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BMSC 210 > Midterm #1 (lectures 2-11) > Flashcards

Midterm #1 (lectures 2-11) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 reasons that microbiology is important?

A
  1. Terraform the planet by producing oxygen
  2. Backbone of the food chain
  3. Cause disease
  4. Promote health
  5. Biotechnology and industries
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2
Q

Was microbiology a thing before the microscope?

A

Yes

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3
Q

What are some examples of historical microbiology?

A

Traditional medicines
Infrastructures
Fermented food/beverages
Acquired immunity

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4
Q

What was the Miasma theory?

A

That infectious diseases were caused by bad air (miasma) emitted by rotting organic matter

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5
Q

What was the theory of spontaneous generation?

A

Living organisms arise from non-living matter

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6
Q

Who were the first to observe microbes?

A

Robert Hooke and Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

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7
Q

What were the initial observations of Robert Hooke?

A

Described the fruiting structures of moulds, and the first descriptions of microorganisms

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8
Q

What were the initial observations of Antonie van Leeuwenhoek?

A

The simple microscope, and observed/described bacteria

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9
Q

What were the major contributions of Louis Pasteur?

A

Fermentation: specific microbes/spoilage = unwanted microbes
Pasteurization: kills bad microbes
Vaccinations

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10
Q

What were the major contributions of Robert Koch?

A

Disproved the Miasma theory
Established link between disease and microbes
Laboratory techniques

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11
Q

What were the major contributions of Sergei Winogradski?

A

Microcosm and Crossfeeding
The Winogradski columns

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12
Q

What was the major contribution of Martinus Beijerinck?

A

Identified nitrogen fixing

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13
Q

What are considered cellular microbes?

A

Prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea) and Eukaryotes (protists, fungi, micro-animals)

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14
Q

What are considered acellular microbes?

A

Viruses and prion

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15
Q

Why are viruses not considered in the Tree of Life?

A

They lack ribosomal RNA and do not have independent metabolism

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16
Q

What are the three distinct domains in the Tree of Life?

A

Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

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17
Q

Why is there a move towards a two domain Tree of Life?

A

Used to think that archaea was ancient bacteria, but we are now moving towards the idea that archaea are ancient eukarya because the two are so distinct, but there are more similarities between archaea and eukarya than bacteria and archaea

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18
Q

How do we classify and name cellular organisms? And is it bolded, italicized, or underlined?

A

Genus, Species. It is italicized

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19
Q

What are the 3 different microscopy techniques?

A

Light, Electron, and Scanning Probe

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20
Q

What are the two kinds of electron microscopy?

A

TEM and SEM

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21
Q

Compare TEM to SEM

A

TEM: X-section of thinly sliced sample – great resolution
SEM: 3D-like images of surfaces

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22
Q

What are the 5 kinds of light microscopy?

A

Brightfield, Darkfield, Phase Contrast, DIC, Fluorescent

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23
Q

Compare brightfield to darkfield

A

Brightfield: use light
Darkfield: improve resolution of living samples + motility

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24
Q

Compare DIC and Phase Contrast

A

DIC: generates 3D images of living samples
Phase Contrast: improve resolution of living samples + specific internal structures

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25
Q

Describe Fluorescent microscopy

A

Use fluorochromes to visualize sample

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26
Q

Explain the key points of cell theory

A

Living = made of cells that arise from another cell
Energy production

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27
Q

What is the key point of endosymbiotic theory?

A

The idea that mitochondria and chloroplasts are ancient bacteria

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28
Q

What was the development of the germ theory?

A

The new idea that infectious diseases are caused by germs not bad air from observation to Koch postulates.

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29
Q

What is the name of the round cell shape?

A

Coccus

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30
Q

What is the name of the rod cell shape?

A

Bacillus

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31
Q

What is the name of the curved rod cell shape?

A

Vibrio

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32
Q

What is the name of the short rod cell shape?

