Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is baby biographies?

A

detailed, systematic observations of individual children written by many scientists
->info in this was often subjective but it paved the way for objective analytic research

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2
Q

what is applied developmental research?

A

branch of child-development research

->uses developmental research to promote healthy, optimal development, particularly for vulnerable children and seniors

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3
Q

what two events set the stage for the creation of child development science?

A
  1. industrial revolution (as children entered the workforce)
  2. publication of charles darwin’s theory of evolution
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4
Q

name the foundational theories of child development

A
  1. the biological perspective
  2. the psychodynamic perspective
  3. the learning perspective
  4. the cognitive developmental perspective
  5. the contextual perspective
    * good summary of these on page 18 of textbook
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5
Q

describe the biological perspective and its two associated theories

A

intellectual and personality development as well as physical and motor development is rooted in biology
1. maturational theory: child development reflects a specific and prearranged scheme or plan within the body (development is a natural unfolding of biology’s plan; experience matters little)
->this theory was eventually discarded as it had little to say about the impact of environment on children’s development
2. Ethological theory: views development from an evolutionary perspective
-behaviours in this theory are inherited and are
adaptive and have survival value (crying, grasping, clinging elicit caregiving from adults)
-includes a critical period in development where specific learning takes place (ex. imprinting or creating an emotional bond with the mother, can only happen within 24 hours of hatching)

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6
Q

Describe the psychodynamic perspective

A

=the oldest scientific perspective on child development, originating in the work of Sigmund Freud

  • Freud was convinced that early experiences establish patterns that endure throughout a persons life
  • using his patients case histories he created the first psychodynamic theory which holds that development is largely determined by how well people resolve certain conflicts at different ages
  • The role of conflict is evident in Freuds descriptions of the 3 primary components of personality. the “id” is a reservoir of primary instincts and drives, the *ego is the practical, rational core component of personality and is what resolves conflicts. the superego is the “moral agent” in the child’s personality where they begin to internalize adult standards of right and wrong.
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7
Q

Describe Freud’s five psychosexual stages of personality development

A
  • as the sex instinct matures, the focus shifts to a different area of the body
    1. Oral (birth-1year): babies put everything in their mouth
    2. Anal (1-3years): toilet training
    3. Phallic (3-6years): fascinated with their own genitals
    4. Latency (6-11years): not much happening in this phase
    5. Genital (12+years): interested also in others genitals
  • he believed that conflicts or inappropriate parental response at any stage of development could lead to fixations, where mental energies are occupied in activities reminiscent of that stage
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8
Q

describe the 8 stage Psychosocial theory (neo-Freudian theory) of development by Erik Erikson (1950)

A

development comprises a sequence of stages, each defined by a unique life crisis or challenge (conflict between two opposing tendencies)

  • the name of each of the 8 stages reflects the challenge that individuals face at a particular age
  • earlier stages provide the foundation for the later stages
  • the “ego” as an active participant in development and personality is shaped through social/cultural conflicts
  • how the individual resolves the crisis shapes personality
  1. first year -> Basic trust vs. mistrust (challenge= to develop a sense that the world is a safe, “good place”)
  2. 1-3years -> Autonomy vs. shame and doubt (challenge = to realize that one is an independent person who can make decisions)
  3. 3-6years -> Initiative vs. guilt (challenge= to develop a willingness to try new things and to handle failure)
  4. 6-12years -> Industry vs. Inferiority (challenge= to learn basic skills and to work with others)
  5. 12-20years -> Identity vs. Identity/role confusion (challenge= to develop a lasting, integrated sense of self)
    + 3 more in adulthood
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9
Q

describe the learning perspective

A

endorse John Locke’s view that the infant’s mind is a blank slate on which experience writes. john watson applied this approach to child development and argued that learning determines what children will be (experience was all that mattered in determining the course of development)

  • focus on observable behaviour, not speculation about the unconscious
  • Watson applied classical conditioning procedures to humans/babies to condition fear (ie little Albert)
  • BF Skinner studied operant conditioning in which the consequences of a behaviour determine whether that behaviour is repeated in the future (influential consequences = reinforcement and punishment)

