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BMSC 210 > Final (lectures 22-36/cumulative) > Flashcards

Final (lectures 22-36/cumulative) Flashcards

1
Q

What is broad spectrum?

A

Kills many different groups, is indiscriminate

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2
Q

What is narrow spectrum?

A

Kills a specific group

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3
Q

What Mode of Action targets penicillin-binding proteins, peptidoglycan subunits and peptidoglycan subunits transport?

A

Inhibiting Cell Wall Biosynthesis

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4
Q

What Mode of Action has a drug class of β-lactams, which includes penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, carbapenems, glycopeptides, and bacitracin?

A

Inhibiting Cell Wall Biosynthesis

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5
Q

What Mode of Action targets 30S ribosomal subunits?

A

Inhibiting biosynthesis of proteins

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6
Q

What Mode of Action targets 50S ribosomal subunits?

A

Inhibiting biosynthesis of proteins

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7
Q

Which inhibition of biosynthesis of proteins has a drug class containing aminoglycosides and tetracyclines?

A

30S ribosomal subunit

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8
Q

Which inhibition of biosynthesis of proteins has a drug class containing macrolides, lincosamides, chloramphenicol, and oxazolidinones?

A

50S ribosomal subunit

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9
Q

What Mode of Action targets lipopolysaccharide, inner and outer membranes?

A

Disrupting the membrane

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10
Q

What Mode of Action has a drug class of polymyxin B, colistin, and daptomycin?

A

Disrupting the membrane

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11
Q

What Mode of Action targets RNA?

A

Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis

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12
Q

What Mode of Action targets DNA?

A

Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis

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13
Q

Which inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis has a drug class containing rifamycin?

A

RNA

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14
Q

Which inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis has a drug class containing fluoroquinolones?

A

DNA

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15
Q

What Mode of Action targets folic acid synthesis enzyme?

A

Antimetabolites

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16
Q

What Mode of Action targets mycolic acid synthesis enzyme?

A

Antimetabolites

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17
Q

Which antimetabolite has a drug class containing sulfonamides and trimethoprim?

A

Folic acid synthesis enzyme

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18
Q

Which antimetabolite has a drug class containing isonicotinic acid hydrazide?

A

Mycolic acid synthesis enzyme

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19
Q

What Mode of Action targets mycobacterial ATP synthase?

A

Mycobacterial ATP synthase inhibitor

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20
Q

What Mode of Action has a drug class containing Diarylquinoline?

A

Mycobacterial ATP synthase inhibitor

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21
Q

? bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit, prevents peptide bond formation, and stops protein synthesis

A

Chloramphenicol, macrolides, and lincosamides

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22
Q

________ bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit, and impair proofreading resulting in the production of faulty proteins

A

Aminoglycosides

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23
Q

________ bind to the 30S ribosomal subunits, and block the binding of tRNAs, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis

A

Tetracyclines

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24
Q

Sulfonamide, a structural analog of PABA, competitively inhibits the synthesis of ?

A

dihydrofolic acid

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25
Q

Trimethoprim, a structural analog of dihydrofolic acid, competitively inhibits the synthesis of ?

A

Tetrahydrofolic acid

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25
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antifungal drugs has drug classes including imidazoles, triazoles, and allylamines?

A

Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

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26
Q

What are the different drugs under Imidazoles?

A

Miconazole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole

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27
Q

What are the clinical uses of imidazoles?

A

Fungal skin infections and vaginal yeast infections

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28
Q

What is a specific drug of a triazole?

A

Fluconazole

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29
Q

What are the clinical uses of triazoles?

A

Systemic yeast infections, oral thrush, and cryptococcal meningitis

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30
Q

What is a drug under the drug class allylamines?

A

Terbinafine

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31
Q

What are the clinical uses of allylamines?

A

Dermatophytic skin infections, and infections of fingernails and toenails

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32
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antifungal drugs that has drug classes including polyenes?

A

Bind ergosterol in the cell membrane and create pores that disrupt the membrane

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33
Q

What is a drug under the drug class polyenes?

A

Nystatin and amphotericin B

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34
Q

What is the clinical use of nystatin?

A

Used topically for yeast infections of skin, mouth, and vagina; also used for fungal infections of the intestine

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35
Q

What is the clinical use of amphotericin B?

A

Variety systemic fungal infections

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36
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antifungal drugs has drug classes including echinocandins?

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

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37
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antifungal drugs has drugs including caspofugin and nikkomycin Z?

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

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38
Q

What is a specific drug from the drug class echinocandins?

A

Caspofugin

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39
Q

What is the clinical use of caspofugin?

A

Aspergillosis and systemic yeast infections

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40
Q

What is the clinical use of nikkomycin Z?

A

Valley Fever and yeast infections

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41
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antifungal drugs has drug including griseofulvin?

A

Inhibiting microtubules and cell division

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42
Q

What is the clinical use of griseofulvin?

A

Dermatophytic skin infections

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43
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antiviral drugs that has drugs including acyclovir, AZT, ribavirin, vidarabine, sofosbuvir?

A

Nucleoside analog inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis

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44
Q

What is the clinical use of acyclovir?

A

Herpes virus infections

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45
Q

What is the clinical use of AZT?

A

HIV infections

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46
Q

What is the clinical use of ribavirin?

A

Hepatitis C virus and respiratory syncytial virus infections

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47
Q

What is the clinical use of vidarabine?

A

Herpes virus infections

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48
Q

What is the clinical use of sofosbuvir?

A

Hepatitis C virus infections

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49
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antiviral drugs that has drugs including etravirine?

A

Non-nucleoside noncompetitive inhibition

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50
Q

What is the clinical use of etravirine?

A

HIV infections

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51
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antiviral drugs that has drugs including amantadine and rimantadine?

A

Inhibit escape of virus from endosomes

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52
Q

What are the clinical uses of amantadine and rimantadine?

A

Infections with influenze virus

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53
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antiviral drugs that has drugs including olsetamivir, zanamivir, peramivir?

A

Inhibit neuraminadase

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54
Q

What are the clinical uses of olsetamivir, zanamivir, and peramivir?

A

Infections with influenza virus

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55
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antiviral drugs that has drugs including pleconaril?

A

Inhibit viral uncoating

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56
Q

What are the clinical uses of pleconaril?

A

Serious enterovirus infections

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57
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antiviral drugs that has drugs including ritonavir and simeprevir?

A

Inhibition of protease

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58
Q

What is the clinical use of ritonavir?

A

HIV infections

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59
Q

What is the clinical use for simeprevir?

A

Hepatitis C virus infections

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60
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antiviral drugs that has drugs including raltegravir?

A

Inhibition of integrase

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61
Q

What is the clinical use of raltegreavir?

A

HIV infections

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62
Q

Which mechanism of action in common antiviral drugs that has drugs including enfuviritide?

A

Inhibition of membrane fusion

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63
Q

What is the clinical use for enfuviritide?

A

HIV infections

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64
Q

What is immunology?

A

the study of the immune system and
immunity

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65
Q

What are the 2 branches of immunity?

A
  1. Innate immunity
  2. Adaptive immunity
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66
Q

What is Innate immunity?

A

multifaceted system of defenses targeting
invading pathogens in a nonspecific manner.

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67
Q

What is Adaptive immunity?

A

Multifaceted system of defenses that
specifically targets invading pathogens and that develop
memory to the invading pathogens

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68
Q

______ immunity is non-inducible, non-specific, gives a quick response, with no previous exposure required, physical + chemical barriers, phagocytes, and inflammation

A

Innate

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69
Q

______ immunity is activated when the other fails, specific recognition of pathogens, slow process, develop memory, T-cell, and B-cells with antibodies

A

Adaptive

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70
Q

In innate immunity there are many physical barriers:
? deny entry, ? remove potential threats, and the _____

A

cellular barriers, mechanical defenses, microbiome

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71
Q

In innate immunity, what are the 5 chemical barriers?

A

Body fluids, antimicrobial components, complement systems, cytokines, mediators of inflammation

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72
Q

In innate immunity, the complement system has _____ _____ that have sequential interaction, enzymes, and the ? that all boost innate and adaptive responses

A

Plasma proteins, membrane attach complex (MAC)

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73
Q

______ are the molecular messenger of the immune system

A

Cytokines

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74
Q

______ binds to receptors, signaling cascade leading to transcription activator

A

Ctyokines

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75
Q

_____ are a sub-class of cytokines that recruit circulating immune cells to site of injury

A

Chemokines

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76
Q

_____ is the same cell secretes and receives cytokine signal

A

Autocrine

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77
Q

______: cytokine signal is secreted to a nearby cell

A

Paracrine

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78
Q

_______: cytokine signal secreted to the circulatory system; travels to distant cells

A

Endocrine

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79
Q

______ are a sub-class of cytokines that activate anti-viral response of nearby cells

A

Interferons

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80
Q

What are the 2 main systems of the immune system?

A

Blood and lymphatic

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81
Q

_____ dumps antibodies and immune cells into the blood, while the _____ allows circulation and distribution of immune cells

A

Lymph, blood

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82
Q

What are the 3 secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Lymph nodes, mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), spleen

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83
Q

_______ to detect antigens or pathogens circulating in the lymphatic system

A

Leukocytes

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84
Q

Derived from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are 3 main cells in the immune system: ?