A

Coccobacillus

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33
Q

What is the name of the spiral cell shape?

A

Spirillum

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34
Q

What is the name of the long, loose helical spiral cell shape?

A

Spirochete

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35
Q

What is the name of a single coccus cell arrangement?

A

Coccus

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36
Q

What is the name of a pair of two cocci cell arrangement?

A

Diplococcus

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37
Q

What is the name of a grouping of four cells in a square cell arrangement?

A

Tetrad

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38
Q

What is the name of a chain of cocci cell arrangement?

A

Streptococcus

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39
Q

What is the name of a cluster of cocci cell arrangement?

A

Staphylococcus

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40
Q

What is the name of a single rod cell arrangement?

A

Bacillus

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41
Q

What is the name of a chain of rods cell arrangement?

A

Streptobacillus

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42
Q

Compare the size of bacteria to archaea to eukarya

A

Bacteria: 0.5 - 1μM
Archaea: 0.5 - 1μM
Eukarya: 5 - 20 μM

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43
Q

Compare the chromosome(s) location of bacteria to archaea to eukarya

A

Bacteria: nucleoid, no membrane
Archaea: nucleoid, no membrane
Eukarya: nucleus with a membrane

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44
Q

Compare the presence of organelles of bacteria to archaea to eukarya

A

Bacteria: no, inclusion or compartments
Archaea: no, inclusion or compartments
Eukarya: yes (ancestral bacteria)

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45
Q

Compare the endomembrane system of bacteria to archaea to eukarya

A

Bacteria: no, processes in cytoplasm
Archaea: no, processes in cytoplasm
Eukarya: yes (ER, Golgi, lysosomes)

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46
Q

Compare the ribosomes of bacteria to archaea to eukarya

A

Bacteria: 70S
Archaea: 70S
Eukarya: 80S, 70S for mitochondria/chloroplasts

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47
Q

What is the function and characteristics of the cytoplasmic membrane?

A

It is a barrier, an anchor, and helps with energy

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48
Q

Describe passive transportation of substrate across membranes

A

It is energy independent, and can be put into two categories:
1. Diffusion: through the membrane
2. Facilitated diffusion via proteins and dependent on concentration gradient

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49
Q

What are some other forms of transportation of substrate across membranes?

A

Proton motif force, ATP, Substrate phosphorylation

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50
Q

What are the two ways that we can cross the outer membrane?

A

Classical porins and substrate-specific porins

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51
Q

Describe Classical porins

A

Passive diffusion but made easier. It is not a carrier, but a water-filled channel. There are substrate preferences that depend on the amino acid composition of the channel

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52
Q

Describe Substrate-specific porins

A

Facilitated diffusion, carrier proteins (uniport). There is substrate specificity

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53
Q

Define the function and characteristics of the different cell envelope layers (microbe dependent)

A

Cytoplasmic membrane: barrier
Cell wall: cell shape, rigidity, protection, prevents osmotic lysis
Mycolic acids/OM: protection
S-layer
Capsule

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54
Q

What are the two ways of transport that are energy independent?

A

Simple and facilitated diffusion

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55
Q

Describe simple diffusion and its limitations

A

Enter via a concentration gradient. The limitation to number of substance is due to size and charge of the molecule, and the semi-permeable membrane

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56
Q

Describe the relationship between the rate and the concentration gradient

A

Linear

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57
Q

Describe facilitated diffusion and its limitations

A

More efficient than simple diffusion, the limitation is due to size and charge of the molecule as well as properties of the channel

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57
Q

What are the four types of energy dependent transport?

A

Active, coupled active, ABC transporter, group translocation

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57
Q

True or False: passive diffusion is inefficient for bacteria?

A

True

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58
Q

Describe active transport

A

Against the concentration gradient, and is for larger molecules. The source of energy is ATP/other high-energy-phosphate compounds, the substrate gradient, and the protonmotive force

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59
Q

True or False: active transport does not follow the Michaelis-Menten equation?