Social Cognitive theory (developed by Albert Bandura-1977): Learning by observing others (models), not dependent on reinforcement
-proposed reciprocal determinism (environment and child both influence each other)

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10
Q

describe the cognitive-development perspective

A

focuses on how children think and on how their thinking changes as they grow (the mental aspect of development)
-as children try and comprehend their surroundings, they create theories about the physical and social world
-children go through 4 distinct stages in cognitive development with each stage representing a fundamental change in how children understand and organize their environment and each stage is characterized by more sophisticated types of reasoning
Piaget’s stages of cognitive development:
stage 1: Sensorimotor -> birth-2 (infants knowledge of the world is based on senses and motor skills, by the end of period, infant uses mental representations)
stage 2: Preoperational -> 2-7 (learns how to use symbols such as words and numbers, to represent aspects of the world, but relates to the world only through their perspective)
stage 3: Concrete Operations -> 7-11 (understands and applies logical operations to experiences; provided they are focused on the here and now)
stage 4: formal operations -> 11+ (thinks abstractly, speculates on hypothetical situations, and reasons deductively about what may be possible

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11
Q

describe the Contextual perspective

A

Vygotsky emphasized cultural context in child development. he focused on ways that adults convey beliefs, customs, and skills of their culture to children (sociocultural (cognitive) theory) = cognitive development happens in a social context
ZPD= Zone of proximal development (difference between what a child can do alone and what a child can do with help)
-includes Bronfenbrenner’s theory of ecological systems

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12
Q

Bronfenbrenner’s theory of ecological systems (part of the Contextual perspective)

A
  • detailed characteristics of various environmental influences on development
  • views the child as being embedded in a series of interacting systems:
    1. microsystem= consists of the people and objects in an individual’s immediate environment (ie parents/close family)*strongly influence development
    2. mesosystem= are connected microsystems (one happens in one microsystem, is likely to influence others)
    3. exosystem= refers to social settings that a person may not experience first-hand but that still influence development (ex. a mother may pay more attention to her child when her work is going well)
    4. macrosystem= the subcultures and cultures in which the microsystem, mesosystem and exosystem are embedded (a mother, her workplace, her child and the child’s school are part of a larger cultural setting)
    5. chronosystem= these dimensions change over time in a system known as the chronosystem (they are not static systems but are always in flux)
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13
Q

what is the continuity-versus discontinuity issue?

A

continuity- believing that development is a continuous process (a cheerful 5 year old remains outgoing and friendly throughout their life) *once a child begins down a developmental path, they stay on that path throughout life.

  • This issue is about the “relatedness” of development. are early aspects of development consistently related to later aspects?
  • neither view is accurate, development is not perfectly predictable but early development is related to later development but not perfectly
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14
Q

what is development ?

A

systematic continuities and changes in an individual over the course of life
*we focus on the scientific basis of knowledge about development

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15
Q

what are the big 3 central issues regarding development ?

A
  1. continuous or discontinuous
  2. nature vs nurture (genetic vs. environment)
  3. passive vs. active
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16
Q

what are the three main domains of development that we will focus on?

A

physical, emotional/social and cognitive

*development in different domains is connected

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17
Q

what derives development?

A

Maturation: Hereditary influences on aging process
Learning: Change in behaviour due to experience

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18
Q

what are the goals of developmental psychology?

A
  • > Describe
  • > Explain
  • > Optimize
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19
Q

describe the active-passive issue of development

A

are children simply at the mercy of their environment/genetic influence (passive child) or do children actively influence/contribute to their own development through their unique individual characteristics (active child)

  • the passive view corresponds to Locke’s blank slate on which experience writes; the active view corresponds to Rousseau’s view of development as a natural unfolding that takes place within the child
  • parent/child relationship is bidirectional *they both influence each other
  • therefore, children do influence their own development
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20
Q

child development researchers follow the scientific method to test hypotheses which involves several steps; describe the scientific method steps

A
  • > identify a question to be answered or a phenomenon to be understood
  • > Form a hypothesis (based on theory) that is a tentative answer to the question or a tentative explanation of the phenomenon
  • > select a method to collect data that can be used to evaluate the hypothesis
  • > remain objective and evaluate the hypothesis
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21
Q

what is a theory?

