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NYCC Public Health > Midterm 1 Review > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the science and art of helping people change their lifestyle to move toward a state of optimal health for themselves?

A

Health promotion

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2
Q

What are the components of Health Promotion?

A

Emotional
Social
Physical
Intellectual
Spiritual

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3
Q

What is the state of optimal well-being that is oriented towards maximizing an individual’s potential?

A

Wellness

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4
Q

What is the term for the health of the community across multiple dimensions and disciplines?

A

Public Health

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5
Q

What are the 10 essential public health services?

A

Monitor
Diagnose
Research
Enforce
Mobilize
Evaluate
Develop
Inform
Assure
Link

(“MD-REMEDIAL”)

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6
Q

On the public health pyramid, what part focuses on the health promotion (education) and addressing risk factors, social and genetic factors?

A

Primary prevention

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7
Q

On the public health pyramid, what part focuses on the screening of at risk individuals, control of risk factors and early intervention?

A

Secondary prevention

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8
Q

On the public health pyramid, what part focuses on the rehabilitation, preventing complications, and improving quality of life?

A

Tertiary Prevention

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9
Q

What group of individuals fall into Tertiary prevention?

A

People with a health problem

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10
Q

What group of individuals fall into the Secondary prevention?

A

People at risk of a health problem

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11
Q

What group of individuals fall into the Primary prevention?

A

Well population

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12
Q

What model focuses on the individual’s perception of the threat to their own health and well-being?

A

Health Belief Model

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13
Q

What model focuses on the individuals readiness to change or attempt to change towards healthy behaviors/lifestyles?

A

Stages of Change Model

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14
Q

What are the five stages of the stages of change model?

A

Precontemplatoion, contemplation, decision/determination, action, maintenance

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15
Q

In the stages of change model, what part is where most people fail?

A

Maintenance

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16
Q

What model focuses on lifestyle and behaviour explained as a dynamic interaction of personal factors, environment influences, and behaviors that continually influence each other?

A

Social Learning Theory

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17
Q

What are the key concepts of the Social Learning Theory?

A
  • Self-efficacy
  • Observational learning
  • Behavior capability
  • Expectations
  • Reciprocal determinism
  • Reinforcement

(“SOBERR”)

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18
Q

What model emphasizes active participation in the development of communities that can better evaluate and solve health and social problems?

A

Community Organization Theory

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19
Q

What are the key concepts of the Community Organization Theory?

A
  • Empowerment
  • Community competence
  • Participation and relevance
  • Issue selection
  • Critical consciousness
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20
Q

What theory is concerned with the processes and strategies for increasing the likelihood that health proficiency and programs will be adopted and maintained in formal organizations?

A

Organizational Change Theory

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21
Q

What are the key concepts of Organizational change theory?

A
  • problem definition (awareness stage)
  • initiation of action (adoption stage)
  • implementation of change
  • institutionalization of change
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22
Q

What theory address how new ideas, products, and social practices spread within a society or from one society to another?

A

Diffusion of Innovations Theory

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23
Q

What is the sum total of the knowledge, attitudes, and habitual behavior patterns shared and transmitted by the members of a society?

A

Culture

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24
Q

What is a set of congruent behaviors, practices, attitudes, and polices that come together in a system or agency among professional, enabling effective work to be done in a cross-cultural situations?

A

Cultural Competence

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25
Q

What part of the cultural competence continuum includes forced assimilation, subjugation, rights and privileges for dominant groups only?

A

Cultural Destructiveness

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26
Q

What part of the cultural competence continuum includes racism, maintain stereotypes, and unfair hiring practices

A

Cultural Incapacity

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27
Q

What part of the cultural competence continuum includes differences ignored, “treat everyone the same” and only meet the needs of the dominant group?

A

Cultural Blindness

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28
Q

What part of the cultural competence continuum includes the recognization of individual and cultural differences, seeking advice from diverse groups, and hiring culturally unbiased staff?

A

Cultural Competence

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29
Q

What part of the cultural competence continuum includes the implementation of changes to improve services based upon cultural needs, do research, and teach?