A

Erythrocytes (Red blood cells)
Leukocytes (White blood cells)
Platelets

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85
Q

______ are immature, but become mature and differentiate; while _____ have granules that can be stained, contain toxins and enzymes and can destroy their targets

A

Monocytes, granulocytes

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86
Q

What are the 3 main granulocytes?

A

Basophil, neutrophil, and eosinophil

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87
Q

What are the 2 differentiated cells of monocytes?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells

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88
Q

? : antigenic-presenting cells (APCs) residing in the skin and mucous membranes

A

Dendric cells

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89
Q

? : APC residing in the tissues and organs (spleen, lymph nodes and MALT) and are the link to adaptive immunity

A

Macrophages

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90
Q

? : elimination and destruction of extracellular bacteria, are the blood and bone marrow

A

Neutrophils

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91
Q

? : protection against protozoa and helminths and role in allergies

A

Eosinophils

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92
Q

? : role in inflammation and allergic reactions; found in the blood

A

Basophils

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93
Q

? : role in inflammation and allergic reactions; found in tissues

A

Mast cells

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94
Q

? : kill virus-infected cells and cancerous cells

A

Natural killer cells

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95
Q

Tissue damage will activate tissue _______ (macrophages), which will release the _____ and _____. This then recruits _______ and ______. Neutrophils enter tissues by
sticking to capillary wall (_______), rolling and squeezing in the cellular junctions (_______)

A

phagocytes, cytokines, chemokines, Neutrophil, T-cells, margination, diapedesis

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96
Q

What are Pathogen-associated Molecular Pattern (PAMS)?

A

Unique microbe structures

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97
Q

What are Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)?

A

Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
NOD-like receptors (NDRs)

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98
Q

Uptake of extracellular pathogen is done by a _______, and the purpose is to ______

A

Phagosome, destroy

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99
Q

Membrane-bound inclusions are called ______, which contain ______ substances, reactive _____ species, enzymes like lysozymes, proteases, etc

A

lysosomes, bactericidal, oxygen

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100
Q

When lysosomes fuse with phagosome it is called a ________

A

phagolysosome

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101
Q

What is inflammation?

A

Normal biological response to physical injury, toxins, and pathogens

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102
Q

Inflammation is characterized by ?

A

Redness, swelling, pain, and heat

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103
Q

What is the scientific name for redness caused from inflammation?

A

Erythema

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104
Q

What is the scientific name for swelling caused from inflammation?

A

Edema

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105
Q

Inflammation can be ____or _____, ____ or _____, and its promote healing

A

localized, systemic, acute, chronic

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106
Q

What is acute inflammation?

A

Production of activators and pro-inflammatory molecules, and has an influx of phagocytes

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107
Q

What is a fever?

A

Non-localized inflammatory

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108
Q

_____ will induce a fever and are considered endogenous pyrogens, while ____ will also induce fever and are considered exogenous pyrogens

A

Cytokines, LPS

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109
Q

What are exogenous pyrogens?

A

Substances which originate inside the body and which are capable of inducing fever

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110
Q

What are endogenous pyrogens?

A

Substances which originate inside the body and which are capable of inducing fever

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111
Q

Exogenous and endogenous pyrogens act on ________, which act on the _______

A

prostaglandins, hypothalamus

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112
Q

What is the main purpose of fever?

A

Limit growth of pathogens

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113
Q

What is the official name for uncontrolled inflammation?

A

Toxic/septic shock

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114
Q

What are the 3 main aspects of adaptive immunity?

A

Discriminate: distinguishing between specific foreign molecules
Diversify: recognize many possible foreign molecules
Memorize: remember foreign molecules after 1st expose

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115
Q

What are the 2 components of adaptive immunity?

A
  1. Humoral immunity
  2. Cell-mediated immunity
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116
Q

What is humoral immunity?

A

Antibodies produced by B-cells in response to antigens

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117
Q

What are B-cells?

A

Bone marrow lymphocytes

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118
Q

What is cell-mediated immunity?

A

Activation of T-cells to control intracellular microbes

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119
Q

What are T-cells?

A

Thymus lymphocytes

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120
Q

An _____ is a molecule/substance that interacts with antibodies or T Cell Receptor (TCR). Not all antigen induce an immune response

A

antigen

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121
Q

An _______ induces an immune response, used in conjugate vaccines

A

Immunogen

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122
Q

A _______ is a small molecules that binds to an antibody, does not induce an immune response, it needs a ______ to be an immunogen

A

Hapten, carrier

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123
Q

Immunogenicity is dependent on: ?

A

Complexity
Physical form and structural form
Dose

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124
Q

What are epitopes?

A

Sections or specific regions of an antigen that are recognized

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125
Q

Antibodies are also known as ______. They are considered ______ and are found in blood and tissue fluids. They are ______, and have __ protein chains held by disulfide bonds. It is __-shaped, with __ heavy chains + __ light chain. They also have 2 fragments: ? and ?

A

Immunoglobulin, glycoproteins, Monomers, 4, Y, 2, 2, fragment of antigen binding (Fab), fragment of crystallization (Fc)

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126
Q

What is the Fragment of antigen binding (Fab region)?

A

Variable: diversity and specificity
Provide function

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127
Q

What is the Fragment of crystallization (Fc region)?

A

Binds to complement and phagocyte

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128
Q

What are the 5 functions of antibodies?

A
  1. Opsonization
  2. Neutralization
  3. Agglutination
  4. Immune activation
  5. Cell mediated cytotoxicity
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129
Q

What are the 5 immunoglobin classes?

A
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
  5. IgM
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130
Q

What is the function, properties, and distribution of immunoglobin class IgA?

A

Function: neutralization
Properties: major secretory antibody
Distribution: dimer in secretions, monomer in blood

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131
Q

What is the function, properties, and distribution of immunoglobin class IgD?

A

Function: B-cell receptor
Properties: activate B-cells
Distribution: B-cell

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132
Q

What is the function, properties, and distribution of immunoglobin class IgE?

A

Function: Fc bind and activate mast cells and basophils
Properties: parasite immunity
Distribution: blood and lymph

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133
Q

What is the function, properties, and distribution of immunoglobin class IgG?

A

Function: neutralization, agglutination, complement activation, opsonization, cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Properties: major circulating antibody, Fc binds phagocytes, crosses placenta
Distribution: blood, lymph, and extracellular fluid

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134
Q

What is the function, properties, and distribution of immunoglobin class IgM?

A

Function: neutralization, agglutination, complement activation
Properties: first antibody to appear
Distribution: blood and lymph

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135
Q

What is the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)?

A

Important for antigen presentation, Dimers, 2 classes: MHC I and MHC II

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136
Q

What is MHC I?

A

Found on all nucleated cells, present self antigens, present non-self antigens

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137
Q

What is MHC II?

A

Found on macrophages, dentritic cells and B cells, present non-self antigens

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138
Q

Each T Cell Receptor (TCR) binds a different _____, selection occurs in ______, and failure can lead to ________

A

antigen, thymus, autoimmunity

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139
Q

______ selection: TCR with weak interaction divide and grow. No interaction is death

A

Positive

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140
Q

_____ selection: TCR with strong interaction die

A

Negative

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141
Q

What are the 3 classes of T-cells?

A
  1. Helper (Th)
  2. Regulatory (Treg)
  3. Cytotoxic
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142
Q

What is the activation of Helper T-cells?

A

APC with antigen + MHC II

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143
Q

What is the activation of Regulatory T-cells?

A

APC with antigen + MHC II

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144
Q

What is the activation of Cytotoxic T-cells?

A

APC or infected cell with antigen + MHC I

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145
Q

What are the 4 subclasses of Helper T cells?

A
  1. Th1
  2. Th2
  3. Th17
  4. Memory
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146
Q

What is the function and outcome of Th1 helper t-cells?

A

Function: Activation of cytotoxic T-cells, neutrophile, NK and macrophage
Outcome: Cell-mediated immunity

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147
Q

What is the function and outcome of Th2 helper t-cells?

A

Function: Activation of B-cells
Outcome: antibody-mediated immunity

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148
Q

What is the function and outcome of Th17 helper t-cells?

A

Function: Activation and recruitment of neutrophils
Outcome: Amplification of innate immunity

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149
Q

What is the function and outcome of Memory helper t-cells?

A

Function: Remember specific pathogen
Outcome: Strong secondary response

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150
Q

What is the function and outcome of regulatory t-cells?

A

Function: Tolerance and prevention of autoimmune response
Outcome: Control of Th immunity

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151
Q

What is the function and outcome of cytotoxic t-cells?

A

Function: Destroy cells with intracellular pathogen
Outcome: Cell-mediated immunity

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152
Q

What is the surface CD of helper T cells and regulatory T cells?

A

CD4

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153
Q

What is the surface CD of cytotoxic T cells?

A

CD8

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154
Q

___ binds MHC II, ____ binds MHC I

A

CD4, CD8

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155
Q

B Cell Receptor (BCR) recognize __ antigen. Diversity is achieved by different process – ______, ________. Selection occurs in ?

A

1, recombination, hypermutation, bone marrow

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156
Q

B-cell stimulation where it is t-cell _______, there is proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells. T-cell _____ are stronger and induce memory, and have the internalization of antigen.

A

independent, dependent

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157
Q

_____ produced during the secondary response are more effective and bind with higher affinity; while ? produced during secondary responses live longer and levels of antibody remain elevated for longer

A

Antibodies, plasma cells

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158
Q

What was Edward Jenner’s contribution?