A

an organized set of ideas designed to describe and explain an existing set of observations; this allows one to make predictions about development

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22
Q

what is a hypothesis

A

a theoretical prediction about some aspect of experience

->theory derives research

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23
Q

describe normative vs ideographic development

A

normative= developmental pattern that describe the majority of species
ideographic- accounts for individual differences or variation in development

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24
Q

what is resiliency in terms of development?

A

the ability to adopt effectively in the force of threats to development
->linked to genetic traits, parental relationships, social network/community

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25
Q

what are environmental “threats” in development?

A

associated with statistical probabilities of negative outcomes (ex. poverty, divorce, drug use/abuse, family violence, etc.)

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26
Q

define systematic observation

A

research method that involves watching children and carefully recording what they do or say
there are to forms:
1. naturalistic- children are observed as they behave spontaneously in a real life situation
-beforehand researchers must decide which variables to record
2. structured- the researcher creates a setting likely to elicit the behaviour of interest (ex. gets kids to play a game may create competition)
-good for studying behaviours that are difficult to study naturally

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27
Q

define self reports

A

research method that includes children’s own responses to questions about the topic of interest

  • take the place of interviews and questionnaires
  • may use the clinical method (flowchart sequence, if child does A, then go to B)
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28
Q

what is construct validity ?

A

if a test measures the theoretical construct it is supposed to be measuring

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29
Q

what is research design and what are the two main forms?

A

how the study is set up to test the hypothesis (an overall conceptual approach)
-child development researchers usually use one of two designs: correlational (more common for developmental research) or experimental studies

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30
Q

describe correlational studies

A

investigators look at relations between variables as they exist naturally in the world. measures 2 or more variables and looks at how they are related

  • results expressed as a correlation coefficient (r), which stands for the direction and strength of a relation between two variables
  • correlations can range from -1.0 to +1.0
  • when r =0, two variables are completely unrelated
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31
Q

Describe experimental studies

A

researchers introduce a manipulation or change in the environment and measures the effect of that change (manipulation to test)

  • factor that is varied is called the independent variable
  • behaviour that is measured is called the dependent variable
  • allows for statements of causality
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32
Q

what are quasi-experimental designs?

A

researcher manipulates independent variables in a natural setting so that the results are more likely to be representative of behaviour in real world settings (kids in an orphanage dont get much human interaction- you couldn’t create this experience ethically but can be studied naturally)

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33
Q

longitudinal design

A

the same individuals are observed or tested repeatedly at different points in their lives

  • less confounds but harder to do (more time)
  • children may drop out or get good at the tests due to practice
  • cohort effect (dev. change may be specific to a generation)
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34
Q

microgenetic study

A

special type of longitudinal study where children are tested repeatedly over a span of days or weeks, typically with the aim of observing changes directly as it occurs

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35
Q

cross-sectional design

A

dev. changes are identified by testing children of different ages at one particular point in their development
- one task, multiple age groups participate (is there a difference b/w age groups?)

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36
Q

longitudinal-sequential design

A
  • combination of cross-sectional and longitudinal
  • participants of different ages selected at outset (like cross-sectional)
  • all participants observed repeatedly for a period of time (like longitudinal)
37
Q

what is dizygotic ?

A

fraternal twins: release and fertilization of 2 ova

38
Q

how are identical twins made?

A

zygote (fertilized egg) separates into two (identical) clusters of cells

  • approx. 1 out of 300-350 births
  • fertility drugs/in vitro fertilization linked to what type of twins/multiple births?
39
Q

what is the most common result of chromosomal abnormality?