A

Cultural proficiency

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30
Q

Where does the US and Canada fall on the Cultural Competence Continuum?

A

Cultural Blindness

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31
Q

What are the steps of the Intercultural Development Continuum?

A
  • Denial
  • Polarization
  • Minimization
  • Acceptance
  • Adaptation
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32
Q

What are the components of the LEARN model?

A
  • Listen to the patient’s perception of the problem
  • Explain your perception of the problem
  • Acknowledge and discuss differences/similarities
  • Recommend treatment
  • Negotiate treatment
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33
Q

When was the first Healthy People started?

A

1979

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34
Q

What did Healthy people 2030 focus on?

A

Obesity
(Was supposed to be opioids)

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35
Q

What is the vision of Healthy People 2030?

A

A society in which all people can achieve their full potential for health and well-being across the lifespan

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36
Q

What is the mission statement of Healthy People 2030?

A

To promote, strengthen, and evaluate the Nation’s efforts to improve the health and well-being of all people

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37
Q

What is the term for the range of personal, social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health status?

A

Determinants of Health

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38
Q

What are some of the barriers to accessing health services?

A
  • Lack of availability
  • High cost
  • Lack of insurance coverage
  • Limited language access
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39
Q

What are some examples of individual behavior determinants of health?

A

Diet, Physical Activity, Alcohol, cigarette, and other drug use, and hand washing

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40
Q

What is an individuals responses or reactions to internal stimuli and external conditions termed?

A

Behaviors

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41
Q

What includes the interactions between family, friends, coworkers, and others in the community?

A

Social environments

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42
Q

What includes the things that can be seen, touched, heard, smelled, or tasted?

A

Physical environment

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43
Q

Which population groups have the highest obesity prevalence?

A
  • Non-Hispanic black
  • Hispanic
  • Lower income groups
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44
Q

In 2018, how many people above the age of 18 met the current federal physical activity guidelines?

A

24%

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45
Q

What is the current trend of tobacco use in adults?

A

Gradually declining

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46
Q

What is the current trend in nicotine use in adults?

A

Increasing

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47
Q

What is the term for the average number of years a population of a certain age would be expected to live?

A

Life expectancy

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48
Q

What life expectancy measures does Healthy People monitor?

A
  • Life expectancy at birth
  • Life expectancy at 65
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49
Q

What is the term for the average number of healthy years a person can expect to live if age-specific death rates and age-specific morbidity rates remain the same throughout their lifetime?

A

Healthy life expectancy

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50
Q

What healthy life expectancy measures does Healthy People monitor?

A
  • Expected years of life in good or better health
  • Expected years of life free of ligation of activity
  • Expected years of life free of selected chronic diseases
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51
Q

What is the term for the measure of the impact of premature mortality on a population, calculated as the sum of the differences between some predetermined minimum or desired life span and the age of death for individuals who died earlier than that predetermined age?

A

Years of Potential Life Lost

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52
Q

What term describes the attainment of the highest level of health for all people?

A

Health equity

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53
Q

What term refers to a personal (individual), physical sensation of discomfort?

A

Hunger

54
Q

What term refers to a lack of available financial resources for food at the level of the household?

A

Food insecurity

55
Q

Where does most of the sodium come in our diet?

A

Added salt in processed foods during manufacturing

56
Q

What is the FDA’s RDA of sodium intake?

A

2300 mg/day

57
Q

What is the American Heart Association’s RDA of sodium intake?

A

1500 mg/day

58
Q

What activities are classified as moderate-intensity physical activity?

A

brisk walking, dancing, swimming, or bicycling on a level terrain

59
Q

What activities are classified as Vigorous-intensity physical activity?

A

jogging, singles tennis, swimming continuous laps, or bicycling uphill

60
Q

What activities are classified as Muscle-strengthening activity?

A

strength training, resistance training, or muscular and endurance exercises

61
Q

What activities are classified as Bone-strengthening activity?

A

running, jumping rope, and lifting weights

62
Q

What is the only Nutrition and Overweight objective that Healthy People 2020 made improvements on?

A

Calcium intake

63
Q

What type of disease is obesity considered?