A

Pioneered the concept of vaccines and created the smallpox vaccine, the world’s first vaccine

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159
Q

What is passive, naturally acquired immunity?

A

Immunity acquired from antibodies passed in breast milk or through placenta

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160
Q

What is passive, artificially acquired immunity?

A

Immunity gained through antibodies harvesting from another person or animal

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161
Q

What is active, naturally acquired immunity?

A

Immunity gained through illness and recovery

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162
Q

What is active, artificially acquired immunity?

A

Immunity acquired through a vaccine

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163
Q

Vaccines leverage _____ immunity

A

adaptive

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164
Q

What is herd immunity?

A

Occurs when a sufficient percentage of a population has become immune to an infection, whether through previous infections or vaccination

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165
Q

Vaccines can ?, ?, and ?

A

Prevent infections, limit infections, limit severe effects

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166
Q

What is a Live Attenuated vaccine, and what are the pros and cons?

A

Description: Non-pathogenic viable microbe
Pros: Mimic a “real” infection; Balanced immunity
Cons: Not safe for immunocompromised; Risk of reversion

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167
Q

What is a Whole Inactivated vaccine, and what are the pros and cons?

A

Description: Pathogen is dead
Pros: Entire microbe without risk of infection
Cons: Weaker immunity; Stronger dose + booster

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168
Q

What is a Sub-Units vaccine, and what are the pros and cons?

A

Description: Immunogenic piece(s) of microbe
Pros: Limited side effects
Cons: Booster needed; Limited longevity

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169
Q

What is a Sub-Unit toxoid vaccine, and what are the pros and cons?

A

Description: Inactivated toxin
Pros: Antibodies neutralize toxin
Cons: Does not prevent infection

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170
Q

What is a Sub-Unit conjugated vaccine, and what are the pros and cons?

A

Description: Low immunogenic antigen attached to an immunogen
Pros: Effective in younger kids
Cons: Costly; Interfere with other vaccines

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171
Q

What is a Sub-Unit viral-like particle vaccine, and what are the pros and cons?

A

Description: Proteins that assemble as a capsid
Pros: Mimic the virus
Cons: Low immunogenicity (adjuvant)

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172
Q

What is a Viral Vector vaccine, and what are the pros and cons?

A

Description: A virus expressing an antigen
Pros: Mimic natural infection
Cons: Risk of genomic integration; Natural immunity to vector

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173
Q

What is a RNA vaccine, and what are the pros and cons?

A

Description: RNA strand that can be translated
Pros: Highly adaptable; Strong cell-mediate immunity
Cons: Costly (Storage); Weak humoral immunity

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174
Q

What is a DNA vaccine, and what are the pros and cons?

A

Description: DNA strand can be transcribed
Pros: Highly adaptable
Cons: Risk of genomic integration

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175
Q

What are the 3 broad categories of disorders and deficiencies of the immune system?

A
  1. Hypersensitivity
  2. Immunodeficiency
  3. Autoimmunity
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176
Q

What is hypersensitivity?

A

An over-active and harmful response to foreign antigens

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177
Q

What is Immunodeficiency?

A

Failure to mount an adequate immune response in the presence of danger

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178
Q

What is Autoimmunity?

A

Harmful response to “self” antigens

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179
Q

All sites on a human that contain microorganisms are part of a _____

A

microbiome

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180
Q

What is a microbiome?

A

A functional collection of different microbes in a particular environmental system

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181
Q

What is microbiota?

A

Describe all the microbes in a microhabitat

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182
Q

There are ~10^__ microbes in the human
microbiome living in complex communities

A

13

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183
Q

What is the most common bacteria found on the skin?

A

Propionibacterium

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184
Q

What is the most common bacteria found in the saliva?

A

Streptococcus

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185
Q

What is the most common bacteria found in the urogenital tract?

A

lactobacillus

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186
Q

What is the most common bacteria found in the gastrointestinal tract?

A

bacteroidetes

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187
Q

Humans are _____ and omnivorous

A

monogastric

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188
Q

What is the pH in the stomach?

A

2

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188
Q

Colonization of gut begins at ___

A

birth

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189
Q

What is the pH in the small intestine?

A

4-5

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190
Q

What is the pH in the large intestine?

A

7

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191
Q

Microbial populations in different areas of the GI tract are influenced by ____ and the ?

A

diet, physical conditions in the area

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192
Q

_______, _________, and _________ are common in the gastric fluid, while ________ and _______ are common in the mucus layer of the stomach

A

Firmicutes, Bacteroidetes, Actinobacteria, Firmicutes, Proteobacteria

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193
Q

When present, acid-resistant ? causes chronic and acute gastritis and leads to the formation of peptic ulcers which can now be cured with antibiotics

A

Helicobacter pylori

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194
Q

The _____ is essentially an in vivo fermentation vessel, with the microbiota using nutrients derived from the digestion of food

A

colon,

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195
Q

Most organisms are restricted to the ____ of the large intestine, while others are in the _______ layers

A

lumen, mucosal

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196
Q

The vast majority (~98%) of all human gut phylotypes fall into one of three major bacterial phyla: ?

A

Firmicutes, Bacteroidetes, and Proteobacteria

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197
Q

Individuals may have mostly ________, mostly _______, or a mix of the two. This may regulate metabolism and the host’s propensity for obesity

A

Firmicutes, Bacteriodetes

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198
Q

? : individuals vary in their gut microbiota, each individual has a relatively stable gut microbiota

A

Gut Enterotypes

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199
Q

Three basic gut enterotypes: ?

A
  1. Bacteroides
  2. Prevotella
  3. Ruminococcus
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200
Q

Each basic gut enterotypes ______ and _________ distinct

A

functionally, phylogenetically

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201
Q

A person’s enterotype influences the response to ? and may contribute to ?

A

diet and drug therapy, health or disease status

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202
Q

Immune system does not properly develop in the absence of ? Exposure to a ____ of microorganisms soon after birth is essential for developing immune
tolerance of beneficial microorganisms and recognizing pathogens as foreign

A

microbial stimulation, variety

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203
Q

Obese mice have more ______ and a greater
number of methanogenic ____

A

Firmicutes, Archaea

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204
Q

Saliva contains antimicrobial _____, but high concentrations of nutrients near surfaces in the mouth promote ?

A

enzymes, localized microbial growth

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205
Q

Cells form a biofilm called dental plaque, which
has ______ and other fermenting bacteria. S. mutans a major contributor –generates ____ ____. These fermenters produce acid, which wears down the _____ ______. Periodontal disease is thought to contribute to
several systemic conditions, including ______ ______ and _____

A

Streptococcus, lactic acid, tooth enamel, cardiovascular disease, arthritis

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206
Q

Microbes thrive in the ____ respiratory tract, while the ____ respiratory tract has no normal microbiota in healthy adults

A

upper, lower

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207
Q

Most are trapped in the mucus of the nasal and oral passages and expelled with ? or swallowed and then ?

A

nasal secretions, killed in the stomach

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208
Q

Only particles smaller than about 10 millimeter in diameter reach the lungs, most notably certain bacteria and viruses that cause _____.

A

pneumonia

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209
Q

Altered ___ conditions can cause potential pathogens in the urethra. ? and ? frequently cause urinary tract infections, especially in women

A

pH, E. coli, P. mirabilis

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210
Q

The vagina of the adult female is weakly _____ and contains significant amounts of _____. Lactobacillus acidophilus, a resident organism in the vagina, ferments the glycogen, producing _____ ____, which maintains a local acidic environment

A

acidic, glycogen, lactic acid

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211
Q

The most abundant viruses in all body sites are not animal viruses but instead are ______

A

bacteriophages

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212
Q

Bacteriophages likely play a _______ role in human health, and can be a first line of defense against certain pathogens. This can be considered to have a symbiotic relationship with the human host and provide a form of ?

A

protective, host-independent immunity

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213
Q

What are pathogens?

A

Microbial parasites that cause disease or tissue damage in a host

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214
Q

What is pathogenicity?

A

The ability of a parasite to inflict damage on the host

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215
Q

What is virulence?

A

The relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease

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216
Q

What is an opportunistic pathogen?

A

Causes disease only in the absence of normal host resistance

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217
Q

What is an infection?

A

Situation in which a microorganism is established and growing in a host, whether or not the
host is harmed

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218
Q

What is a disease?

A

Damage or injury to the host that impairs host function

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219
Q

What is adherence?

A

The enhanced ability of microbes to attach to host tissues. It is necessary, but not sufficient, to start disease

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220
Q

Bacteria and viruses that initiate infection often adhere specifically to ______ cells

A

epithelial

221
Q

Adhesins are ________ or _______ found on the pathogen’s surface that enable it to bind to host cells

A

glycoproteins, lipoproteins

222
Q

Gram-positive pathogens such as Staphylococci, Streptococci, and Enterococci, contain _____ anchored to their cell walls

A

SdrG

223
Q

The protein domain SdrG C terminal refers to
the ? of an adhesin found only on the cell walls of bacteria

A

C terminus domain

224
Q

The capsule is both sticky and contains specific receptors to facilitate ?. Capsules, such as those found in Streptococcus pneumoniae, protect the bacteria from ingestion by ?