A

natural termination of pregnancy (non-viable pregnancy)

-but resiliency to issues with the 23rd or 21st pair

40
Q

describe trisomy 21 and it’s describing features

A

extra 21st chromosome = trisomy 21 (down syndrome)

  • > more chance when the mother is older (over 35 = high risk pregnancy)
  • intellectual disability, communication disorder, protruding tongue, distinct physical characteristics
41
Q

describe turners syndrome

A

= X_
Leads to decrease in secondary sexual characteristics
-> smaller breasts, hips, things not directly needed for reproduction
-> lower spatial skills and a webbed neck, sterile

42
Q

describe Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

= XXY
leads to a male with female characteristics (breast development, hips)
-infertility, decreased verbal skills

43
Q

describe supermale syndrome

A

= XYY or XYYY

leads to acne, big feet/teeth

44
Q

what is amniocentesis

A

collection of amniotic fluid aided with ultrasound imaging

-also visual markers (distance between eyes; shape of nose) may be detectable

45
Q

what is chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

A

alternative to amniocentesis

  • 8-9th week of pregnancy
  • sample obtained through catheter
  • faster results and done earlier than amniocentesis (but risk of miscarriage is greater)
46
Q

what are concordance rates (what if the data is continuous?)

A

-way to estimate the contribution of genes vs. the environment
a term that is used in statistics for the percentage or rate of probability that two people with shared genes will develop the same organic disease or trait
-rates need yes/no/binary data. but what if it is continuous? then the correlation coefficient r is used to calculate (direction/strength of relation) the heritability coefficient

47
Q

what is the heritability coefficient ?

A

heritability coefficient = H
it is the amount of variation that is attributed to genes
H= r (identical twins) - r (fraternal twins) x2

48
Q

what about the effect of the environment on a trait? what are the two aspects of the environment to consider?

A

shared environmental influences: means anything that two people(twins) have in common – usually parents, siblings, household, and neighbourhood
Unique (Non-shared) environment influences: experiences unique to an individual; not shared with other members of family in the same environment
-> NSE = 1-r(Identical twins reared together)
-> SE = r(Identical twins reared together) - H

49
Q

what is niche picking

A

tendency to actively choose environment that complements our genetic makeup
-especially in adolescence
-practice furthers skills
so development: genetics X environment

50
Q

what are the reasons not to have children?

A

against:

  1. freedom
  2. costly
  3. family/career conflict
  4. anxiety/worry
51
Q

what are the three phases of prenatal development

A
  1. germinal/period of zygote (0-2 weeks)
  2. embryonic (2 weeks-2 months)
  3. fetal (2 months+)
52
Q

describe the germinal stage of prenatal development

A

period of zygote: occurs first two weeks after conception , starts with single cell called zygote which then undergoes repeated mitosis/cell division and becomes a mass of cells

  • blastocyst= ball shaped structure formed within 4 days (approx. 100 cells)
  • implantation= blastocyst burrows into uterine lining
  • amnion membrane is formed/fills with amniotic fluid(protection)
  • chorion membrane develops- becomes lining of placenta
  • umbilical cord develops- attaches placenta to the developing baby
53
Q

describe the embryonic stage of prenatal development

A

from 2 weeks to end of second month

  • cell mass = embryo
  • cell differentiation; 3 layers of cells: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
  • stage is marked by rapid growth and cell specification
  • ectoderm-> forms neural tube by 1 month
  • in month 2: becomes much more “human like” (or alian) and end up about 2.5cm
54
Q

describe the fetal stage of prenatal development before the 3rd trimester

A

“growth and finishing” - from 2 months to birth

  • embryo now = fetus
  • rapid body growth; bones, muscles and tissue
  • 2 months= 2.5cm, 3 month=7.5cm, 6 month=35cm
  • sexual development: Y chromo triggers the formation of testes-> release testosterone-> male genital development
  • sex of fetus detectable by end of 3rd month
  • all brain regions continue to grow, especially cerebral cortex
55
Q

describe the fetal stage of prenatal development after the 3rd trimester is reached