A

Chronic disease

64
Q

What addition to our food supply has caused a 42% increase in calories consumed per day?

A

Added fats and oils

65
Q

What product was created and is the cause of an increase in 28.7 pounds per capita of added sugar in the food supply?

A

High fructose corn syrup

66
Q

True or False: African American and Hispanic men with higher incomes are more likely to be obese than those with low income?

A

TRUE

67
Q

True or False: Low-income women are less likely to be obese than higher income women?

A

FALSE
(Idea of professional appearance in higher income women)

68
Q

True of False: Women with college degrees are less likely to be obese compared to less educated women?

A

TRUE

69
Q

What part of the united states has the highest prevalence of obesity and is considered the “Bible Belt”?

A

Southeast US

70
Q

What government agency oversees the food labeling and food ingredients?

A

FDA

71
Q

True of False: The FDA puts Reference amounts customarily consider (RACC) that are NOT a recommended amount to eat

A

TRUE

72
Q

What law requires restaurants and similar retail establishments with 20 or more locations to list calorie content for standard menu items?

A

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010

73
Q

True or False: The ACA does not require vending machine operators who own 20 or more vending machines to disclose calorie content for certain items?

A

FALSE

74
Q

What government agency oversees the inspection of food to ensure the safety of the American public?

A

USDA

75
Q

What is the other part of MyPlate that is not included on the diagram that is essential?

A

Fats

76
Q

What percentage of the US population is obese?

A

67%
(2/3)

77
Q

What percentage of the US population is either overweight or obese?

A

75%

78
Q

What is the largest of the 15 domestic nutrition assistance programs and is the nations first line of defense against hunger?

A

SNAP

79
Q

What is the required amount of calories school must serve at lunch?

A

1600 calories

80
Q

The type of immunity that results after exposure to the rabies virus and its subsequent set of immunizations is called ___

A

artificial acquired passive immunity

81
Q

The type of immunity that occurs after an immunization is called ____

A

artificially acquired active immunity

82
Q

Anything foreign to the body that results in the formation of an antibody or specialized T cell is a ____

A

antigen

83
Q

The antibody molecule that is the first responder to an antigen is ____

A

IgM

84
Q

The antigen binding area on an immunoglobulin molecule is the ____

A

variable region

85
Q

The antibody molecule that can cross the mucosal epithelium is ____

A

IgA

86
Q

The ____ is where the T cells attach to neutralize the antigen

A

constant region

87
Q

The ____ region is recognized by phagocytic cells which then destroy the pathogen

A

constant

88
Q

The type of immunity that occurs between a mother and her fetus is called ____

A

naturally acquired passive immunity

89
Q

The Wakefield study was flawed because…

A

(all of the above)
- He received funds from lawyers suing a vaccine manufacturer
- He never met any of the study objectives
- Autism was ruled out as a diagnosis in 5 of the subjects
- His research could never be duplicated by any other researcher

90
Q

The antibody molecule associated with parasitic infections and allergies is ____

A

IgE

91
Q

The antibody molecule that has the highest circulating level is ____

A

IgG

92
Q

The type of immunity that occurs after an infection is called ____

A

naturally acquired active immunity

93
Q

Immunization and vaccination are priority areas in Healthy People 2020 as demonstrated by…

A

the goal being set as higher than 10% improvement

94
Q

What are the key concepts of the Health Belief Model?

A
  • perceived susceptibility
  • perceived severity
  • perceived benefits of intervention
  • self-efficacy
95
Q

What includes health promotion campaigns, safety policies, and disease prevention services, which can be implemented by a wide variety of agencies in both the public and private sectors?

A

Policies & interventions

96
Q

What sets of measures are used to track progress of Healthy People initiatives by providing a “snapshot” of the nation’s health?

A

Leading health indicators

97
Q

In 2010, what trend was observed for physically unhealthy days?

A

Increased with age

98
Q

In 2010, what trend was observed for mentally unhealthy days?