A

attachment on host tissues, white blood cells

225
Q

Fimbriae, flagella, and pili are bacterial cell surface protein structures that function in ______

A

attachment

226
Q

_______ is the growth of microorganisms after they’ve gained access to host tissues. Typically starts with ______ ______, or tightly packed epithelial cells coated in mucus, a thick liquid secretion of glycoproteins.

A

Colonization, mucous membranes

227
Q

Dental caries, or cavities, are an oral microbial disease. After initial contact, _______ sobrinius and _______ mutans attach and reproduce and form a biofilm called _____

A

Streptococcus, Streptococcus, plaque

228
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

The presence of bacteria in the bloodstream

229
Q

What is septicemia?

A

Bloodborne systemic infection. Can lead to massive inflammation, septic shock and death

230
Q

Pathogens produce various virulence factors that
enhance invasiveness, what are 2?

A
  1. Enzymes that enhance virulence by breaking down or altering host tissue to provide access to nutrients
  2. Protect the pathogen by interfering with normal host defense mechanisms such as clotting
231
Q

Virulence factors are ____ or ______ substances produced by the pathogen that directly or indirectly enhance _______ and ___ _____ by facilitating and promoting infection

A

toxic, destructive, invasiveness, host damage

232
Q

Virulence can be estimated from experimental studies of the ?

A

LD50 (lethal dose50)

233
Q

What is LD50?

A

The amount of an agent that kills 50% of the animals in a test group

234
Q

Highly virulent pathogens show _____ difference in the number of cells required to kill 100% of the population as compared to 50% of the population

A

little

235
Q

What is toxicity?

A

organism produces a toxin that inhibits host cell
function or kills host cells

236
Q

What is invasiveness?

A

Ability of a pathogen to grow in host tissue at
densities that inhibit host function, and can cause damage without producing a toxin

237
Q

What is attenuation?

A

Decrease or loss of virulence

238
Q

When pathogens are kept in laboratory culture rather than isolated from diseased animals, their virulence often ______, or may be completely ____

A

decreases, lost

239
Q

Attenuated strains of various pathogens are valuable to clinical medicine because they are?

A

often used for the production of viral vaccines

240
Q

Genes that direct invasion are clustered together on the chromosome as ______ ______

A

pathogenicity islands

241
Q

S. enterica serovar typhimurium has 5 pathogenicity islands:
SPI1: ?
III secretion system
SPI2: ?

A

encodes proteins promoting invasion forming an injectisome type, genes that promote a more systemic disease

242
Q

Salmonella also contains ______ plasmids (R plasmids)

A

resistance

243
Q

_________ infections are those caused by organisms that do not cause disease in healthy hosts

A

Opportunistic

244
Q

_______ requires a pathogen break down host
tissues. This is often done with enzymes that attack host cells.

A

Invasiveness

245
Q

________ breaks down host tissues. _______ and _______ manipulate clotting: ______ forms clots, while _______ breaks them down

A

Hyaluronidase, Coagulase, streptokinase, coagulase, streptokinase

246
Q

What are the 4 classes of exoenzymes?

A
  1. Glycohydrolases
  2. Nucleases
  3. Phospholipases
  4. Proteases
247
Q

What is the function and an example of the exoenzyme glycohydrolase?

A

Function: degrades hyaluronic acid that cements cells together to promote spreading through tissues
Example: hyaluronidase

248
Q

What is the function and an example of the exoenzyme nuclease?

A

Function: degrades DNA released by dying cells that can trap the bacteria, thus promoting spread
Example: DNAse

249
Q

What is the function and an example of the exoenzyme phospholipase?

A

Function: degrades phospholipid bilayer of host cells, causing cellular lysis, and degrade membrane of phagosomes to enable escape into the cytoplasm
Example: phospholipase C

250
Q

What is the function and an example of the exoenzyme protease?

A

Function: degrades collagen in connective tissue to promote spread
Example: collagenase

251
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

Toxic proteins released from the pathogen as it grows

252
Q

What are the 3 categories of exotoxins?

A
  1. Cytolytic toxins
  2. AB toxins
  3. Superantigen toxins
253
Q

What disease, toxin, and activity is caused by the organism Clostridium botulinum?

A

Disease: botulism
Toxin: botulinum toxin (AB)
Activity: causes flaccid paralysis

254
Q

What disease, toxin, and activity is caused by the organism Clostridium tetani?

A

Disease: tetanus
Toxin: tetanospasmin (AB)
Activity: causes spastic paralysis

255
Q

What is the first disease, toxin, and activity is caused by the organism Clostridium perfringens?

A

Disease: gas gangrene
Toxin: α, β, γ, δ toxins (AB)
Activity: hemolysis, lecithin destruction

256
Q

What is the second disease, toxin, and activity is caused by the organism Clostridium botulinum?

A

Disease: food poisoning
Toxin: enterotoxin (CT)
Activity: alters intestinal tract permeability

257
Q

What disease, toxin, and activity is caused by the organism Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

Disease: diphtheria
Toxin: diphtheria toxin (AB)
Activity: inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis

258
Q

What disease, toxin, and activity is caused by the organism Escherichia coli (enterotoxigenic strains only)?

A

Disease: gastroenteritis
Toxin: shiga-like toxin (AB)
Activity: inhibits protein synthesis, induces bloody diarrhea

259
Q

What are AB exotoxins?

A

Consist of two subunits, A and B. Work by binding to host cell receptor (B subunit) and transferring damaging agent (A subunit) across the cell membrane

260
Q

What is the difference between the mode of action of cytotoxins and AB toxins?

A

Cytolytic toxins enzymatically attack cell constituents, such as membrane phospholipids, causing lysis of host cells
AB endotoxins consist of two covalently bonded subunits, A and B

261
Q

?, which leads to _____ toxin, causes the activation of adenylate cyclase in intestinal cells, causing increased levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and secretion of fluids and electrolytes out of cell, causing diarrhea

A

Vibrio cholerae, cholera

262
Q

?, which leads to _____ toxin, inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the central nervous system, causing spastic paralysis

A

Clostridium tetani, tetanus

263
Q

?, which leads to _____ toxin, inhibits the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from neurons, resulting in flaccid paralysis

A

Clostridium botulinum, botulinum

264
Q

?, which leads to _____ toxin causes the inhibition of protein synthesis, causing cellular death

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae, diphtheria

265
Q

Diphtheria Exotoxin is an AB toxin. The A domain prevents its function in ______. Is coded by a lysogenic phage: __

A

translation, β

266
Q

What is phage conversion?

A

Conversion of nonpathogenic strains to toxigenic
and pathogenic by infections with β

267
Q

Which of the relevant toxins are considered neurological exotoxins?

A

Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum produce potent AB exotoxins that affect nervous tissue

268
Q

_____ toxin consists of several related AB toxins that are the most potent biological toxins known

A

Botulinum

269
Q

What is the mode of Action of Botulinum Toxin?

A

Flaccid Paralysis: blocks the release of acetylcholine, inhibiting muscle contraction

270
Q

What is the mode of Action of Tetanus Toxin?

A

Tetanus toxin binds to inhibitory interneurons, preventing release of glycine and relaxation of muscle

271
Q

What are enterotoxins?

A

Exotoxins whose activity affects the small intestine

272
Q

_______ generally cause massive secretion of fluid into the intestinal lumen, resulting in vomiting and diarrhea

A

Enterotoxins

273
Q

________ enterotoxin is an AB toxin, whose activity affects the small intestine

A

Cholera

274
Q

What is the mode of action of cholera enterotoxin?

A

Generally cause massive secretion of fluid into the intestinal lumen, resulting in vomiting and diarrhea

275
Q

What is the mode of action of cytolytic exotoxins?

A

Work by degrading cytoplasmic membrane integrity, causing cell lysis and death

276
Q

What are hemolysis?

A

Toxins that lyse red blood cells

277
Q

Staphylococcal α-toxin kills nucleated cells and lyses ?

A

erythrocytes

278
Q

What are 3 membrane disrupting toxins whose mode of actions is via proteins that assemble into pores in cell membranes, disrupting their function and killing the cell?

A
  1. Streptolysin - streptococcus pyogenes
  2. Pneumolysin - streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. α-toxin - staphylococcus aureus
279
Q

What are 3 membrane disrupting toxins whose mode of actions is via phospholipases that degrade cell membrane phospholipids, disrupting membrane function and killing the cell?

A
  1. α-toxin - clostridium perfringens
  2. Phospholipase C - pseudomonas aeruginosa
  3. β-toxin - staphylococcus aureus
280
Q

True or False: all hemolysins are phospholipases?

A

False

281
Q

What are superantigens?

A

Generally due to a localized infection, but with systemic effects

282
Q

_______ stimulate excessive activation of immune system cells and release of cytokines from immune system cells. Life-threatening fever, inflammation, and shock are the result

A

superantigens

283
Q

Gram-positive bacteria Staphylococcus _____ and Streptococcus ____ are major producers of exotoxin superantigens

A

aureus, pyogenes

284
Q

Superantigen poisoning can be triggered by ?, ?, or by ?

A

food poisoning, by toxic shock syndrome, pyrogenic fever

285
Q

What are endotoxins?

A

The lipopolysaccharide portion of the cell envelope of certain gram-negative Bacteria, which is a toxin when solubilized. Lipid A is toxic portion

286
Q

______ (endo/exotoxins) are less toxic than _____ (endo/exotoxins), but under certain circumstances can cause death

A

endotoxins, exotoxins

287
Q

The presence of endotoxin can be detected by the
? assay, where normal ameobocytes are lysed

A

Limulus amoebocyte lysate (LAL),

288
Q

What are the chemical properties of exotoxins?