A

False

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60
Q

Describe coupled active transport

A

The simultaneous transport of two substances across a biological membrane. It may be a symport (the same direction) or antiport (opposite directions)

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61
Q

Describe ABC transporters

A

ATP-Binding Casette transporter. Utilize the energy of ATP binding and hydrolysis to transport various substrates across cellular membrane

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62
Q

Describe group translocation

A

Where a molecule crossing the cell membrane not only gets transported but also gets transformed in itself

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63
Q

Describe the differences in the bacterial cell wall between Gram-positive vs Gram-negative vs Acid-fast

A

Postive: thick peptidoglycan cell wall which includes NAG, NAM, tetrapeptides, and pentapeptides. Has teichoic acids.
Negative: thin peptidoglycan cell wall which includes NAG, NAM, tetrapeptides, and direct links. Has porins, and lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
Acid-fast: contains mycolic acids which gives it a waxy coating. Has a thick peptidoglycan wall and teichoic acids, so is mistaken for gram-positive

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64
Q

What is LPS?

A

Is an endotoxin, it contains lipid A and Pyrogen which is fever inducing that leads to septic shock. It serves as a way of attachment, mechanical strength, immune evasion, and protection

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65
Q

What are the two ways you can cross the OM?

A

Classical porins and substrate-specific porins

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66
Q

Describe classical porins

A

Passive diffusion but made easier, it is not a carrier, but a water-filled channel. It may have substrate preferences dictated by the amino acid composition of the channel

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67
Q

Describe substrate-specific porins

A

Facilitated diffusion, and is a carrier protein (uniport). Alwasy has substrate specificity

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68
Q

How would you cross the OM if you needed energy?

A

Highly-ligand-specific membrane receptors

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69
Q

Describe highly-ligand-specific membrane receptors

A

High affinity for ligands -> low concentration, Binding energy-independent but internalization of large nutrients requires energy. Involves a transfer of energy from the cytoplasm

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70
Q

Why is acid fast bacteria often mistaken as gram-positive?

In terms of the cell wall

A

Coated with wax, and mycolic acids sit on top of a thick peptidoglycan cell wall

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71
Q

Compare and contrast the S-layers of bacteria and archaea

A

It is the outermost layer of the cell envelope
Bacteria: very few have the S-layer, is for protection and adhesion
Archaea: nearly all have the S-layer, protects against osmotic lysis and helps with cell shape

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72
Q

Define and describe the capsule/slime layer

A

Both are a sticky polysaccharide coat and the outermost layer
Capsule: tight matrix, excludes small molecules, and strongly attached to the cell
Slime layer: easily deformed, and loosely attached to the cell

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73
Q

What kind of cell wall is in acid-fast vs. gram positive vs. gram negative

A

Acid-fast: thick, pentapeptide inter-bridge, teichoic and lipoteichoic acids
Gram-positive: thick, pentapeptide inter-bridge, teichoic and lipoteichoic acids
Gram-negative: thin, Braun’s lipoprotein

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74
Q

Is LPS found in acid-fast vs. gram positive vs. gram negative?

A

Acid-fast: no
Gram-positive: no
Gram-negative: yes

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75
Q

Are mycolic acids found in acid-fast vs. gram positive vs. gram negative?

A

Acid-fast: yes
Gram-positive: no
Gram-negative: no

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76
Q

Is an S-layer found in acid-fast vs. gram positive vs. gram negative?

A

Acid-fast: no
Gram-positive: yes
Gram-negative: yes

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77
Q

Is a capsule found in acid-fast vs. gram positive vs. gram negative?

A

Acid-fast: no
Gram-positive: yes
Gram-negative: yes

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78
Q

What are the differences in the membrane in terms of linkage between bacteria, archaea, and eukarya?

