 21

b. The routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed by visual inspection, palpation, and incision
d. In young cattle (<8 months old), the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only

Question 22

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a. The head of cattle is removed during the slaughtering process
b. The head of pigs is removed during the slaughterhouse process
c. In pigs, the bleeding is performed by the two-knife method
d. In cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two-knife method

Answer 22

a. The head of cattle is removed during the slaughtering process
d. In cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two-knife method

Question 23

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a. Rodding means the ligation of the oesophagus before the rumen
b. Rodding means the ligation of the rectum in order to prevent faecal contamination
c. In cattle, the spinal cord is classed as SRM irrespective of the animal’s age
d. In cattle, the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals >12 months age

Answer 23

a. Rodding means the ligation of the oesophagus before the rumen
d. In cattle, the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals >12 months age

Question 24

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a. Identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcass
b. Identification marking shall be applied directly on the poultry carcass
c. Every poultry carcass shall be tested for surface Salmonella contamination at the slaughterhouse
d. Once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface Salmonella contamination

Answer 24

a. Identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcass
d. Once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface Salmonella contamination

Question 25

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a. Small capacity slaughterhouses need not be approved only registered by the authority
b. Small capacity slaughterhouses need also be approved by the authority
c. At the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in a suspended position
d. In a small capacity slaughterhouse, pigs can also be bled in a horizontal position

Answer 25

b. Small capacity slaughterhouses need also be approved by the authority
c. At the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in a suspended position

Question 26

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a. After slaughter, the carcass of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 4°C
b. After slaughter, the carcass of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 7°C
c. After slaughter, the carcass of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 4°C
d. After slaughter, the carcass of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 7°C

Answer 26

b. After slaughter, the carcass of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 7°C
c. After slaughter, the carcass of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of ≤ 4°C

Question 27

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a. If trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post-mortem meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
b. If trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post-mortem meat inspection, the affected parts shall be condemned and the other parts are fit for human consumption after freezing
c. If hydatid cysts of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver, only the affected organ shall be condemned
d. If hydatid cysts of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Answer 27

b. If trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post-mortem meat inspection, the affected parts shall be condemned and the other parts are fit for human consumption after freezing
c. If hydatid cysts of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver, only the affected organ shall be condemned

Question 28

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a. In sheep, foot and mouth disease (FMD) is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
b. In goats, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
c. In cattle, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation
d. In pigs, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation

Answer 28

b. In goats, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
c. In cattle, FMD is characterised by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation

Question 29

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a. The meat of emaciated animals can be used for human consumption after heat treatment is the causative agent is non-zoonotic
b. The meat of emaciated animals is unfit for human consumption irrespective of other aspects
c. In case of sex odour of pork, the meat can be used for human consumption after heat treatment only
d. In case of sex odour of pork, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Answer 29

b. The meat of emaciated animals is unfit for human consumption irrespective of other aspects
d. In case of sex odour of pork, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Question 30

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a. The complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detects conditions associated with bacterial dissemination
b. The complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detect the surface contamination of the carcasses at the slaughterhouse
c. The meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat of the concerned animal can only be used for human consumption after heat treatment
d. If the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat of the concerned animal is unfit for human consumption

Answer 30

a. The complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detects conditions associated with bacterial dissemination
d. If the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat of the concerned animal is unfit for human consumption

Question 31

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a. If paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organ shall be condemned
b. If paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
c. If leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organ shall be condemned
d. If leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned

Answer 31

b. If paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
d. If leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned

Question 32

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a. Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in cattle
b. Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in pigs
c. If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
d. If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned

Answer 32

a. Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in cattle
d. If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned

Question 33

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a. The complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal
b. The complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of two samples taken from the neck skin
c. Is imperfect bleeding is diagnosed, the meat can be used for human consumption after heat treatment only
d. If imperfect bleeding is diagnosed, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Answer 33

a. The complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal
d. If imperfect bleeding is diagnosed, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Question 34

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a. In sheep, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness
b. In goats, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness
c. In cattle, the most characteristic signs of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness
d. In pigs, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is lameness due to painful foot lesions

Answer 34

a. In sheep, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness
d. In pigs, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is lameness due to painful foot lesions

Question 35

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a. In case of food poisoning, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
b. In case of food poisoning, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract
c. In case of toxico-infection, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
d. In case of toxico-infection, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract

Answer 35

a. In case of food poisoning, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
d. In case of toxico-infection, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract

Question 36

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a. The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food safety authorities
b. The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food producer
c. The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food quality
d. The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety

Answer 36

a. The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food safety authorities
d. The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety

Question 37

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a. Food hygiene is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food safety
b. Food quality is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food hygiene
c. Food hygiene requirements and tools also refer to the primary production
d. Food hygiene requirements and tools so not refer to the primary production

Answer 37

a. Food hygiene is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food safety
c. Food hygiene requirements and tools also refer to the primary production

Question 38

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a. In general, the water activity demand of Gram positive bacteria is higher than the Gram negative ones
b. In general, the water activity demand of Gram negative bacteria is higher than the Gram positive ones
c. In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than that of yeasts
d. In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is lower than that of yeasts

Answer 38

b. In general, the water activity demand of Gram negative bacteria is higher than the Gram positive ones
c. In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than that of yeasts

Question 39

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a. In food processing plants, water of drinking water quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, as well
b. In food processing plants, water of drinking water non-potable quality can be used for hand washing and cleaning
c. Equipment surfaces coming into direct contact with food shall by easy to clean and disinfect
d. Equipment surfaces coming into direct contact with food shall be sterile

Answer 39

a. In food processing plants, water of drinking water quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, as well
c. Equipment surfaces coming into direct contact with food shall by easy to clean and disinfect

Question 40

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a. In case of drinking water, the test for E. coli as faecal indicator is obligatory
b. In case of drinking water, the test for C. perfringens as faecal indicator is obligatory
c. The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is increased by the elevation of temperature
d. The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is decreased by the elevation of temperature

Answer 40

a. In case of drinking water, the test for E. coli as faecal indicator is obligatory
c. The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is increased by the elevation of temperature

Question 41

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a. Food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
b. Food hygiene expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
c. Food safety includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods
d. Food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods

Answer 41

a. Food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
d. Food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods

Question 42

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a. The HACCP plan should be establishment- and product specific
b. The GHP plan should be establishment- and product specific
c. The GHP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by HACCP
d. The HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly managed by GHP