A

Proteins, secreted by certain Gram+ or Gram- bacteria; generally heat labile

289
Q

What are the chemical properties of endotoxins?

A

Lipopolysaccharide-lipoprotein complexes, released on cell lysis as part of the outer membrane of Gram- bacteria; extremely heat stable

290
Q

What is the mode of action/symptoms of exotoxins?

A

Specific; usually bind to specific cell receptors or structures; either cytotoxin, enterotoxin, or neurotoxin with defined, specific action on cells or tissues

291
Q

What is the mode of action/symptoms of endotoxins?

A

General; fever, diarrhea, vomiting

292
Q

What are the toxic properties of exotoxins?

A

Often highly toxic in picogram to microgram quantities; sometimes fatal

293
Q

What are the toxic properties of endotoxins?

A

Moderately toxic in tens to hundreds of microgram amounts, rarely fatal

294
Q

What are the immune responses of exotoxins?

A

Highly immunogenic; stimulate the production of neutralizing antibody (antitoxin)

295
Q

What are the immune responses of endotoxins?

A

Relatively poor immunogens; immune response not sufficient to neutralize toxin

296
Q

What are the toxoid potentials(a) of exotoxins?

A

Heat or chemical treatment may destroy toxicity, but treated toxin (toxoid) remains immunogenic

297
Q

What are the toxoid potentials(a) of endotoxins?

A

None

298
Q

What is the fever potential of exotoxins?

A

Nonpyrogenic; do not produce fever in the host

299
Q

What is the fever potential of endotoxins?

A

Pyrogenic; often induce fever in the host

300
Q

What is the genetic origin of exotoxins?

A

Often encoded on extrachromosomal elements or lysogenic bacteriophages

301
Q

What is the genetic origin of endotoxins?

A

Encoded by chromosomal genes

302
Q

What is clinical microbiology?

A

Subdiscipline of microbiology whose focus is diagnosing infectious diseases by identifying pathogenic microbes and advising medical providers on treatment

303
Q

Laboratories are classified according to their containment potential, or ?, and
are designated as ____through ____

A

biosafety level (BSL), BSL-1, BSL-4

304
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

A local or systemic infection acquired at a healthcare
facility

305
Q

Nosocomial infections are frequently resistant to ______

A

antibiotics

306
Q

What are the 6 frequency categories of nosocomial infections?

A

21.8% - respiratory tract infections
21.8% - surgical site infections
17.1% - gastrointestinal infections
16.4% - other
12.9% - urinary tract infections
10.0% - bloodstream infections

307
Q

Patient → _______ assay → _____ ____

A

immunological, blood sample

308
Q

Patient → ______ assay → _______ → ________ biology or immunology → _____ assay or _____ assay

A

other, samples, molecular, antigen, molecular

309
Q

Patient → ______ assay → _______ → _____-_______ biology → _______ → ________ →_______

A

other, samples, growth-dependent, enrichment, isolation, identification

310
Q

_______ is the ability to recognize the target pathogen, minimizing false positives. _______ is the minimum amount of a pathogen needed for the test to detect it, minimizing false negatives.

A

Specificity, Sensitivity

311
Q

One of several selective media used for primary isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is modified ? agar

A

Thayer–Martin (MTM)

312
Q

? media: support growth of most aerobic and facultatively aerobic organisms (e.g.,
blood agar; chocolate agar heated blood)

A

General-purpose

313
Q

? media: contain specific growth factors that enhance growth of certain fastidious pathogens. Can often identify pathogens based on colony morphology on a particular agar

A

Enriched

314
Q

? media: inhibits growth of some bacteria while inhibiting others. EMB agar (eosin methylene
blue) inhibits growth of Gram positive and supports
the growth of Gram negative organisms

A

Selective

315
Q

? media: allow identification based on growth, colour and appearance. EMB - contains lactose to identify lactose fermenters. EMB is selective and differential

A

Differential

316
Q

Blood cultures are the only immediate way of
isolating and identifying the causative agent of
_______. One bottle is cultured _____, while the other is cultured _______

A

septicemia, aerobically, anaerobically

317
Q

Urinary tract pathogens can be cultured using ? media, _____ media, and additional _____ media.
Disease-causing agents are often _____ flora.

A

general-purpose, selective, differential, normal

318
Q

_______ media incorporate biochemical tests to
measure the presence or absence of enzymes
involved in catabolism of specific substrate(s)

A

Differential

319
Q

Infections associated with injuries are sampled to determine the ____ and ______ microbes in
the area.

A

relevant, irrelevant

320
Q

______ agar media is a common selective and
differential medium. Colonies of MRSA on this agar medium appear pink, whereas colonies of other bacteria appear blue

A

Chromogenic

321
Q

For anoxic incubation, agar plates are placed in a ______ ___, which is made anoxic

A

sealed jar

322
Q

What is a Disc diffusion test?

A

Method for assessing antimicrobial susceptibility
(susceptible or resistant). Specified agar medium is
inoculated (spread evenly) with culture of bacteria

323
Q

What is the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)?

A

Antibiotic dilutions made in broth or agar. Wells containing serial dilutions of antibiotics are inoculated with a standard amount of a test organism. Examine for inhibited growth. These methods are automated for most microorganisms. NOT N. gonorrhoeae.

324
Q

What is an Etest?

A

Non-diffusion-based antimicrobial susceptibility testing method that uses a preformed and predefined gradient of an antimicrobial agent immobilized on a plastic strip. MICs are ascertained. Expensive but handy

325
Q

? : Uses pathogen-specific RNA to make cDNA. Quantitative real time, and uses fluorescently labeled (SYBR Green) product. Almost immediate results DNA extracted from a bacterium monitored for expression of 16s rRNA and a kanamycin resistance marker using gene specific primers.

A

RT-PCR

326
Q

? : uses labeled hybridization primers that are incorporated into product of this reaction. Determines presence but not amount of pathogen DNA. After the cycle, each virus shows a
distinct DNA melting curve.

A

Qualitative PCR

327
Q

What is Nucleic acid hybridization?

A

Involves the bonding of a short, complementary nucleic acid strand (probe) to a target sequence. The probe is generally labeled with a radioisotope or fluorescent molecule, and the target sequence is typically bound to a nylon membrane or other solid surface

328
Q

What is serology?

A

The study of antigen–antibody reactions in vitro

329
Q

Serological reactions used for many diagnostic immunology tests which have the following 3 reactions: ?

A
  1. Neutralization
  2. Precipitation
  3. Agglutination
330
Q

The usefulness of a serological test for diagnostic purposes is dependent on the test’s specificity and sensitivity: test _______ is the probability of having a positive test when the patient IS infected, but test ________ is the probability of having a negative test if the patient is NOT infected

A

sensitivity, specificity

331
Q

________ use antibodies specific for pathogens or their products for in vitro tests designed to detect specific infectious agents

A

Immunoassays

332
Q

The ? is a quantitative measure of antibody level and is defined as the highest dilution (lowest concentration) of serum at which an antigen–antibody reaction is observed

A

antibody titer

333
Q

Serological reactions are used for many diagnostic
immunology tests and often use ?

A

monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)

334
Q

Not all pathogens elicit an immune response that can be measured – e.g. ?

A

N. gonorrhoeae

335
Q

An antibody binds to a specific region on an antigen called an _____.

A

epitope

336
Q

Multiple antibodies may bind to such an antigen – _____ antibodies. ______ antibodies bind to a single epitope

A

polyclonal, Monoclonal

337
Q

How many epitopes are on an antigen?

A

There are multiple epitopes on an antigen

338
Q

What is a precipitin reaction?

A

Interaction of a soluble Ag and Ab. A visible antigen-antibody reaction

339
Q

_____ reaction: as soluble antigen is slowly added to a solution containing a ______ amount of soluble antibody, the amount of precipitin _____ as the antibody-to antigen ratio approaches ______ and decreases once the proportion of antigen ?

A

Precipitin, constant, increases, equivalence, exceeds the optimal ratio

340
Q

What is agglutination?

A

The visible clumping of a particulate antigen when mixed with antibodies specific for the particulate antigens

341
Q

Agglutination tests are typically more sensitive
than ______ tests

A

precipitation

342
Q

Standardized agglutination tests are used to
identify ? and many pathogens and pathogen products

A

blood group antigens

343
Q

_____ agglutination: results when soluble antibody causes clumping due to interaction with an antigen that is an integral part of the surface of a cell or other insoluble particle

A

Direct

344
Q

_____ agglutination: used for the classification of antigens found on the surface of red blood cells

A

Direct

345
Q

_____ agglutination: the agglutination of soluble antigens or antibodies that have been adsorbed or chemically coupled to cells or insoluble particles

A

Passive

346
Q

_____ agglutination: reactions can be up to five times more sensitive than direct agglutination tests

A

Passive

347
Q

What is the serum for Blood Type O?

A

Anti A: no agglutination
Anti B: no agglutination

348
Q

What is the serum for Blood Type A?

A

Anti A: agglutination
Anti B: no agglutination

349
Q

What is the serum for Blood Type B?