A

3rd trimester = “finishing”
-age of viability-> somewhere around 22-28 weeks
-neurological organization/cerebral cortex enlarges
-emergence of personality?
sensitivity to pain
-recognize moms voice

56
Q

list the environmental factors in prenatal development

A

-maternal nutrition, maternal supplements, cigarette smoking(by mother and fathers), alcohol use, teratogens, other environmental hazards (lead, mercury (tuna), radiation, pollution), zika virus, toxoplasmosis (parasite transmitted by cats-> eye and brain damage/cog deficits)

57
Q

whats the target weight and calorie gain for maternal nutrition

A

target weight gain= 25-34lbs and 10-20% calorie increase

58
Q

what are the effects of maternal malnutrition?

A

germinal/embryonic: miscarriage; physical defects

fetal: low birth weight; small heads, higher infant mortality; weak immune system, irritability; cognitive deficits

59
Q

describe the maternal supplements (environmental factors in prenatal development )

A
  • folic acid
  • calcium- related to bp
  • iodine- eliminates mental retardation
  • but too much can be harmful (too much vit. A -> muscle/heart defects)
60
Q

describe cigarette smoking (environmental factors in prenatal development )

A
  • premature birth, low birth weight, miscarriage and childhood cancer rate increased
  • subtle neurological effects- colic, less attentive to sound, restless, future learning/memory problems?
61
Q

alcohol use (environmental factors in prenatal development )

A

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
-heart defects, distinct appearance, irritability, hyperactivity, under-developed brains, perceptual/motor deficits, intellectual disability
FAE= fetal alcohol effects/p-FAS= partial fetal alcohol syndrome/ARND = alcohol related neurodevelopment disorder

62
Q

what about pot as an environmental factors in prenatal development?

A

marijuana has no physical abnormalities, but..
-sleep disturbances, less attentive in first weeks, possible LT effects: highly variable, with some reports of attention issues in adolescence

63
Q

describe the three steps/stages of labour?

A

stage 1: dilation and transition
-cervix opens, walls thin (contractions 15-20 sec long)
-10-20 mins apart but can be 60sec long and 1-2 mins apart
-10cm dilated means stage 1 over
(for first child stage lasts 12-24hrs, 2-8hrs after first)
stage 2: delivery
stage 3: afterbirth/placenta has to come out

64
Q

what are the pain management options for childbirth

A

natural approaches, laughing gas(slightly stoned), epidural (can have partial/full), caesarian section (C-section)

65
Q

describe the types of depression for a mother following birth?

A

postpartum depression- hormonal changes and new stresses
- long term depression (infants have elevated stress hormones, sleep issues, prone to bonding difficulty, subsequent risk of depression)

66
Q

what is the Apgar scale?

A
first test a newborn takes, done to assess the child
2= good
0= not good
7-10 score= good
4-6 score = monitored 
<4 score = medical emergency
67
Q

describe the neonatal behavioural assessment scale (NBAS)

A
  • behavioural and reflex items

- four “systems” evaluated: autonomic (breathing/temp); motor, state(alert/sleep); social (interactions)

68
Q

whats a teratogen and what can it cause in development? (environmental factors in prenatal development )

A

= any environmental agent that causes abnormal prenatal development

  • effects depend on age of organism at time of exposure (linked to sensitive period) and effectiveness of placenta
  • > most drugs can pass through the placenta (eg thalidomide)
  • virtually all recreational drugs are harmful
  • > lead to miscarriage, premature birth, respiratory problems, heart defects, neurological deficits
  • Cocaine is especially dangerous
69
Q

Explain the difference between survival and primitive reflexes and give 2 examples of each.

A

Reflexes are involuntary and automatic responses that indicate proper neurological functioning. Survival reflexes have survival value.