Answer 42

a. The HACCP plan should be establishment- and product specific
c. The GHP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by HACCP

Question 43

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a. The D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
b. The D value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal death time
c. The z value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
d. The z value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal death time

Answer 43

a. The D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
d. The z value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal death time

Question 44

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a. The F0 value is a technological characteristic expressing the thermal death time equivalent at 121.1°C for the applied treatment procedure
b. The F0 value is a microbiological characteristic which expresses the thermal death time at 121.1°C
c. According to the 12D principle, the food microbiological safety requirement is F 2.52 minutes
d. According to the 12D principle, the food microbiological safety requirement is F 0.21 minutes

Answer 44

a. The F0 value is a technological characteristic expressing the thermal death time equivalent at 121.1°C for the applied treatment procedure
c. According to the 12D principle, the food microbiological safety requirement is F 2.52 minutes

Question 45

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a. In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms reduces as the water activity decreases
b. In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
c. The heat resistance of microbes is the lowest at the pH optimum of their growth
d. The heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the pH optimum of their growth

Answer 45

b. In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
d. The heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the pH optimum of their growth

Question 46

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a. The toxin produced by S. aureus in the food is a neurotoxin that cause a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
b. The toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one
c. The toxin produced by S. aureus in the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling
d. The botulinum toxin is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling

Answer 46

b. The toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one
c. The toxin produced by S. aureus in the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling

Question 47

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a. Botulinum toxin is a neurotoxin that cause a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
b. Botulinum toxin is an emetic toxin that cause gastrointestinal signs
c. The emetic toxin of Bacillus cereus is heat sensitive
d. The diarrhoeic toxin of Bacillus cereus is heat sensitive

Answer 47

a. Botulinum toxin is a neurotoxin that cause a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
d. The diarrhoeic toxin of Bacillus cereus is heat sensitive

Question 48

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a. Campylobacters usually form a biofilm on the surfaces
b. L. monocytogenes usually form a biofilm on the surfaces
c. The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by extraintestinal signs
d. The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by intestinal signs

Answer 48

b. L. monocytogenes usually form a biofilm on the surfaces

c. The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by extraintestinal signs

Question 49

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a. The infective dose of campylobacters is high, at least 10,000 cells are needed to induce diseases in humans
b. The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause diseases in humans
c. The infective dose of campylobacter is higher than that of salmonellae
d. The infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae

Answer 49

b. The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause diseases in humans
d. The infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae

Question 50

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a. The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
b. The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is lower than those prepared by slow curing
c. Meat products prepared by slow curing must be stored chilled
d. Meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled

Answer 50

a. The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
c. Meat products prepared by slow curing must be stored chilled

Question 51

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a. Spoilage is a profound qualitative change of the food
b. Spoilage is a profound safety change of the food
c. Microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds
d. Microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and viruses

Answer 51

a. Spoilage is a profound qualitative change of the food

c. Microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds

Question 52

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a. Mould usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant
b. Moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria
c. Yeasts usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant
d. Yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

Answer 52

b. Moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria
d. Yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

Question 53

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a. The typical, lasting red colour or cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
b. The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to oxymyoglobin
c. For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively nitrite-containing curing salt may be used
d. For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively nitrate-containing curing salt may be used

Answer 53

a. The typical, lasting red colour or cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
d. For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively nitrate-containing curing salt may be used

Question 54

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a. The primary objective of pasteurisation is to destroy all forms of pathogenic bacteria
b. The primary objective of pasteurisation is to destroy the vegetative forms of pathogenic bacteria
c. Pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at a temperature below 100°C
d. Pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at a temperature above 100°C

Answer 54

b. The primary objective of pasteurisation is to destroy the vegetative forms of pathogenic bacteria
c. Pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at a temperature below 100°C

Question 55

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a. After killing, small game shall be eviscerated on the spot
b. In case of small games, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot
c. For small game, the official veterinarian’s meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only
d. For small game, the official veterinarian’s meat inspection shall be done on each single animal

Answer 55

a. After killing, small game shall be eviscerated on the spot
c. For small game, the official veterinarian’s meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only

Question 56

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a. In the food law, the hunted wild game is considered a primary product such as live animals
b. In the food law, the hunted wild game is considered an unprocessed product such as the fresh meat
c. Ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild game shall be performed by a veterinarian
d. Ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild game shall be performed by the hunter

Answer 56

a. In the food law, the hunted wild game is considered a primary product such as live animals
d. Ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild game shall be performed by the hunter

Question 57

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a. The hunted large game must not be skinned in the game collection centre
b. The hunted large game shall be skinned in the game collection centre
c. In the game collection centre, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals
d. In the game collection centre, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on skinned animals only

Answer 57

a. The hunted large game must not be skinned in the game collection centre
c. In the game collection centre, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals

Question 58

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a. S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
b. S. aureus may survive in chocolates, but cannot produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
c. Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxins in the honey
d. Due to the low water activity and low pH of honey, even bacterium spores are unable to germinate in it

Answer 58

a. S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
d. Due to the low water activity and low pH of honey, even bacterium spores are unable to germinate in it

Question 59

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The official veterinarian shall perform individual meat inspection of fish
b. The official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
c. Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria
d. Scombrotoxicosis is due to the presence of marine biotoxins in the flesh

Answer 59

b. The official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
c. Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria

Question 60

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxico-infection in infants
b. Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey cannot germinate in the intestines of infants
c. Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it
d. Depending on the environmental conditions, Listeria monocytogenes can survive in the wine, posing a food safety risk

Answer 60

a. Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxico-infection in infants
c. Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it

Question 61

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Live bivalve molluscs must not contain marine biotoxins exceeding the limits described in Regulation 853/2004/EC
b. Live bivalve molluscs must not contain mycotoxins exceeding the limits described in Regulation 853/2004/EC
c. Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging
d. Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with a health mark on the packaging

Answer 61

a. Live bivalve molluscs must not contain marine biotoxins exceeding the limits described in Regulation 853/2004/EC
c. Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging

Question 62

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Having eviscerated the large game, the hunter shall present the carcass and viscera to a trained person or a veterinarian for inspection
b. The post mortem meat inspection of hunted large game if performed by the hunter itself
c. The post mortem meat inspection of hunted small game is performed by the hunter itself
d. The hunter shall present the carcass of the hunted small game to a trained person or a veterinarian for inspection