A

Anti A: no agglutination
Anti B: agglutination

350
Q

What is the serum for Blood Type AB?

A

Anti A: agglutination
Anti B: agglutination

351
Q

_____ reactions can be up to 5X more sensitive than direct _____ tests

A

Indirect, agglutination

352
Q

________: the interaction of antibody with antigen to block or distort the antigen sufficiently to reduce or
eliminate its biological activity. Reactions can
occur in vivo or in vitro

A

Neutralization

353
Q

____ method: the antibody targeted against the surface antigen is covalently linked to the fluorescent dye

A

Direct

354
Q

_____ method: the presence of a nonfluorescent antibody on the surface of a cell is detected by use of a fluorescent antibody directed against the nonfluorescent antibody

A

Indirect

355
Q

What is immunofluorescence?

A

Antibodies can be chemically modified with fluorescent dyes to help detect antigens on intact cells

356
Q

What are the two common fluorescent dyes used in immunofluorescence?

A

Rhodamine B (red)
Fluorescein isothiocyanate (yellow-green)

357
Q

If the pathogen contains surface antigens reactive with the antibody, the pathogen cells _____

A

fluoresce

358
Q

Fluorescent antibodies can be applied ______ to
infected host tissues, allowing for rapid diagnosis

A

directly

359
Q

Fluorescent antibody assays are also used in the diagnosis of ?

A

noninfectious diseases (e.g., malignant cells)

360
Q

What is an Immunoblot (western blot)?

A

Electrophoresis of proteins, followed by transfer to a membrane and detection by addition of specific antibodies

361
Q

Immunoblot methods detect antibodies to specific antigens or the ?

A

antigens themselves

362
Q

What are the 3 different enzyme immunoassays (EIA)?

A
  1. Direct
  2. Indirect
  3. Sandwich
  4. Bonus - combination
363
Q

What is direct EIA?

A

Detection of antigen

364
Q

What is indirect EIA?

A

Detection of antibody

365
Q

What is sandwich EIA?

A

Detection of antibodies

366
Q

What is an Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)?

A

A technique to detect the presence of antigens in biological samples, relies on antibodies to detect a target antigen using highly specific antibody-antigen interactions.

367
Q

ELISAs are very _____

A

sensitive

368
Q

EIAs employ ______ bonded enzymes attached to antibody molecules

A

covalently

369
Q

? are like EIAs except that results can often be reported within minutes instead of hour

A

Rapid tests

370
Q

In rapid tests, the reagents are absorbed to support material, the body fluid is applied to the support ____ which contains a soluble antigen conjugated to a colored molecule (_______). Color forms when concentration of chromophore gets ____ enough.

A

matrix, chromophore, high

371
Q

What is epidemiology?

A

The study of the occurrence, distribution, and determinants of health and disease in a population

372
Q

What is Public Health?

A

The health of the population as a whole

373
Q

Epidemiologists rely on _________: the observation, recognition, and reporting of diseases as they occur

A

surveillance

374
Q

The _____ of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a given period of time

A

incidence

375
Q

The ______ of a disease is the total number of new and existing cases in a population in a given time.

A

prevalence

376
Q

A disease is an _____ when it occurs in a large number of people in a population at the same time

A

epidemic

377
Q

A _______ is widespread, usually worldwide

A

pandemic

378
Q

An ______ disease is constantly present in a population, usually at low incidences. Individuals that
are infected with a pathogen that causes endemic disease are called reservoirs. These reservoirs may be human or nonhuman animals.

A

endemic

379
Q

A disease _____ occurs when a number of cases of a disease are reported in a short period of time

A

outbreak

380
Q

Diseased individuals who show no or mild symptoms have _____ infections. These individuals are called _____

A

subclinical, carriers

381
Q

_____ infections are where the host and pathogen survive, but ____ infections are where the pathogen can be selective force

A

Chronic, acute

382
Q

What are the stages of diseases?

A
  1. Infection
  2. Incubation
  3. Acute
  4. Decline
  5. Convalescent
383
Q

What is the Infection stage?

A

The organism invades and colonizes the host

384
Q

What is the Incubation stage?

A

The time between infection and onset of symptoms called prodromal in graphs

385
Q

What is the Acute stage?

A

The disease is at its height (period of illness)

386
Q

What is the Decline stage?

A

Disease symptoms are subsiding

387
Q

What is the Convalescent stage?

A

Patient regains strength and returns to normal

388
Q

What is Mortality?

A

The incidence of death in a population

389
Q

What is Morbidity?

A

Refers to the incidence of disease, including fatal and nonfatal diseases

390
Q

What is Disability-Adjusted Life Year (DALY)?

A

Quantitatively measures disease burden in terms of lost years due to the disease, disability due to disease, and premature death

391
Q

Virulence of the parasite in host-to-host transmission diminishes, and resistance of the host _____

A

increases

392
Q

If a pathogen does not rely on host-to-host transmission, it may remain extremely _____

A

virulent

393
Q

What is herd immunity?

A

Defined as the resistance of a group to infection due to immunity of a high proportion of the group. If a high proportion of individuals are immune to an infection, then the whole population will be protected

394
Q

What is direct host-to-host transmission?

A

Infected individual transmits a disease directly to a susceptible host without the assistance of an intermediary

395
Q

What is indirect host-to-host transmission?

A

Occurs when transmission is facilitated by a living or nonliving agent

396
Q

Living agents are called _____, while nonliving agents are called _____

A

vectors, fomites

397
Q

What are the 3 modes of person to person transmission?

A
  1. Direct contact –sexual contact/handshakes
  2. Indirect contact – cups and other fomites
  3. Airborne droplet – sneeze/cough/talk
398
Q

What are the 4 modes of vehicle transmission?

A
  1. Waterborne
  2. Foodborne
  3. Airborne - fungal spores
  4. Soilborne - wound contamination
399
Q

What are the 3 main modes of transmission?

A
  1. Person-to-person
  2. Vehicle
  3. Vector
400
Q

What is the main mode of vector transmission?

A

Arthropods/insects

401
Q

What is an example of indirect contact mode of transmission?

A

Influenza, common cold

402
Q

What is an example of airborne droplet mode of transmission?

A

influenza, TB

403
Q

What is an example of the waterborne mode of transmission?

A

cholera

404
Q

What is an example of the foodborne mode of transmission?

A

salmonellosis, staph food poisoning

405
Q

What is an example of the airborne - fungal spores mode of transmission?

A

histoplasmosis

406
Q

What is an example of the soilborne - wound contamination mode of transmission?

A

tetanus

407
Q

What is an example of the arthropods/insects mode of transmission?

A

typhus, lyme disease, malaria

408
Q

______ are sites in which infectious agents remain viable and from which individuals can become infected

A

Reservoirs

409
Q

_____ is any disease that primarily infects animals but is occasionally transmitted to humans

A

Zoonosis

410
Q

Major epidemics are usually classified as ? epidemics, which usually arises from contamination of water or food

A

common-source or host-to-host,

411
Q

In a host-to-host epidemic, the disease shows a slow, progressive rise and a _____ decline

A

gradual

412
Q

A propagated epidemic is where one or more of the first wave of cases serves as a source of infection for ______ cases and those subsequent cases, in turn, serve as sources for later cases. The shape of the curve usually contains a series of ?, which are one incubation apart in which an increasingly large number of cases caused by person-to-person contact, until the pool of susceptible is exhausted or control measures are implemented

A

subsequent, successively larger peaks

413
Q

What is the basic reproduction number (R0)?

A

The R0 is the number of expected secondary cases of a given disease from each single case. The mathematical model assumes an entirely susceptible population. Different infectious diseases have
different R0

414
Q

Basic Reproduction Number (R0) and Herd Immunity Necessary for ?

A

Community Protection From Selected Infectious Diseases

415
Q

Gonorrhea, chlamydia and syphilis are considered ______ diseases

A

notifiable

416
Q

_______ ______ can be resistant to traditional and currently recommended antibiotics used for treatment. There is no vaccine; obligate human pathogen

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

417
Q

Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which is an obligate human pathogen; Gram-_____ _______

A

negative, diplococcus

418
Q

What are the 3 symptoms of Gonorrhea in females?

A
  1. Characterized by a mild vaginitis that often goes unnoticed
  2. Can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, ectopic pregnancy
  3. Can be passed from mother to child; was a leading cause of blindness
419
Q

What are the 3 symptoms of Gonorrhea in males?

A
  1. Urethral discharge
  2. Painful infection of the urethral canal
  3. Rare complications can arise
420
Q

In gonorrhea infections, both sexes may have ______ and _____ infections

A

pharyngeal, rectal

421
Q

What are the 3 steps in the diagnosis of N. gonorrhoeae?

A
  1. Microscopy - Gram negative diplococci in PMNL
  2. Culture - Growth on Thayer Martin medium, oxidase positive, other biochemical tests
  3. Nucleic acid amplification tests
422
Q

_____ can be caused by Treponema pallidum and may be transmitted with other STIs

A

Syphilis

423
Q

T. pallidum can be transmitted from an infected woman to the fetus during pregnancy, causing ?

A

Congenital syphilis

424
Q

Having syphilis can increase chances of acquiring an HIV infection by __-__x and HIV-positive people with syphilis can increase the risk of transmitting the virus.

A

3-5

425
Q

Syphilis can also progress more quickly and be more difficult to treat in people who are HIV-_____.

A

positive

426
Q

There are four stages of syphilis: ?