A

Bacteria: ester-linked, strain chain, bilayer
Archaea: ether-linked, branched chain, bilayer or monolayer
Eukarya: ester-linked, straight chain, bilayer

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79
Q

What are the differences in the cell wall between bacteria, archaea, and eukarya?

A

Bacteria: peptidoglycan (NAG + NAM), none
Archaea: S-layer, pseudomurein (NAG + NAT)
Eukarya: none, cellulose, chitin

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80
Q

What are the differences in the OM between bacteria, archaea, and eukarya?

A

Bacteria: yes (gram-negative), no (gram-positive)
Archaea: none, none
Eukarya: none

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81
Q

True or False: flagellum and archaellum are very structurally different

A

True

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82
Q

Describe the differences between flagellum and archaellum

A

Flagellum: related to type 3 secretion, hollow, proton motor force, assembles from the tip
Archaellum: related to type 4 pili and type 2 secretion, smaller than flagella, not hollow, driven by ATP, assembles from the base

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83
Q

Describe Twitching vs. Gliding

A

Twitching: ATP dependent, type 3 pili - extend then pull
Gliding: proton motive force, continuous and smooth motion without external propulsion

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84
Q

What are taxis?

A

Sense and respond to gradients, have the ability to move towards or away (swimming), and have complex regulatory coordination and network

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85
Q

What are chemotaxis?

A

Surface proteins (chemoreceptors), relay sensory input to flagellum, and affect rotation of the flagellar motor

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86
Q

What are osmotaxis?

A

Ionic strength

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87
Q

What are hydrotaxis?

A

Hydrated environment/water

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88
Q

What are phototaxis?

A

Gradient of light intensity

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89
Q

What are scotophobotaxis?

A

Move away from the absence of light

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90
Q

What are aerotaxis?

A

Oxygen

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91
Q

What are magnetotaxis?

A

Magnetic field, and a guide for oxygen

92
Q

What are the differences in motility for bacteria vs. archaea vs. eukarya?

A

Bacteria: swimming, twitching, gliding
Archaea: swimming, twitching
Eukarya: swimming, flagella/cilia

93
Q

What are the differences in flagella for bacteria vs. archaea vs. eukarya?

A

Bacteria: rigid, protein filament assembled at the top, rotate + PMF, T3SS
Archaea: rigid, protein filament assembled at the base, rotate + ATP, T2SS
Eukarya: flexible, microtubules + cytoplasmic membrane, whip + ATP

94
Q

Define metabolism

A

Sum of catabolism and anabolism

95
Q

Identify the source of energy, reducing power, and carbon for photo auto trophs

A

Energy: light
E-donor: n/a
Carbon: CO2

96
Q

Identify the source of energy, reducing power, and carbon for photo hetero trophs

A

Energy: light
E-donor: n/a
Carbon: organic chemical

97
Q

Identify the source of energy, reducing power, and carbon for photo litho auto trophs

A

Energy: light
E-donor: inorganic
Carbon: CO2

98
Q

Identify the source of energy, reducing power, and carbon for photo organo hetero trophs

A

Energy: Light/chem
E-donor: organic
Carbon: organic chemical

99
Q

Identify the source of energy, reducing power, and carbon for chemo litho auto trophs

A

Energy: chemical
E-donor: inorganic
Carbon: CO2

100
Q

Identify the source of energy, reducing power, and carbon for chemo litho hetero trophs

A

Energy: chemical
E-donor: inorganic
Carbon: organic chemical

101
Q

Identify the source of energy, reducing power, and carbon for chemo organo auto trophs

A

Energy: chemical
E-donor: organic
Carbon: CO2

102
Q

Identify the source of energy, reducing power, and carbon for chemo organo hetero trophs

A

Energy: chemical
E-donor: organic
Carbon: organic chemial

103
Q

Compare and contrast fermentation, aerobic respiration, and anaerobic respiration in terms of electron donor vs. electron acceptor

A

Fermentation: donor = organic molecule, acceptor = organic molecule
Aerobic: donor = glucose, acceptor = oxygen
Anaerobic: acceptor = something else

104
Q

Compare and contrast fermentation, aerobic respiration, and anaerobic respiration in terms of energy yield

A

Fermentation: 2 ATP
Aerobic: 38 ATP
Anaerobic: 5-36 ATP

105
Q

What is homofermentation?