Answer 62

a. Having eviscerated the large game, the hunter shall present the carcass and viscera to a trained person or a veterinarian for inspection
d. The hunter shall present the carcass of the hunted small game to a trained person or a veterinarian for inspection

Question 63

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Dioxins accumulate in the adipose tissues of the consumer
b. Dioxins accumulate in the kidneys of the consumer
c. Dioxins are widely used compounds in different industrial processes
d. Significant sources of dioxins include the waste incineration or the forest fires

Answer 63

a. Dioxins accumulate in the adipose tissues of the consumer

d. Significant sources of dioxins include the waste incineration or the forest fires

Question 64

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid-soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in the environment
b. Organophosphates are highly lipid-soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in the environment
c. Pyretroids are persisting compounds in the environment
d. Pyretroids do not persist in the environment

Answer 64

a. Chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid-soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in the environment
c. Pyretroids are persisting compounds in the environment

Question 65

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
b. Acrylamide can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
c. Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
d. Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat

Answer 65

b. Acrylamide can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
d. Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat

Question 66

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Ciguatera toxins accumulate in shellfish
b. Ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish
c. Scombrotoxin is a histamine
d. Scombrotoxin is a shellfish poison

Answer 66

b. Ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish

c. Scombrotoxin is a histamine

Question 67

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Phycotoxins are biotoxins produced by microalgae
b. Phycotoxins are biotoxins produced by moulds
c. Solanine mainly occurs in potatoes
d. Solanine mainly occurs in stone fruit

Answer 67

a. Phycotoxins are biotoxins produced by microalgae

c. Solanine mainly occurs in potatoes

Question 68

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Chlorinated hydrocarbons are cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors
c. Pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins
d. Pyrethrins are synthetic derivatives of pyrethroids

Answer 68

b. Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors

c. Pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins

Question 69

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in Central Europe, but do not produce toxins under these climatic conditions
b. Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in Central Europe and can also produce toxins there due to the climatic changes
c. Ochratoxins can only be produced under hot climate conditions
d. Ochratoxins are also produced under temperate climate conditions

Answer 69

b. Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in Central Europe and can also produce toxins there due to the climatic changes
d. Ochratoxins are also produced under temperate climate conditions

Question 70

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine
b. Scombrotoxin is a mycotoxin
c. Patulin is a mycotoxin
d. Solanine is a mycotoxin

Answer 70

a. Scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine

c. Patulin is a mycotoxin

Question 71

Choose the correct statements

a. Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
b. Only low conductivity broth may be used for redox potential measurement
c. The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria
d. The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria

Answer 71

a. Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
c. The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria

Question 72

What applied heat treatment parameters were not tolerable for Enterobacterium multiplication based of VRBG agar during our practice?

a. 60°C for 30 min
b. 80°C for 20 min
c. 90°C for 5 min
d. Only boiling water

Answer 72

a. 60°C for 30 min

b. 80°C for 20 min

Question 73

Mark the correct answers

a. In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with Rhodococcus equi
b. In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with Staphylococcus
c. Salmonella decarboxylates lysine
d. Salmonella digests urea

Answer 73

b. In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with Staphylococcus
c. Salmonella decarboxylates lysine

Question 74

Which organic acid and what pH was applied successfully during our practice?

a. Formic acid
b. pH 6.5
c. Sorbic acid
d. pH 4.5

Answer 74

c. Sorbic acid

d. pH 4.5

Question 75

What is the sample size?

a. 0.1 ml for pour-plate
b. 1 ml for pour-plate
c. 1 ml for spreading
d. 0.1 ml for spreading

Answer 75

b. 1 ml for pour-plate

d. 0.1 ml for spreading

Question 76

Choose the right solutions

a. The ‘c’ value means the sample number
b. The ‘c’ value means the number of sample units giving values over m or between m and M
c. If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in the meat product is higher than 105 cfu/g, the product must also be tested for the presence of Staphylococcus enterotoxin
d. If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/g, the product must also be tested for the presence of Staphylococcus enterotoxin

Answer 76

b. The ‘c’ value means the number of sample units giving values over m or between m and M
d. If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/g, the product must also be tested for the presence of Staphylococcus enterotoxin

Question 77

Mark the correct answer

a. Escherichia coli is indole positive
b. Escherichia coli uses citrate as the only carbon source
c. Escherichia coli performs mixed acid fermentation
d. Escherichia coli performs butanediol fermentation

Answer 77

a. Escherichia coli is indole positive

c. Escherichia coli performs mixed acid fermentation

Question 78

For which food is the annual sample number determined based on the production figures of the previous year?

a. Swine
b. Cattle
c. Broiler chicken
d. Honey

Answer 78

c. Broiler chicken

d. Honey

Question 79

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Lactoscan equipment is used to perform microbiological growth inhibition test
b. Lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and milk protein, which is important by the price quotation of milk
c. Lactoscan equipment is used to determine the total plate count of the received milk
d. Lactoscan equipment is not just for raw milk useful, but it is also applied in case of analysing already heat-treated milk during manufacture of dairy products

Answer 79

b. Lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and milk protein, which is important by the price quotation of milk
d. Lactoscan equipment is not just for raw milk useful, but it is also applied in case of analysing already heat-treated milk during manufacture of dairy products

Question 80

Which food can be contaminated during the primary production?

a. Egg
b. Sausage
c. Vegetable
d. Minced meat

Answer 80

a. Egg

c. Vegetable

Question 81

What are the advantages of combining chromatographic and mass spectrometric methods?

a. More reliable qualitative analysis
b. More sensitive quantitative analysis
c. More cost-effective procedures
d. All statements are true

Answer 81

a. More reliable qualitative analysis

b. More sensitive quantitative analysis

Question 82

Choose the correct answers!

a. The frankfurters distributed in shops / supermarkets are not heat treated, therefor they cannot be eaten cold
b. The frankfurters distributed in shops / supermarkets are already heat treated, therefore they can be eaten cold
c. The frankfurters distributed in shops / supermarkets are not always heat treated
d. The frankfurters distributed in shops / supermarkets are already heat treated, we heat them up only for better consumer experience

Answer 82

b. The frankfurters distributed in shops / supermarkets are already heat treated, therefore they can be eaten cold
d. The frankfurters distributed in shops / supermarkets are already heat treated, we heat them up only for better consumer experience

Question 83

At what stage of the food analytical procedure may a veterinarian be responsible?

a. Sampling
b. Sample preparation
c. Determining the analytical strategy, carrying out the analysis
d. Interpretation of results