A

Primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary

427
Q

What is the treatment of syphilis?

A

penicillin

428
Q

What is considered early and late syphilis?

A

Early: <1 year
Late: >1 year

429
Q

What are the symptoms in primary syphilis?

A

Chancres, which are painless ulcers

430
Q

What are the symptoms in secondary syphilis?

A

Rash, if any. Usually from 1-12 months after the chancres appear, the rash will appear

431
Q

What are the symptoms in latent syphilis?

A

Irreversible damage to the CNS and cardiovascular system, and there are no signs or symptoms. Typically cannot be transmitted at this point but a mother can pass it to her unborn child

432
Q

What are the symptoms in tertiary syphilis?

A

Causes tissue and organ damage 10-20 years after the beginning of latent stage

433
Q

______ cannot be cultivated on artificial media, but can be grown in rabbit testes

A

syphilis

434
Q

You can identify _____ from lesions - microscopy, direct fluorescent antibody test, nucleic acid
amplification

A

syphilis

435
Q

Blood tests such as agglutination assays, EIAs and other formats are also used in identifying _____

A

syphilis

436
Q

In identifying ______, a number of different tests which look for anti-treponemal antibodies as well as non-treponemal antibodies (detect IgG and IgM in patients which react with a mixture of cardiolipin, lecithin and cholesteral. These materials are probably released by host cells early in infection. Are screening tests and become positive after 6 weeks)

A

syphilis

437
Q

_____ is caused by C. trachomatis, it is the most prevalent STI worldwide

A

Chlamydia

438
Q

_____ causes: Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) and Lymphgranuloma venereum (LGV)

A

Chlamydia

439
Q

? is nonmotile, gram negative, obligate intracellular pathogen and 0.3-1 µm in diameter

A

C. trachomatis

440
Q

_____ has a unique and complex biphasic life cycle; infectious during only one life stage

A

Chlamydia

441
Q

In Chlamydia, the ______ body form adapted for extracellular survival; ______ body form involved in intracellular growth and replication

A

elementary, reticulate

442
Q

In C. trachomatis, there are __ serovars; __ serovars cause trachoma, __ serovars cause lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

A

18, 4, 5

443
Q

What is a serovar?

A

Distinct variation within a species of bacteria or virus or among immune cells of different individuals.

444
Q

Is trachoma or lymphogranuloma a major cause of blindness?

A

Trachoma

445
Q

Order these statements in accordance to the life cycle of chlamydia:
1. Multiplication of reticulate bodies
2. Elementary body attacks host cell
3.Conversion to reticulate body
4. Conversion to elementary bodies
5. Phagocytosis of elementary body
6. Release of elementary bodies

A

2, 5, 3, 1, 4, 6

446
Q

Symptoms of a _____ infection include inflammation of the reproductive tract, urethritis,
proctitis, and epididymitis in men, while urethritis, endometritis, and cervicitis in women can lead to
cervical cancer

A

chlamydia

447
Q

Symptoms of a _____ infections may be asymptomatic especially in women

A

chlamydia

448
Q

An untreated infection of _______ can result in long-term complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility in women, epididymitis and possible infertility in men and reactive arthritis (Reiter’s syndrome) in both men and women.

A

chlamydia

449
Q

Infection from _____ can be passed to newborns during childbirth resulting in conjunctivitis or pneumonia, and may result in pregnancy complications

A

chlamydia

450
Q

What is the diagnosis process of C. trachomatis?

A

NAATs (Nucleic acid amplification tests) recommended;
Now combined with gonorrhea tests
Formerly tissue cultures, antigen detection assays, direct immunofluorescence assays, EIA
Some POC tests

451
Q

What is the treatment for C. trachomatis?

A

Antibiotics: tetracycline, azithromycin.
No resistance detected resulting in treatment failure

452
Q

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the causative agent for ____

A

AIDS

453
Q

HIV is divided into two types:

A

HIV-1 is the more virulent type
HIV-2 is less virulent and causes a milder, AIDS-like disease

454
Q

What is HIV-1?

A

The more virulent type

455
Q

What is HIV-2?

A

Less virulent and causes a milder, AIDS-like disease

456
Q

_______ infections are common in AIDS patients, with the most common is ________ caused by the protist Pneumocystis jiroveci

A

Opportunistic, pneumonia

457
Q

A frequent non-microbial disease in AIDS patients is ? , an atypical cancer caused by co-infection of HIV and herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

458
Q

What are the 4 opportunistic pathogens associated with HIV/AIDS?

A

Protists, fungi, bacteria, and viruses

459
Q

What is the general structure of a Retrovirus?

A

Spherical, consisting of an internal protein core surrounded by an envelope of glycoproteins embedded in a lipid bilayer. The core contains several copies of reverse transcriptase bound to two identical single-stranded RNA molecules.

460
Q

HIV infects cells that contain the ___ cell surface protein. Most commonly infected are _____ and ?. HIV also interacts with co-receptors on _____ cells

A

CD4, macrophages, T-helper cells, target

461
Q

Order these statements in accordance to the infection of a CD4 target cell (Macrophage) with HIV:
1. The nucleocapsid is inserted into the host cell, beginning the viral infection
2. Interaction of the virus with a receptor-coreceptor pair on the host cell
3. HIV gp120 protein binds CD4 receptor and CCR5 receptor
4. The viral envelope and host membrane coalesce

A

3, 2, 4, 1

462
Q

HIV infection does not immediately ___ the host cell, but results in progressive ____ in CD4 cells. As the number of CD4 cells declines, _____ production falls, leading to reduction of the ?

A

kill, decline, cytokine, immune response

463
Q

What are the 4 steps in diagnosis HIV?

A
  1. ELISA
  2. Western Blot
  3. qPCR
  4. Point of Care tests
464
Q

What are the 4 classes of drugs that delay the symptoms of AIDS and prolong the life of those infected with HIV?

A
  1. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)
  2. Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI)
  3. Protease inhibitors (PI)
  4. Integrase inhibitors (INSTI)
465
Q

Is there an effective vaccine for HIV?

A

No

466
Q

What is the main kind of chemotherapeutic drugs for HIV?

A

Antiretrovirales

467
Q

? : infects the epithelial cells around the mouth and lips causing cold sores and may occasionally affect other body sites

A

Herpes simplex 1 virus (HSV-1)

468
Q

There are 2 types of herpes simplex virus: ?

A

1 - above the waist
2 - below the waist

469
Q

_____ is spread via direct contact or through
saliva

A

HSV

470
Q

_____ lesions heal without treatment in 2 to 3
weeks

A

HSV

471
Q

Being infected with ____ increases risk of HIV transmission

A

HSV

472
Q

? infections are associated primarily with anogenital region, and it causes painful blisters on penis of male and cervix, vulva, or vagina of females

A

Herpes simplex 2 virus (HSV-2)

473
Q

Herpes simplex 2 virus (HSV-2) is typically transmitted through sexual contact and most easily transmitted when ?

A

active blisters are present

474
Q

Genital herpes (Herpes simplex 2 virus (HSV-2))are presently _____, however, a limited number of drugs (guanine analogue acyclovir) are successful in controlling the infectious blister stage and inhibit replication of the virus

A

incurable

475
Q

What is the diagnosis for primary genital herpes?

A

If a lab test is used may comprise cytological examination of cells by staining or direct immunofluorescence; viral antigen detection tests (EIA)

476
Q

What is the diagnosis for trichomoniasis?

A

Direct microscopic observation, cell culture, immunological techniques, PCR assay

477
Q

What is the treatment for trichomoniasis?

A

Metronidazole can be administered orally or
intravenously, with cure rates of 85-95%

478
Q

________ is caused by the protist Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Trichomoniasis

479
Q

_______ is generally transmitted by sexual contact; may be transmitted by a contaminated toilet seats, paper towels, etc

A

Trichomoniasis

480
Q

_________ infection has been associated with an
increased risk of human immunodeficiency syndrome in both sexes

A

Trichomoniasis

481
Q

______ is typically asymptomatic in males but for females, infections are characterized by vaginal discharge, vaginitis, and painful urination

A

Trichomoniasis

482
Q

? is a small icosahedral non-enveloped DS DNA virus, and can infect different parts of the body

A

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

483
Q

There are over 100 types of ____; some are primarily sexually transmitted causing anal and genital warts. Other types can lead to more serious consequences such as cervical, penile and anal cancers. Cancer a rare outcome of this common genital infection

A

HPV

484
Q

Most ___ infections occur without any symptoms and go away without treatment. However, in some people the infections can persist

A

HPV

485
Q

Immunization prior to sexual debut is effective in protecting against most sexually transmitted ___ infections

A

HPV

486
Q

___ testing relies on molecular methods, and cannot be cultured using conventional tissue culture methods

A

HPV,

487
Q

How many HPV vaccines are available in Canada?

A

2

488
Q

Most pathogens survive poorly in air, thus, are effectively transmitted only over ____ distances

A

short

489
Q

Respiratory infections colonize the respiratory tract at ____ levels, many are Gram _____ organisms, and are considered viruses

A

different, positive

490
Q

Genus ______ is gram positive; phylum Firmicute. They generally grow in chains or pairs. Classified based on hemolytic properties

A

Streptococcus

491
Q

_______ respiratory infections caused by S. pneumoniae or S. pyogenes are usually initiated due to a weakening of ?, as these organisms are normally found in the respiratory tract

A

Streptococcal, host defenses

492
Q

Symptoms of _______ pharyngitis are sore throat, enlarged tonsils, mild fever, and general malaise

A

streptococcal

493
Q

Prompt treatment is essential because encapsulated strains of S. pneumoniae are extremely invasive and resist _______

A

phagocytosis

494
Q

_____ infections by either organism lead to serious complications (scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, bone infections, toxic shock syndrome, etc.)