A

Produce 1 fermentation product

106
Q

What is heterofermentation?

A

Produce 2 different fermentation products

107
Q

Fermentation is not _____ respiration

A

anaerobic

108
Q

How do bacteria fix carbon dioxide?

A

Via the Calvin cycle, which provide carboxysomes.

109
Q

How to bacteria fix nitrogen?

A

Via nitrogen fixation, N2 becomes NH3

110
Q

How do bacteria divide?

A

Binary fission, 1 cell becomes 2 cells

111
Q

What are the 5 steps in the bacterial cell cycle?

A
  1. Chromosome replication
  2. Elongation
  3. Segregation
  4. Z-ring formation
  5. Division
112
Q

In biofilm formation, what are the 4 key steps?

A
  1. Attachment
  2. Growth
  3. Maturation
  4. Detachment
113
Q

Is biofilm formation considered a target of antibiotics?

A

No

114
Q

Describe Direct Count using microscopy?

A

Smear preparation on a microscope glass slide, staining the smear, and counting microbial cells using a microscope. Gives only an estimated actual number of microorganisms from a sample

115
Q

Describe Direct Count using current, aka a Coulter Counter

A

The count is achieved by observing the changes in voltage detected as either a cell or electrolyte travels through the aperture

116
Q

What would be an appropriate way to do a viable count from a liquid sample that is too concentrated to view individual colonies?

A

Serial dilution

117
Q

Describe the process to determine the Most Probable Number

A

Replicate portions of the original sample are cultured to determine the presence or absence of microorganisms in each portion. The replicate portions may be obtained from a serial dilution series.

118
Q

Describe the process in a Turbidimetric process

A

A series of tubes containing different concentrations of antibiotics in a liquid culture medium inoculated with the test microorganism. Reading data obtained after incubation provides a curve displaying the antibiotic concentration

119
Q

What are the pros of using a Microscopic count?

A

Wet or dry sample, easy, great for ecology

120
Q

What are the cons of using a Microscopic count?

A

Tedious, dead cells and viable cells, need a high density, motility creates bias

121
Q

What are the pros of using a Plate count?

A

One colony = one cell, easy, viable cells, great for microbial ecology

122
Q

What are the cons of using a Plate count?

A

Tedious, bias due to growth conditions, the MPN is a guesstimate

123
Q

What are the pros of using the Turbidimetric process?

A

Quick and easy, limited processing

124
Q

What are the cons of using the Turbidimetric process?

A

Clumps increase bias, dead and viable cells, can be meaningless without proper context, not an actual count

125
Q

Growth of bacteria is ____

A

predictable

126
Q

Order these phases into the proper order:
1. Stationary phase
2. Death/decline phase
3. Lag phase
4. Log phase

A

3, 4, 1, 2

127
Q

Describe the lag phase in the growth of bacteria

A

No increase in the number of living bacterial cells

128
Q

Describe the log phase in the growth of bacteria

A

Exponential increase in number of living bacterial cells

129
Q

Describe the stationary phase in the growth of bacteria

A

Plateau in number of living bacterial cells; rate of cell division and death roughly equal

130
Q

Describe the death/decline phase in the growth of bacteria

A

Exponential decrease in number of living bacterial cells

131
Q

What is considered the generation time?

A

Time to double population

132
Q

What is the formula for generation time (g) involving time of exponential growth (t) and the number of generations (n)?

A

g = t/n

133
Q

What is the formula for generation time (g) involving time of exponential growth (t), number of a cells at a certain time point (Nt), and initial number of cells (N0)?