Answer 83

a. Sampling

b. Sample preparation

Question 84

Which of these cheese types are hard and full-fat?

a. Cheddar
b. Mozzarella
c. Feta
d. Emmental

Answer 84

a. Cheddar

d. Emmental

Question 85

Which methods may be used for determining the water added to the milk (possible food adulteration)?

a. Alcohol test
b. Density measurement
c. Peroxidase test
d. Measuring the freezing point

Answer 85

b. Density measurement

d. Measuring the freezing point

Question 86

Please select the right statements!

a. Yoghurt may contain probiotic bacteria
b. Yoghurt is made with mesophilic starter culture
c. Yoghurt can be set-type and stirred type
d. After yoghurt fermentation there is no need for aging in the fridge

Answer 86

a. Yoghurt may contain probiotic bacteria

c. Yoghurt can be set-type and stirred type

Question 87

Which information is part of the producer code on the eggshell?

a. The approval number of the egg packing centre
b. The registration number of the laying hen farm
c. EC (European Community)
d. The code of the housing method

Answer 87

b. The registration number of the laying hen farm

d. The code of the housing method

Question 88

Choose the correct statements

a. Buttermilk is a byproduct of churning
b. Buttermilk cannot be separated by washing
c. Physical ripening of cream results in sour butter
d. Biological ripening of cream results sour butter

Answer 88

a. Buttermilk is a byproduct of churning

d. Biological ripening of cream results sour butter

Question 89

What is true for appropriately manufactured set-type yoghurt?

a. It is runny
b. It is spoonable
c. It has a final pH of 4.6 – 4.3
d. It has a final pH of 5.0 – 5.3

Answer 89

b. It is spoonable

c. It has a final pH of 4.6 – 4.3

Question 90

Choose the right solutions

a. The whipped cream must be matured
b. The churning is a phase reversion process
c. Butter rancidity is the result of protein breakdown
d. Rancing is caused by microbial activity

Answer 90

b. The churning is a phase reversion process

d. Rancing is caused by microbial activity

Question 91

What is typical for Hungarian Trappist cheese made also during the practice?

a. Rennet-coagulation
b. Acid-coagulation
c. Pre-pressing under whey
d. Irregular holes

Answer 91

a. Rennet-coagulation

c. Pre-pressing under whey

Question 92

Which investigation must be performed during the official control of live bivalves?

a. Faecal contamination of the production area
b. Measurement of histamine concentration
c. Biotoxin content of the flesh of live bivalves
d. Measurement of mercury concentration

Answer 92

a. Faecal contamination of the production area

c. Biotoxin content of the flesh of live bivalves

Question 93

Which substance can be measured in the fishery product if there is doubt for freshness?

a. Total volatile basic nitrogen
b. Ciguatoxin
c. Tetrodotoxin
d. Trimethylamine-nitrogen

Answer 93

a. Total volatile basic nitrogen

d. Trimethylamine-nitrogen

Question 94

What curing methods were demonstrated in the Technology lab?

a. Dry curing method: meat was covered with curing / pickling salt
b. Wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
c. Dry salting: meat was covered with pure sodium chloride
d. Tumbling: tumbler was applied to perform fast curing

Answer 94

a. Dry curing method: meat was covered with curing / pickling salt
d. Tumbling: tumbler was applied to perform fast curing

Question 95

What were the applied technology steps during peasant sausage manufacture in Technology lab?

a. Inoculation of meat with starter culture
b. Stuffing
c. Smoking
d. Heat treatment (cooking)

Answer 95

b. Stuffing

c. Smoking

Question 96

What is the role of nitrite in cured meat products?

a. It is prohibiting the growth of germs of Clostridium botulinum
b. Is causes a red colour to the cured meat, which is NOT heat resistant
c. It has antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity
d. Is has no role since it is not allowed to apply in EU

Answer 96

a. It is prohibiting the growth of germs of Clostridium botulinum
c. It has antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity

Question 97

What are the advantages of natural casings?

a. Preparation time is fast and easy to handle
b. They are permeable for smoke and water vapour
c. Microbiological contamination is negligible
d. They are digestible

Answer 97

b. They are permeable for smoke and water vapour

d. They are digestible

Question 98

Which of the following statements are true for Trichinella examination?

a. Faecal samples are used
b. Muscle samples are used
c. The basis of the examination is the detection of the trichinella larvae
d. In the slaughterhouse maximum 5 animals must be sampled on each day

Answer 98

b. Muscle samples are used

c. The basis of the examination is the detection of the trichinella larvae

Question 99

Which of the following statements are true?

a. The official veterinarian must be present when the animals are loaded into the vehicle before the transportation to the slaughterhouse
b. After separate killing, the carcass can be used in food processing
c. The official veterinarian must inspect the food chain information whenever new cargo arrives at the slaughterhouse
d. Vehicles used for the transport of livestock animals must be authorised

Answer 99

c. The official veterinarian must inspect the food chain information whenever new cargo arrives at the slaughterhouse
d. Vehicles used for the transport of livestock animals must be authorised

Question 100

What parameters can be seen on heat penetration graph from the list below?

a. Temperature of can itself
b. Retort temperature
c. Storage time of the product
d. Processing time of the product

Answer 100

b. Retort temperature

d. Processing time of the product

Question 101

Which two of the following sentences are true about Clostridia?

a. Obligate aerobes
b. Produce spores
c. Are the perfect indicators of the effectiveness of the chlorination
d. Are able to reduce sulfite to sulfide

Answer 101

b. Produce spores

d. Are able to reduce sulfite to sulfide

Question 102

What is the definition of migration and penetration in packaging?

a. Migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
b. Migration means that a component directs from product to packaging
c. Penetration means that a component directs from packaging to product
d. Penetration meant that a component directs from product to packaging

Answer 102

a. Migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
d. Penetration meant that a component directs from product to packaging

Question 103

For which plants is registration not sufficient (subject to authorisation)?

a. Slaughterhouse
b. Small-scale fruit slicer
c. Large-scale fruit slicer
d. Cold store

Answer 103

a. Slaughterhouse

d. Cold store

Question 104

What product groups’ safety are published in the RASFF system?

a. Nutritional supplements
b. Human foods
c. Animal feeds
d. Medicinal feeds and foods

Answer 104

a. Nutritional supplements

c. Animal feeds

Question 105

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Active packaging consists of ingredients, which are inside the packaging and interacting with food in different ways (transmission or emission) allowing the direct and active protection of food to keep the required quality
b. Good example for active packaging is a thermometer visible on the food label
c. Intelligent packaging is a system with indicators capable to inform consumers before buying about the journey of the given food
d. Good example for intelligent packaging is a silica gel bag