Primitive:

  • Babinski (stroke their foot and they curl and uncurl their toes like they are grabbing something),
  • Palmer Grasping reflex (if you touch they palm, they grab their finger)
  • stepping reflexea

Survival:

  • breathing, sucking, swallowing
  • rooting (stimulation on cheek, they turn their head and open their mouth)
70
Q

Identify the 4 states of arousal in the newborn and how many hours are spent in each.

A
arousal= organized pattern of behaviour 
Sleeping: 16-18 hours
Crying: 2-3 hours
Waking activity/drowsiness: 1-3 hours
Alert (inactivity): 3-6 hours
71
Q

what is the autostimulation theory?

A

neurological stimulation while we sleep!

72
Q

what is the general pattern of REM sleep in infants

A

REM sleep declines over first 6 months from 50% of sleep to less than 25%

73
Q

how are sleep issues related to development

A

relate to learning and emotional development

  • sleep regulation can be linked to sudden unexpected infant death (SUID)
  • > also explained by voluntary response deficit; respiratory weakness; overheating
74
Q

why might infants cry? what is colic?

A

communication? for comfort, food, stimulation, any distress (peaks at 6 weeks)
colic= persistent crying, less responsive to soothing

75
Q

what are the two theories of what will happen if a parent responds to a crying baby?

A

respond: reenforce crying-> more crying

crying=need -> respond-> meeting need->less crying

76
Q

what is the importance of touch

A

soothes distress, stimulates early growth, foundation of emotional development, sensitivity is well developed at birth
-emotional/tactile deprivation -> depresses endocrine system -> decreases growth hormones production

77
Q

what is non-organic failure to thrive?

A

growth disorder that appears by 18 months where infant appears to waste away
-may have trouble feeding but no evident biological cause
why?
lack of touch and emotional response
-caregiver characteristics: inconsistent, withdrawn, aggressive
-infant responses: apathetic and withdrawn

78
Q

Define cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns of growth.

A

Cephalocaudal: head to legs (top to bottom… ex. learn to hold head up first becayse of neck muscles )

Proximodistal: inside out

79
Q

what % of our weight is our brain at birth? At two years?

A

birth= 25% of weight

2 years= 75%

80
Q

when are the major growth spurts for our brain

A

in the last trimester (prenatal) and first 2 years post natal and again in adolescence

81
Q

what produces myelin?

A

glia cells develop and produce myelin

82
Q

approx. what percent of synapses are pruned in childhood and adolescence

A

40-50%! ( the importance of stimulation)

-as we develop stimulation for one pathway, synapses that we don’t need anymore are pruned away

83
Q

what are experiment expected and dependent growth?

A
expected= we expect that through experience, it will get more defined (ex. vision) ->fine tuning existing circuits
dependent= unique experience (you learn your brothers name)
84
Q

what is positional plagiocephaly

A

=flat headed syndrome
-> skull shaped flat on one side due to pressure such as from sitting in the same spot/chair too long. have to wear “pressure hats” to fix it so brain development isnt affected

85
Q

what is the dynamic systems theory ? (define what differentiation and integration are)

A

motor development involves many distinct skills that becomes organized over time to allow for a task to be mastered; eg walking
-mastery of complex skills involves differentiation and integration
differentiation= mastery of component skills’
integration= combination of component skills

86
Q

describe puberty and its 2 defining features

A

growth spurt and sexual maturation
-> pituitary gland/hormonal changes
growth spurt: Rapid increase in weight and height (girls start by age 11, boys by age 13)
sexual maturation: hormonal changes, primary sex development, development of secondary sexual characteristics (timing is different for genders)
-great variability in terms of onset but is getting younger
->neurological growth spurt as well

87
Q

what is a secular trend

A

trend in industrialized societies toward earlier maturation and greater body size

88
Q

describe the neurological growth spurt during puberty

A
  • prefrontal cortex growth: increase in size and #connections-> linked to impulse control, risk taking, sensation seeking, behaviour regulation
  • increased sensitivity to dopamine levels-> linked to increased alcohol tolerance
  • timing between puberty and prefrontal cortex growth= high risk behaviour (alcohol, smoking, drugs, sex, accidents)