A

g = t/[3.3(log (Nt/N0))]

134
Q

What is the formula for the number of generations (n) involving number of a cells at a certain time point (Nt), and initial number of cells (N0)?

A

n = [(log Nt - log N0)/log 2]

135
Q

What is auxotroph?

A

Requires addition of specific macromolecules because it does not synthesize them

136
Q

What is phototroph?

A

Self-sufficient i.e. generate their own macromolecules from basic elements

137
Q

What are copiotrophs?

A

Grow in high levels of nutrient

138
Q

What are oligotrophs?

A

Require low nutrient levels to grow (high levels prevent growth)

139
Q

What is a Defined medium?

A

Know exactly what went in it

140
Q

What is a complexed medium?

A

Composition unknown

141
Q

What is a Minimal medium?

A

Meets the minimum requirements

142
Q

What is a Selective Medium?

A

Restricts growth of undesirables, and favors growth of desirables

143
Q

What is a Differential medium?

A

Distinguished between types

144
Q

Why do we use agar instead of gelatin?

A

Because it is solid at 37°C, and is not broken down by most organisms

145
Q

Why would we use liquid cultures in a lab?

A

Because it is a closed system, we can shake to add oxygen, and has large volumes/biomass

146
Q

What is the difference between batch culture and continuous culture?

A

Batch: used to grow microorganisms under limited nutrient availability in a closed system
Continuous: used to grow microorganisms under optimum and continual supply of nutrients in an open system

147
Q

In which kind of culture can we control the growth rate and yield?

A

Continuous

148
Q

Biofilms are ____ communities?

A

attached

149
Q

What is an obligate aerobe?

A

An obligate aerobe is an organism that requires oxygen to grow

150
Q

What is an obligate anaerobe?

A

organisms that can grow and survive only in the absence of oxygen

151
Q

What is a facultative anaerobe?

A

organism that is able to grow either with or without free oxygen

152
Q

What is an aerotolerant anaerobe?

A

do not perform aerobic respiration, they can grow in the presence of oxygen

153
Q

What is a microaerophile?

A

microorganisms that proliferate in lower levels of oxygen

154
Q

What is the benefit of using a “candle jar?”

A

Chemical reaction to remove most but not all of the O2 in the chamber

155
Q

Oxygen leads to ____ ______ _____ (ROS)

A

Reactive Oxygen Species

156
Q

What is the reaction involved in superoxide dismutase?

A

Superoxide anions to peroxide

157
Q

What is the reaction involved in peroxidase?

A

hydrogen peroxide to water and oxidized electron donor

158
Q

What is the reaction involved in catalase?

A

hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen

159
Q

What is a psychrophile?

A

Cold loving

160
Q

What is a mesophile?

A

neither hot nor cold, just right

161
Q

What is a psychrotroph?

A

between psychrophile and mesophile

162
Q

What is a thermophile?

A

love warmth

163
Q

What is a hyperthermophile?

A

love it burning hot

164
Q

What is an acidophile?

A

grows at pH 1-~5.5

165
Q

What is a neutrophile?

A

grows at pH ~5.5 - ~8.5

166
Q

What is a alkaliphile?

A

grows at pH ~7.5 - ~11.5

167
Q

What is a non-halophile?

A

Salt concentration up to 0.3M (0.8%)

168
Q

What is a halotolerant?

A

Salt concentration of 0.3-0.8M (1.7-4.8%)

169
Q

What is a halophile?

A

Salt concentration of 0.8-3.4M (4.7-20%)

170
Q

What is an extreme halophile?

A

Salt concentration of 3.4-5.1M (20-30%)

171
Q

What is xerophilic?

A

high sugar

172
Q

What are barophiles?

A

High atmospheric pressure

173
Q

What is a virus?