Answer 105

a. Active packaging consists of ingredients, which are inside the packaging and interacting with food in different ways (transmission or emission) allowing the direct and active protection of food to keep the required quality
c. Intelligent packaging is a system with indicators capable to inform consumers before buying about the journey of the given food

Question 106

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The meat ageing in poultry is faster than pigs
b. The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in poultry
c. The meat ageing in cattle is faster than in pigs
d. The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in cattle

Answer 106

a. The meat ageing in poultry is faster than pigs

d. The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in cattle

Question 107

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Water activity means the total water content of foods
b. Water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
c. Water activity is characterised by the aw value
d. Water activity of foods is characterised by the Eh value

Answer 107

b. Water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
c. Water activity is characterised by the aw value

Question 108

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. For quick curing, nitrate-containing salt mix is used
b. For quick curing, nitrite-containing salt mix is used
c. The products prepared by slow curing are microbiologically more stable
d. The products prepared by quick curing are microbiologically more stable

Answer 108

b. For quick curing, nitrite-containing salt mix is used

d. The products prepared by quick curing are microbiologically more stable

Question 109

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Salmonella-contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the microbiological regulation of the EU
b. Salmonella-contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the zoonosis regulation of the EU
c. Carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the results of the Salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse
d. Carcasses found positive for Salmonella in the process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse must not be put on the market

Answer 109

a. Salmonella-contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the microbiological regulation of the EU
d. Carcasses found positive for Salmonella in the process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse must not be put on the market

Question 110

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Then applying immersion chilling, the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 16°C
b. When applying immersion chilling, the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 4°C
c. Chilling is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP
d. Evisceration is a crucial step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP

Answer 110

b. When applying immersion chilling, the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 4°C
c. Chilling is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP

Question 111

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
b. Food hygiene expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
c. The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is increased by the elevation of temperature
d. The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is decreased by the elevation of temperature

Answer 111

a. Food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
c. The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is increased by the elevation of temperature

Question 112

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Food chain of animal foodstuffs does not include the farm and the feed industry
b. Food chain of animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and the feed industry
c. Food safety is based primarily on consumers’ expectations
d. Food quality is based primarily on consumers’ expectations

Answer 112

b. Food chain of animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and the feed industry
d. Food quality is based primarily on consumers’ expectations

Question 113

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months, the liver shall be inspected by incision
b. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months, the liver shall be inspected visually
c. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months, the trachea shall be opened lengthwise
d. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months, the trachea shall be inspected visually

Answer 113

b. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months, the liver shall be inspected visually
d. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months, the trachea shall be inspected visually

Question 114

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. If foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be slaughtered according to the rules of immediate slaughter
b. If foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed
c. The meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the strong zoonotic potential of its causative agent
d. The meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the highly contagious nature of its causative agent

Answer 114

b. If foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed
d. The meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the highly contagious nature of its causative agent

Question 115

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The health mart (meat stamp) may still be replaced in the wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops
b. The health mark must not be replaced in the wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops
c. In re-wrapping centres, the re-wrapped product shall be marked with the identification marking of the re-wrapping establishment
d. In re-wrapping centres, the re-wrapped product shall be marked with its original identification marking

Answer 115

a. The health mart (meat stamp) may still be replaced in the wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops
c. In re-wrapping centres, the re-wrapped product shall be marked with the identification marking or the re-wrapping establishment

Question 116

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In restaurants, raw milk can only be used after boiling
b. In restaurants, raw milk can also be served
c. In restaurants, hunted, unskinned wild games can also be processed if the establishment has the necessary licence
d. In restaurants, it is not allowed to process hunted, unskinned wild game

Answer 116

a. In restaurants, raw milk can only be used after boiling

c. In restaurants, hunted, unskinned wild games can also be processed if the establishment has the necessary licence

Question 117

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Basic documentation of the intra-community trade of foodstuff in the EU is the Common Health Entry Document (CHED)
b. Basic document of the international trade of foodstuffs imported from third countries is the Common Health Entry Document (CHED)
c. Foodstuffs of animal origin can enter the territory of the European Union through border inspection posts only
d. Foodstuffs of animal origin can move in the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only

Answer 117

b. Basic document of the international trade of foodstuffs imported from third countries is the Common Health Entry Document (CHED)
c. Foodstuffs of animal origin can enter the territory of the European Union through border inspection posts only

Question 118

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Broilers infected with Salmonella Enteritidis must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse
b. Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
c. Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse
d. Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately

Answer 118

b. Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
d. Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately

Question 119

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept
b. Combined preservation is based on the hazard analysis concept
c. In protective atmosphere packaging, oxygen is partly replaced by carbon dioxide and nitrogen
d. In protective atmosphere packaging, carbon dioxide is partly replaced by oxygen and nitrogen

Answer 119

a. Combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept

c. In protective atmosphere packaging, oxygen is partly replaced by carbon dioxide and nitrogen

Question 120

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psychotropic bacteria
b. The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by anaerobic mesophilic bacteria
c. The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a high water requirement
d. The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a low water requirement

Answer 120

a. The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psychotropic bacteria
d. The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a low water requirement

Question 121

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
b. Campylobacter jejuni can get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination
c. Salmonella enteritidis cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
d. Salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it

Answer 121

a. Campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
d. Salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it

Question 122

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Cracked eggs must not be used for human consumption
b. Cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products
c. Eggs containing blood or meat spots must not be used for human consumption, at all
d. Eggs containing blood or meat spots can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg production

Answer 122

b. Cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products
d. Eggs containing blood or meat spots can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg production

Question 123

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E. coli strains
b. The acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is lower than other E. coli strains
c. The “Hamburger disease” is caused by verotoxin-producing E. coli
d. The “Hamburger disease” is caused by Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 123

a. The acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E. coli strains
c. The “Hamburger disease” is caused by verotoxin-producing E. coli

Question 124

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The efficacy of iodohors is increased by the elevation of temperature
b. The efficacy of iodohors is decreased by elevation of temperature
c. The cation-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties
d. The anion-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties

Answer 124

b. The efficacy of iodohors is decreased by elevation of temperature
c. The cation-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties

Question 125

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Food chain information must be prepared by the veterinarian performing the ante mortem inspection
b. Food chain information must be prepared by the operator of the farm
c. If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for maximum 24 hours
d. If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter shall be banned