A

Decreased with age

99
Q

Activities such as bathing/showering, dressing, eating, getting in and out of bed, walking, and using the toilet are referred to as ____

A

Activities of daily living

100
Q

Activities such as using the telephone, doing light housework, doing heavy housework, preparing meals, shopping for personal items, and managing money are referred to as ____

A

Instrumental activities of daily living

101
Q

If a health outcome is seen in a greater or lesser extent between populations, there is ____

A

Disparity

102
Q

What factors contribute to an individual’s ability to achieve good health?

A

Race or ethnicity
Sex
Sexual identity
Age
Disability
Socioeconomic status
Geographic location

103
Q

Name 6 health risk factors considered in children

A
  • obesity
  • cigarette smoking
  • physical fights
  • drinking & driving
  • asthma attacks
  • food allergies
104
Q

What population is most likely to have childbearing teenagers?

A

Hispanic

105
Q

Americans with a healthy diet ____ caloric intake to…

A
  • limit
  • meet caloric needs
106
Q

Name 6 leading health indicators for nutrition

A
  • healthier food access
  • healthcare and worksite settings
  • weight status
  • food insecurity
  • food and nutrition consumption
  • iron deficiency
107
Q

In 2012, ____ was associated with an increase in CVD risk, CVD mortality risk, and all-cause mortality risk

A

sedentary behaviour

108
Q

80% of the US food supply is regulated by the ____

A

FDA

109
Q

What are the USDA guidelines for healthy eating?

A
  • healthy eating pattern across lifespan
  • variety, nutrient density, amount
  • limit calories from added sugars & sat fats, reduce sodium
  • healthier food & beverage choices
  • support healthy eating patterns for all
110
Q

A healthy eating pattern limits what 4 things?

A
  • saturated fats
  • trans fats
  • added sugars
  • sodium
111
Q

Name 7 non-specific defenses of the human body

A
  • skin
  • mucous membranes
  • ciliary escalator
  • earwax
  • urine
  • vaginal secretions
  • purging (peristalsis, defecation, vomit, diarrhea)
112
Q

What are the 4 steps of phagocytosis?

A
  • chemotaxis
  • adherence
  • ingestion -> opsonization
  • digestion
113
Q

During the digestion phase of phagocytosis, microorganisms are digested inside a ____

A

phagolysosome

114
Q

What is an immunogen/antigen?

A

anything that elicits an immune response

115
Q

What is an immunoglobulin?

A

antibody; class of proteins (IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM) produced by the humoral immune response to respond to a specific antigen

116
Q

Which type of immune response is comprised of activity of T cells?

A

cellular

117
Q

Which type of immune response responds to infection involving the production of antibodies (B cells)?

A

humoral

118
Q

____ shows us the serum level of an antibody, indicating if an individual has been infected

A

titer

119
Q

What pathway of the humoral response neutralizes toxins and viruses, and prevents bacterial attachment?

A

neutralization pathway

120
Q

In what pathway of the humoral response do antibodies facilitate uptake of pathogens by phagocytes?

A

opsonization pathway

121
Q

Immunoglobulin binding sites are ____-specific

A

antigen

122
Q

What term refers to the suspension of organisms or fractions of organisms that induce immunity?

A

vaccine

123
Q

What term refers to immunity in most of the population (~85%)?

A

herd immunity

124
Q

What term refers to chemical additives in vaccines to improve effectiveness?

A

adjuvants

125
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of live attenuated vaccines?

A
  • weakened pathogen
  • closely mimic actual infection
  • confers lifelong cellular & humoral immunity
126
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of inactivated killed vaccines?

A
  • safer than live vaccines
  • require repeated booster doses
  • induce mostly humoral immunity
127
Q

____ vaccines use antigenic fragments to stimulate an immune response

A

subunit

128
Q

____ vaccines are used for diseases in children with poor immune response to capsular polysaccharides

A

conjugated

129
Q

What type of vaccine involves injected naked DNA which produces the antigen encoded in the DNA and is carried to the red bone marrow to stimulate humoral & cellular immunity?

A

nucleic acid (DNA) vaccines (not used in humans yet)

130
Q

In which model does change occur the slowest?

A

Organizational change model

131
Q

Which type of public health model would involve scaring a patient into quitting smoking?

A

Health belief model

NYCC Public Health (3 decks)

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