A

A genetic element encapsulated in a protein shell (capsid)

174
Q

Describe a virus

A
  • DNA or RNA (but never both)
  • Double stranded, single stranded
  • Segmented (multiple fragments) or non-segmented (1 fragment)
  • May be surrounded by a membrane
175
Q

Why are viruses not considered living?

A

They do not carry independent metabolism

176
Q

Because they need a host for energy and protein synthesis, viruses are considered _____ ______ ______

A

obligate intracellular parasites

177
Q

True or False: viruses infect all cellular life forms?

A

True

178
Q

The extracellular form of a virus is called a ..?

A

virion

179
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

A virus that parasitizes a bacterium by infecting it and reproducing inside it

180
Q

What is an archaeaphage?

A

Archaea are also infected by viruses, whether these should be referred to as ‘phages’ is debatable

181
Q

What is a virophage?

A

Virophages are satellite viruses; that is, they are defective viruses that need a helper virus to provide missing functions

182
Q

Viral structures are very small, and therefore not observable with a ____ _____

A

light microscope

183
Q

Capsids have protein subunits called _____?

A

capsomeres

184
Q

Capsids have 1 or more ____ proteins

A

different

185
Q

In symmetry, there are two primary shapes: ?

A
  1. Rod
  2. Spherical
186
Q

What kind of symmetry is a Rod?

A

helical

187
Q

What kind of symmetry is spherical?

A

icosahedral

188
Q

Length of a viral rod is dependent on ?

A

The length of nuclei acid strand

189
Q

Width in a viral rod is dependent on ?

A

Size and packaging of capsomeres

190
Q

Icosahedral symmetry is the ____ and ____ ____ arrangement

A

simplest, most effective

191
Q

Between the rod and spherical symmetry, which of the two require the fewest capsomeres?

A

Spherical

192
Q

Icosahedral head + helical tail is an example of what?

A

A complex shape

193
Q

Compare a naked virion to an enveloped virion?

A

Naked: capsid + nucleic acid
Enveloped: membrane + capsid + nucleic acid

194
Q

In virion, the phospholipid bilayer is derived from ? and what proteins does it contain?

A

The host, mostly animal viruses; host proteins + viral proteins

195
Q

What are fibrils?

A

peptidoglycan-like polymer on amoeba viruses

196
Q

If you block the spike, you block the ___?

A

attachment

197
Q

What are spike proteins?

A

Proteins at the surface of viruses, they attach and enter host cells

198
Q

Do virion only pack nucleic acids?

A

No, some viruses carry enzymes

199
Q

What kind of enzyme do bacteriophages carry?

A

Lysozyme-like enzyme

200
Q

What kind of enzyme do RNA viruses carry?

A

RNA replicase

201
Q

What kind of enzymes do retroviruses carry?

A

Reverse transcriptase

202
Q

In naming viruses, is both the species name and viral name in italics?

A

No, only the species name

203
Q

When identifying viruses, what should you beware of?

A

Differentiating name from the disease it causes. HIV vs AIDS for example

204
Q

What classification system do we use for viruses?

A

The Baltimore Classification

205
Q

What is the 1st Baltimore Classification, and what steps does it involve?

A

BCI: double-stranded (ds) DNA viruses
+/-DNA → mRNA

206
Q

What is the 2nd Baltimore Classification, and what steps does it involve?

A

BCII: single-stranded (ss) DNA viruses
+DNA → +/-DNA → mRNA

207
Q

What is the 3rd Baltimore Classification, and what steps does it involve?

A

BCIII: dsRNA viruses
+/-RNA → mRNA

208
Q

What is the 4th Baltimore Classification, and what steps does it involve?

A

BCIV: positive-sense (+) RNA viruses
+RNA → -RNA → mRNA

209
Q

What is the 5th Baltimore Classification, and what steps does it involve?

A

BCV: negative-sense (-) RNA viruses
-RNA → mRNA

210
Q

What is the 6th Baltimore Classification, and what steps does it involve?