Answer 125

b. Food chain information must be prepared by the operator of the farm
c. If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for maximum 24 hours

Question 126

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Cattle is stunned by carbon dioxide stunning
b. Cattle is stunned by mechanical stunning
c. At the slaughterhouse, pigs are stunned by mechanical stunning
d. At the slaughterhouse, pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning

Answer 126

b. Cattle is stunned by mechanical stunning

d. At the slaughterhouse, pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning

Question 127

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Listeria monocytogenes is a psychrophilic bacterium
b. Listeria monocytogenes is a mesophilic bacterium
c. Salmonella enteritidis is a psychrophilic bacterium
d. Salmonella enteritidis is a mesophilic bacterium

Answer 127

a. Listeria monocytogenes is a psychrophilic bacterium

d. Salmonella enteritidis is a mesophilic bacterium

Question 128

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Human diseases caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw or underdone beef
b. Human diseases caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw or underdone pork
c. Human diseases caused by Campylobacter jejuni is mainly due to consumption of raw or underdone pork
d. Human diseases caused by Campylobacter jejuni is mainly due to consumption of raw or underdone poultry meat

Answer 128

b. Human diseases caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw or underdone pork
d. Human diseases caused by Campylobacter jejuni is mainly due to consumption of raw or underdone poultry meat

Question 129

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat are psychrotrophic bacteria
b. Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat are mesophilic bacteria
c. The minimum water activity of Pseudomonal species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat is low
d. The minimum water activity of Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat is high

Answer 129

a. Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat are psychrotrophic bacteria
d. The minimum water activity of Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat is high

Question 130

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced
b. In cattle >8 months old, the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only
c. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the masseters shall be inspected by incision
d. As a part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the masseters shall be inspected by incision

Answer 130

a. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced
c. As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the masseters shall be inspected by incision

Question 131

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The minimum water activity of Salmonellae is lower than that of Campylobacters
b. The minimum water activity of Salmonellae is higher than that of Campylobacters
c. The minimum water activity of Salmonellae is lower than that of Listeria monocytogenes
d. The minimum water activity of Salmonellae is higher than that of Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 131

a. The minimum water activity of Salmonellae is lower than that of Campylobacters
d. The minimum water activity of Salmonellae is higher than that of Listeria monocytogenes

Question 132

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product
b. During smoking, the temperature of the wood cannot be over 400°C
c. During smoking, the temperature of the wood cannot be under 400°C
d. The durability of cooked-smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process

Answer 132

b. During smoking, the temperature of the wood cannot be over 400°C
d. The durability of cooked-smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process

Question 133

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In most European countries, a single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
b. In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
c. In most European countries, a single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
d. In most European countries, multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control

Answer 133

b. In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
d. In most European countries, multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control

Question 134

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
b. Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through heat treatment at temperatures exceeding 100°C
c. Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at ≤ 7°C
d. Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at ≤ 4°C

Answer 134

a. Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
d. Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at ≤ 4°C

Question 135

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Cold smoking of meat products is less effective against moulds than bacteria
b. Cold smoking of meat products is more effective against moulds than bacteria
c. Deterioration of refrigerated meat products packaged with shielding gas is mainly caused by aerobic bacteria
d. Deterioration of refrigerated meat products packaged with shielding gas is mainly caused by anaerobic bacteria

Answer 135

a. Cold smoking of meat products is less effective against moulds than bacteria
d. Deterioration of refrigerated meat products packaged with shielding gas is mainly caused by anaerobic bacteria

Question 136

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. At lower water activity, deterioration of (marinated / smoked, etc.) meat products is done mainly by Gram+ bacteria
b. At lower water activity, deterioration of (marinated / smoked, etc.) meat products is done mainly by Gram- bacteria
c. Deterioration of fresh meat is caused mainly by Gram + bacteria
d. Deterioration of fresh meat is caused mainly by Gram – bacteria

Answer 136

a. At lower water activity, deterioration of (marinated / smoked, etc.) meat products is done mainly by Gram+ bacteria
d. Deterioration of fresh meat is caused mainly by Gram – bacteria

Question 137

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat it can survive the pasteurisation
b. C. brunetii is rather sensitive to heat it cannot survive the pasteurisation
c. Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather resistant to heat they can survive the pasteurisation
d. Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather sensitive to heat they cannot survive the pasteurisation

Answer 137

a. Coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat it can survive the pasteurisation
d. Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather sensitive to heat they cannot survive the pasteurisation

Question 138

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Category 1 waste shall be disposed by incineration
b. Category 1 wastes can be used for manufacture of pet food
c. Blood from cattle declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption
d. Blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption

Answer 138

a. Category 1 waste shall be disposed by incineration

d. Blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption

Question 139

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. An increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
b. A decreased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
c. The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically lower than normal
d. The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically higher than normal

Answer 139

a. An increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
c. The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically lower than normal

Question 140

Which one is a microbial growth inhibition test?

a. ROSA
b. Delvotest
c. KIS
d. Snap test

Answer 140

b. Delvotest

c. KIS

Question 141

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Milk collecting centres are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
b. Milk houses are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
c. Wholesale cold stores are subject to approval
d. Wholesale cold stores are not subject to approval

Answer 141

b. Milk houses are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
c. Wholesale cold stores are subject to approval

Question 142

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
b. Zearalenone may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
c. Fumonisins can be produced mainly on oilseeds
d. Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged kernels of maize

Answer 142

a. Patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
d. Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged kernels of maize

Question 143

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for growth promotion, but can be used for therapy in food-producing animals
b. In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food-producing animals
c. Beta-agonists are illegal growth promotants, but can be used for producing animals
d. Beta-agonists are not allowed for use in food producing animals, at all

Answer 143

b. In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food-producing animals
c. Beta-agonists are illegal growth promotants, but can be used for producing animals

Question 144

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In cattle, the last 4 meters of the ileum and the caecum are classified as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
b. In cattle, the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
c. In sheep, the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
d. In sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract

Answer 144

a. In cattle, the last 4 meters of the ileum and the caecum are classified as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
d. In sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract

Question 145

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In case of localised, single cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned, and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
b. In case of localised single cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned, and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption without treatment
c. Classical swine fever is a viral disease of high human and animal health significance
d. Humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever

Answer 145

a. In case of localised, single cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned, and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
d. Humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever

Question 146

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In case of BSE, diseased animals shall be slaughtered at a designated slaughterhouse according to the rules of immediate slaughter
b. In case of BSE, diseased animals shall be killed at a designated slaughterhouse
c. The definite host of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis is the man
d. The definite host of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis are carnivores

Answer 146

a. In case of BSE, diseased animals shall be slaughtered at a designated slaughterhouse according to the rules of immediate slaughter
c. The definite host of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis is the man

Question 147

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In the EU, it is the Member State’s competence to define their official control organisation
b. In the EU, the official control organisations are defined in the official control regulation
c. In the EU, it is the Member State’s competence to define the methods of official control
d. In the EU, the methods of official control are defined in the official control regulation

Answer 147

a. In the EU, it is the Member State’s competence to define their official control organisation
d. In the EU, the methods of official control are defined in the official control regulation

Question 148

What is the maximum number of colonies that can be counted?

a. 150 colonies / Petri dish
b. 300 colonies / petri dish
c. 150 colonies / membrane
d. 300 colonies / membrane

Answer 148

b. 300 colonies / petri dish

c. 150 colonies / membrane

Question 149

Which of the following statements are true about PSE meat?

a. The pH of the meat is slightly alkaline
b. Usually caused by chronic stress
c. Fit for human consumption
d. There is a rapid pH decrease during the ageing process

Answer 149

c. Fit for human consumption

d. There is a rapid pH decrease during the ageing process

Question 150

In which cases is the carcass unfit for human consumption?

a. Leanness
b. Icterus / Jaundice
c. Insufficient bleeding
d. DFD meat

Answer 150

b. Icterus / Jaundice

c. Insufficient bleeding

Question 151

Which product belong to the primary production?

a. Raw milk
b. Dairy products
c. Egg
d. Sausage

Answer 151

a. Raw milk

c. Egg

Question 152

Which of the following statements are true?

a. The Escherichia coli produces beta-galactosidase enzyme
b. The Escherichia coli produces beta-glucuronidase enzyme
c. The Escherichia coli is able to survive at 60°C for 30 minutes
d. The Escherichia coli is UV fluorescent

Answer 152

a. The Escherichia coli produces beta-galactosidase enzyme

b. The Escherichia coli produces beta-glucuronidase enzyme

Question 153

What is the difference between the food industrial by-products and wastes?

a. It is not generated inevitably
b. Exclusively legal requirements may decide on it
c. Rules of food hygiene strictly apply to its further tale
d. Not to be treated within the plant

Answer 153

a. It is not generated inevitably

c. Rules of food hygiene strictly apply to its further tale

Question 154

Which of the following eggs can be fit for human consumption?

a. Cracked
b. Contaminated shell
c. Blood ring
d. Mixed content

Answer 154

a. Cracked

b. Contaminated shell

Question 155

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In case of suspected Anthrax infection, an immediate slaughter of the affected animals shall be ordered
b. In case of suspected Anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered
c. In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected can be slaughtered separately at the slaughterhouse
d. In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be slaughtered separately at the slaughterhouse

Answer 155

b. In case of suspected Anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered
d. In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be slaughtered separately at the slaughterhouse

Question 156

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Surface contamination of egg shall be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
b. Surface contamination of egg must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
c. Candling shall be performed only at those farms that deliver eggs for direct sale on the market
d. Candling shall be performed at all farms that produce eggs for human consumption

Answer 156

b. Surface contamination of egg must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
c. Candling shall be performed only at those farms that deliver eggs for direct sale on the market

Question 157

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
b. The hunted large game shall be eviscerated in the game collection centre
c. The hunted large game shall be skinned on the spot
d. The hunted large game must not be skinned om the spot

Answer 157

a. Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
d. The hunted large game must not be skinned om the spot

Question 158

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The routine post-mortem meat inspection of adult cattle is performed by visual inspection only
b. The routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
c. As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be sliced to exclude tuberculosis
d. In pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only

Answer 158

b. The routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
d. In pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only

Question 159

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. As part of routine meat inspection of pigs, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
b. As part of routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
c. As part of routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the heart shall be opened lengthwise
d. As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the heart shall be opened lengthways

Answer 159

b. As part of routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
c. As part of routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the heart shall be opened lengthwise

Question 160

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. One of the decisions concerning the meat is the conditional fitness for human consumption
b. The meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
c. In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
d. In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the healt mark (meat stamp)

Answer 160

b. The meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
c. In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark

Question 161

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. S. aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
b. S. aureus is not excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
c. The heat resistance of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis is lower than that of M. bovis
d. The heat resistance of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis

Answer 161

a. S. aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
d. The heat resistance of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis

Question 162

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The minimum water activity of Campylobacters is lower than that of Salmonellae
b. The minimum water activity of Campylobacters is higher than that of Salmonellae
c. Campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria that cannot grow below 30°C
d. Campylobacters are psychrophilic bacteria that can still grow below 5°C

Answer 162

b. The minimum water activity of Campylobacters is higher than that of Salmonellae
c. Campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria that cannot grow below 30°C

Question 163

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The redox potential of fresh meat is higher than that of the minced meat
b. The redox potential of fresh meat is lower than that of minced meat
c. In general, the pH optimum of bacteria is lower than that of moulds
d. In general, the pH optimum of bacteria is higher than that of moulds

Answer 163

b. The redox potential of fresh meat is lower than that of minced meat
d. In general, the pH optimum of bacteria is higher than that of moulds

Question 164

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The infective dose of salmonellae is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
b. The infective dose of campylobacter is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
c. The infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains
d. The infective dose of EHEC strains is higher than that of other E. coli strains

Answer 164

b. The infective dose of campylobacter is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
c. The infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains

Question 165

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Yersinia enterocolitica is a mesophilic bacterium
b. Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrophilic bacterium
c. Yersinia enterocolitica typically cause extraintestinal signs in humans
d. Yersinia enterocolitica typically cause intestinal signs in humans

Answer 165

b. Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrophilic bacterium

d. Yersinia enterocolitica typically cause intestinal signs in humans

Question 166

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome in humans
b. Listeria monocytogenes may cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome in humans
c. Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves
d. Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause colitis in piglets

Answer 166

a. Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome in humans
c. Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves

Question 167

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Salmonellae are mesophilic organisms
b. Salmonellae are thermophilic organisms
c. Campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria
d. Campylobacters are mesophilic bacteria