A

Systemic

495
Q

________ pneumoniae grow in pairs or short chains and causes pneumonia. Encapsulated strains are pathogenic and its virulence factor is its capsule

A

Streptococcus

496
Q

What is the treatment for Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Vaccines available (mix of 23 capsular polysaccharides)
Treatment with penicillin. High percent resistant to
this antibiotic

497
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes is in what group of streptococcus?

A

Group A; GAS

498
Q

Streptococcus ______ is commonly found in low
numbers in the upper respiratory tract of healthy
individuals. Causes β hemolysis and pus-forming wounds

A

pyogenes

499
Q

Streptococcus ____ is the causative agent of: “strep throat” – streptococcal pharyngitis; infections of the middle ear, mammary glands; infections of
superficial layers of skin - impetigo; acute skin infections – erysipelas; infections occur if host defenses are weakened or a new, highly virulent strain is introduced

A

pyogenes

500
Q

? can cause sudden and severe invasive, systemic infections: cellulitis (subcutaneous skin
infection), necrotizing fasciitis (“flesh-eating
bacteria”), and pneumonia. It also can cause toxic shock, and invasive infections that are less common

A

S. pyogenes

501
Q

___ may carry a lysogenic bacteriophage that encodes ________ ______ exotoxins (Spe A, B, C and F) that act as superantigens and are responsible for symptoms of toxic shock syndrome and scarlet fever (M antigen included as part of superantigen complex for toxic shock). Untreated or insufficiently treated infections can lead to other diseases such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis

A

GAS, streptococcal pyrogenic

502
Q

What is the diagnosis and treatment of Streptococcal Diseases?

A

Culture on blood agar followed by serology and other biochemical tests; antigen detection – rapid tests; and both GAS and S. pneumoniae treatable with
antibiotics

503
Q

________ is a severe respiratory disease that typically infects children, and is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, a bacterium that forms irregular rods during growth in the phylum: Actinobacteria

A

Diphtheria

504
Q

? spreads by airborne droplets; enters body by respiratory route, it is preventable (vaccine) and treatable, and both previous infection or immunization provides resistance

A

C. diphtheriae

505
Q

? : caused by the Gram-positive, aerobic, nonmotile bacterium which enters the body via the
respiratory route, lodging in the throat and tonsils

A

Diphtheria

506
Q

Inflammatory response of throat tissues to C. diphtheriae results in a characteristic lesion called a
________, which may block the air passage and result in death

A

pseudomembrane

507
Q

Some C. diphtheriae strains are lysogenized by bacteriophage β and produce a powerful exotoxin (______ toxin, which is an AB toxin and inhibits protein synthesis) but is vaccine preventable

A

diphtheria

508
Q

Diphtheria toxin causes ? and ?

A

tissue death and the appearance of the
pseudomembrane in the patient’s throat

509
Q

C. diphtheriae must be isolated from the _____; it is grown on ? with tellurite which inhibits other pathogens

A

throat, Blood agar

510
Q

How do people die from diphtheria?

A

Death due to a combination of partial suffocation by the pseudomembrane and tissue destruction

511
Q

How do we treat diphtheria?

A

Treatment includes antibiotics (penicillin, erythromycin, gentamicin)

512
Q

? is an acute, highly infectious respiratory disease caused by Gram-negative, aerobic
coccobacillus B. pertussis in the phylum Proteobacteria

A

Pertussis (Whooping Cough)

513
Q

______ is a recurrent, violent cough, and produces pertussis exotoxin (AB toxin) after attaching top
cells of upper respiratory tract. It then induces cAMP, and produces an _______. But it can be prevented by _______

A

Pertussis, endotoxin, immunization

514
Q

Pertussis is more infectious than _______; a
higher percentage of vaccinated individuals is
required to achieve herd immunity.

A

diphtheria

515
Q

What is the diagnosis and treatment of pertussis?

A

Diagnosis: fluorescent antibody staining of nasopharyngeal swab specimen and a culture of the organism
Treatment: vaccination soon after birth – DTaP vaccine, and antibiotics (ampicillin, tetracycline,
erythromycin)

516
Q

All mycobacteria are ? due to the waxy mycolic acid content of their cell walls

A

acid-fast

517
Q

_________ is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the phylum: Actinobacteria

A

Tuberculosis

518
Q

? is caused by Mycobacterium leprae

A

Hansen’s disease (leprosy)

519
Q

______ is transmitted by airborne droplets and is common co-infection with HIV

A

tuberculosis

520
Q

_______ is classified as a primary (initial) infection or post-primary infection (reinfection)

A

Tuberculosis

521
Q

What is a Primary Infection of tuberculosis?

A

Hypersensitizes the patient to the bacteria and alters the individual’s response to subsequent exposures. Hypersensitivity measured by a diagnostic skin test (tuberculin test)

522
Q

What is a Postprimary Infection of tuberculosis?

A

Reinfection from bacteria dormant in lung

523
Q

Chronic ______ often results in a gradual spread of tubercular lesions in the lungs. Aggregates of
activated macrophages

A

tuberculosis

524
Q

The treatment of ______ includes: antimicrobial therapy with isoniazid and other antibiotics, usually multiple (e.g. rifampin). It usually requires a 9-month
regimen, and affects the synthesis of mycolic acid in mycobacteria

A

tuberculosis

525
Q

Most serious form of ? is characterized by folded, bulblike lesions on the body. Pathogenicity caused by combination of delayed hypersensitivity and the
invasiveness of the organism. Transmission by both direct contact and respiratory routes. Incubation times vary from several weeks to years

A

Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease)

526
Q

_______: inflammation of the meninges, membranes that line the central nervous system, especially the spinal cord and brain. Can be caused by viral, bacterial, fungal, or protist infections

A

Meningitis

527
Q

_______ ______, in the phylum proteobacteria, it is gram-negative, nonsporulating, obligately aerobic, oxidase-positive, encapsulated diplococcus

A

Neisseria meningitides

528
Q

What is the diagnosis of Neisseria meningitides?

A

Like N. gonorrhoeae –Thayer Martin medium

529
Q

Neisseria meningitides causes one type of infectious bacterial meningitis and a related infection, _________: a condition characterized by intravascular coagulation and tissue destruction, shock, and
death in over 10 percent of cases

A

meningococcemia

530
Q

_________ meningitis is typically via airborne routes, mortality can be high. Treatment: penicillin iv

A

Meningococcal

531
Q

What is the immune reactant of Type I hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

532
Q

What is the immune reactant of Type II hypersensitivity?

A

IgG or IgM

533
Q

What is the immune reactant of Type III hypersensitivity?

A

IgG and IgM

534
Q

What is the immune reactant of Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

T cells

535
Q

What is the antigen form of Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Soluble antigen

536
Q

What is the antigen form of Type II hypersensitivity?

A

Cell-bound antigen

537
Q

What is the antigen form of Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Soluble antigen

538
Q

What is the antigen form of Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Soluble or cell-bound antigen

539
Q

______ __ hypersensitivity: allergen-specific IgE antibodies bind to mast cells via their Fc receptor. When the specific allergen binds to the IgE, cross-linking of IgE induces degranulation of mast cells

A

Type I

540
Q

______ __ hypersensitivity: IgM or IgG antibody binds to cellular antigen, leading to complement activation and cell lysis. IgG can also mediate ADCC with cytotoxic T cells, natural killer cells, macrophages, and neutrophils

A

Type II

541
Q

______ __ hypersensitivity: antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in tissues. Complement activation provides inflammatory mediators and recruits neutrophils. Enzyme released from neutrophils damage tissue

A

Type III

542
Q

______ __ hypersensitivity: TH1 cells secrete cytokines, which activate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells

A

Type IV

543
Q

______ __ hypersensitivity: local and systemic anaphylaxis, seasonal hay fever, food allergies, and drug allergies

A

Type I

544
Q

______ __ hypersensitivity: red blood cell destruction after transfusion with mismatched blood types or during hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Type II

545
Q

______ __ hypersensitivity: post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Type III

546
Q

______ __ hypersensitivity: contact dermatitis, type I diabetes mellitus, and multiple sclerosis

A

Type IV

547
Q

_____ anaphylaxis: reaction only at side where allergen enters the body

A

Localized (atopic)

548
Q

______ anaphylaxis: causes a reaction in entire body, massive release of histamine, and causes anaphylactic shock

A

Generalized (systemic)

549
Q

What is the treatment for Atopic &/or mild systemic reactions (esp. respiratory allergies)?

A

Anti-histamines
Steroids and bronchodilators: reduce inflammation and open airways
Drugs targeting mast cells: prevent degranulation, or IgE binding

550
Q

What is the treatment for Anaphylactic shock?

A

Epinephrine: relax smooth muscles, reduce vascular permeability

551
Q

What are superantigens?

A

Proteins that over activate T cells. Mimicking normal activation and activate indiscriminately

BMSC 210 (3 decks)

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