A

BCVI: reverse-transcribing RNA viruses
+RNA → -DNA → +/-DNA → mRNA

211
Q

What is the 7th Baltimore Classification, and what steps does it involve?

A

BCVII: reverse-transcribing dsDNA viruses
+/-DNA → +RNA → -DNA → +/-DNA → mRNA

212
Q

To create mRNA, you need a _____ strand DNA

A

negative

213
Q

To create a protein, you need a _____ strand RNA

A

positive

214
Q

How viruses infect their hosts depend on..?

A

The host, their Baltimore classification, and their type (naked or enveloped)

215
Q

Order these steps properly for “How do phages infect bacteria:”
1. Biosynthesis: phage DNA replicates and phage proteins are made
2. Attachment: the phage attaches to the surface of the host
3. Penetration: the viral DNA enters the host cell
4. Lysis: the cell lyses, releasing newly made phages
5. Maturation: new phage particles are assembled

A

2, 3, 1, 5, 4

216
Q

Order these steps properly for a “one-step growth curve:”
1. Burst size: number of virions released per bacterium
2. Inoculation: inoculum of virus binds to cells
3. Burst: host cells release many viral particles
4. Eclipse: virions penetrate the cells

A

2, 4, 3, 1

217
Q

Order these steps properly for “how do temperate phages infect bacteria:”
1. The phage DNA becomes incorporated into the host genome
2. The cell lyses, releasing the newly made phages
3. The phage infects a cell
4.New phage particles are assembled
5. Under stressful conditions, the prophage DNA is excised from the bacterial chromosome and enters the lytic cycle
6. The cell divides, and prophage DNA is passed on to daughter cells
7. Phage DNA replicates and phage proteins are made

A

3, 1, 6, 5, 7, 4, 2

218
Q

Order these steps properly for “how do viruses infect eukaryotes:”
1. Assembly
2. Attachment: binding to the receptor(s): spike protein, host and tissue specificity
3. Biosynthesis: production of genome, mRNA, and proteins. Replication in the nucleus
4. Release
5. Uncoating: viral content is released
6. Penetration: engulfment: endocytosis/membrane fusion

A

2, 6, 5, 3, 1, 4

219
Q

What are 3 outcomes of a viral infection?

A
  1. Lytic
  2. Persistent
  3. Cancer
220
Q

What is Lytic in terms of outcomes of a viral infection?

A

Cell lysis to release viral particle

221
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of Persistent in terms of the outcome of a viral infection?

A

Latent: virus is dormant and reactivates
Chronic: virus is not eliminated, continuous production of viral particle

222
Q

What are the two types of Cancer?

A

Direct: viral oncogenes, activation of oncogenes
Indirect: chronic infection

223
Q

Order these steps properly for “ how do viruses chronically infect eukaryotes:”
1. Penetration
2. Uncoating
3. Biosynthesis
4. Integration
5. Attachment
6. Release
7. Assembly

A

5, 1, 2, 4, 3, 7, 6

224
Q

What are the 3 requirements in order to grow a virus?

A
  1. Needs living host cells
  2. Needs the host cell type to support a viral infection (permissive host, receptors, etc)
  3. Know the conditions to grow the host
225
Q

What is plaque?

A

Lysis of a host cell

226
Q

1 plaque = 1 _____ ______

A

infectious virion

227
Q

Lytic vs lysogenic infections

A

Lytic: the reproduction of viruses using a host cell to manufacture more viruses; the viruses then burst out of the cell.
Lysogenic: the incorporation of the viral genome into the host cell genome, infecting it from within

228
Q

What are viroids?

A

Short strand of circular RNA capable of self-replication, they do not have a protein coat

229
Q

What are virusoids?

A

Non-self-replicating single stranded RNAs. They need specific “helper” viruses (i.e. co-infection). Belong to satellite RNAs

230
Q

What are prions?

A

Misfolded proteins that misfold normal proteins

BMSC 210 (3 decks)

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