Answer 167

a. Salmonellae are mesophilic organisms

c. Campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria

Question 168

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are capable of inducing disease in humans
b. The serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans
c. Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most foodborne salmonellosis in humans
d. Salmonella enteritidis is (not?) the serotype that causes the most foodborne salmonellosis in humans

Answer 168

b. The serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans
c. Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most foodborne salmonellosis in humans

Question 169

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach
b. Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the intestines
c. PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
d. Nitrosamines are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials

Answer 169

a. Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach
c. PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials

Question 170

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
b. Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the kidney
c. Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the liver
d. Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidney

Answer 170

a. Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
d. Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidney

Question 171

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
b. Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level can be used for production of animal feedstuffs
c. Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
d. Carcasses containing prohibited substances can be utilised for production of animal feedstuffs

Answer 171

a. Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
c. Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs

Question 172

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
b. Plants take up lead from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
c. Methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators
d. Methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the terrestrial food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators

Answer 172

a. Plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
c. Methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators

Question 173

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of pH
b. The dissolution of lead from soils is facilitated by the decrease of pH
c. Lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed by thorough washing
d. Cadmium mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed by thorough washing

Answer 173

a. The dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of pH
c. Lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed by thorough washing

Question 174

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Redox potential of foods is characterised by the aw value
b. Redox potential of foods is characterised by the Eh value
c. Moulds and yeasts prefer a more acidic pH than bacteria
d. Moulds and yeasts prefer a more alkaline pH than bacteria

Answer 174

b. Redox potential of foods is characterised by the Eh value
c. Moulds and yeasts prefer a more acidic pH than bacteria

Question 175

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Nitrites can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
b. Nitrates can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
c. Cold smoking is more effective against moulds than against bacteria
d. Cold smoking is less effective against moulds than against bacteria

Answer 175

a. Nitrites can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
d. Cold smoking is less effective against moulds than against bacteria

Question 176

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
b. Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic bacteria
c. Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilisation equivalent is 2.52 minutes
d. Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilisation equivalent is 0.21 minutes

Answer 176

a. Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
c. Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilisation equivalent is 2.52 minutes

Question 177

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Heat treatment is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
b. Freezing is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
c. Spoilage bacteria can grow even down to -18°C
d. Spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18°C

Answer 177

a. Heat treatment is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
d. Spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18°C

Question 178

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. L. monocytogenes is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation
b. L. monocytogenes is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
c. S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
d. S. aureus is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation

Answer 178

b. L. monocytogenes is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
c. S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation

Question 179

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. As part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of pigs
b. As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of bovine animals
c. As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, each single cattle must be identified
d. As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, each single pig must be identified

Answer 179

a. As part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of pigs
c. As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, each single cattle must be identified

Question 180

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Rigor mortis develops because of the reduction of pH
b. Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
c. The lack of ATP makes it impossible for actomycin to dissociate
d. The inadequate reduction of pH makes it impossible for actomycin to dissociate

Answer 180

b. Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP

c. The lack of ATP makes it impossible for actomycin to dissociate

Question 181

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. PSE-type meat ageing is a consequence of a less-than-average pH drop
b. DFD-type meat ageing is a consequence of a less-than-average pH drop
c. DFD meat is more prone to spoilage
d. PSE meat is more prone to spoilage

Answer 181

b. DFD-type meat ageing is a consequence of a less-than-average pH drop
c. DFD meat is more prone to spoilage

Question 182

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Broilers are usually scalded at higher temperature than waterfowl
b. Waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperature than broilers
c. Air chilling is superior to immersion chilling in terms of hygiene
d. Immersion chilling is superior to air chilling in terms of hygiene

Answer 182

b. Waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperature than broilers
c. Air chilling is superior to immersion chilling in terms of hygiene

Question 183

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In cattle >12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
b. In cattle >12 months, the skull including the heat meat is classed as SRM
c. In cattle, the spleen is classed as SRM
d. In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM

Answer 183

a. In cattle >12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
d. In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM

Question 184

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Animals showing the signs of a systemic disease must be killed separately
b. Animals showing the signs of a systemic disease must be slaughtered separately
c. Emaciated animals shall be slaughtered separately
d. Emaciated animals must not be slaughtered

Answer 184

a. Animals showing the signs of a systemic disease must be killed separately
d. Emaciated animals must not be slaughtered

Question 185

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Live bivalve molluscs collected from Class ‘A’ areas are suitable for human consumption after treatment only
b. Live bivalve molluscs deriving from Class ‘A’ areas can be collected for direct human consumption
c. The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of faecal contamination
d. The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of marine biotoxin contamination

Answer 185

b. Live bivalve molluscs deriving from Class ‘A’ areas can be collected for direct human consumption
c. The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of faecal contamination

Question 186

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by the trained person
b. In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by an official veterinarian
c. In the game processing establishment, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on skinned animals
d. In the game processing establishment, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals

Answer 186

b. In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by an official veterinarian
d. In the game processing establishment, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals

Question 187

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection can be slaughtered unconditionally
b. Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection shall be slaughtered separately
c. If any form of Yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
d. In any form of Yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Answer 187

a. Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection can be slaughtered unconditionally
c. If any form of Yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Question 188

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. If the meat inspection revels a generalised infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
b. If the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the decision depends on the causative agent
c. If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned, and the other parts of the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption
d. If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from a single organ, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

Answer 188

a. If the meat inspection revels a generalised infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
c. If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned, and the other parts of the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption

Question 189

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. In the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be marked with an identification marking
b. In the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
c. Restaurants belong to the retail establishments
d. Restaurants belong to the wholesale establishments

Answer 189

b. In the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
c. Restaurants belong to the retail establishments

Question 190

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. Establishments operating under the scope of Regulation 853/2004/EC shall be approved
b. All food establishments shall be approved by the competent authority
c. Approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
d. Registration process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit

Answer 190

a. Establishments operating under the scope of Regulation 853/2004/EC shall be approved
c. Approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit

Question 191

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin are regulated on EU level
b. The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
c. Mass catering belongs to retail operations
d. Mass catering belongs to wholesale operations

Answer 191

b. The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
c. Mass catering belongs to retail operations

Question 192

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a. HACCP is a food-quality risk analysis and management system
b. HACCP is a food-safety risk analysis management system
c. The HACCP concept is based on the good hygiene practice
d. The good hygiene practice is based on the HACCP concept

Answer 192

b. HACCP is a food-safety risk analysis management system

d. The good hygiene practice is based on the HACCP concept