Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is modern cell theory

A

al living things are made up of one or more cells, all cells arise from pre existing cells by division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What features do all cells share?

A
  • contain DNA
  • plasma membranes
  • enzymes
  • ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

small molecules only have _ - forms of amino acids and _- forms of sugars

A

L + D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

WHt are some characteristics of prokaryotes

A
  • no internal membrane components
  • no organelles like mitochondria and vaccuoles
  • transcription and translation coupled
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some characteristics of eukaryotes

A
  • internal membrane components
  • eukaryote is a monophyletic group
  • membrane bound organelles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What separates transcription and translation

A

the nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the nuclear envelope

A

small molecules and ions can passively diffuse though, however large proteins and RNA require active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is endocytosis

A

regions of the plasma membrane containing transmembrane protein receptors are invaginated by cytoplasmic coating which pinches off a coated vesicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is phagocytosis

A

Large insoluble extracellular material taken into a phagosome and delivered to lysosome from destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is autophagy

A

intracellular material and damaged organelles are engulfed by ER membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the difference between mono and polycistronic mRNA

A

monocistronic mRNA is used by eukaryotes and only can translate a single protein at a time
polycistronic mRNA is used by prokaryotes and can translate more than one protein at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T or F- Nuclear export can occur in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

A

F- only in eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T or F- Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes have different ribosome structures

A

T, 30S+50S prokaryotes + 40S+60S eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are proteins held together by covalent or ionic bonds

A

covalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

are lipids held together by covalent or ionic bonds

A

ionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 protein hierarchies + brief descriptions

A

Primary structure
Secondary structure- a helix and B pleated sheets
Tertiary structure- Folded into 3D conformation
Quaternary structure- multimeric conformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the roles of quaternary proteins

A

regulation, signalling, transport, catalysis and movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the difference between nucleotides and nucleosides

A

nucleosides lack a phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

phospholipids contain a ________ head and _________ tails

A

hydrophillic head + hydrophobic tails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the endosymbiotic theory

A

mitochondria and chloroplasts were once primitive bacterial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T or F- mitochondria and chloroplasts replicate separately from nuclear DNA

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what kind of DNA reveals ancient human migration patterns

A

mtDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how is malaria trated

A

choloroquine and quinine interfere with merozoites ability to degrade hemoglobin, needed for parasite protein synthesis and energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are antibiotics

A

small molecules that ill or inhibit growth or microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are useful features for a model organsims

A

small, easy feeding, non dangerous, short generation time, readily available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is a common model organsim

A

yeast, many benefits of both bacteria and eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are temperature sensitive mutations

A

organism only able to grow at permissive tempature, unfolds at nonpermissive temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the four types of animal tissues

A

connective, epithelial, muscle and nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a plants delivery system

A

the xylem and phloem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how are plant cells held together

A

plasmodesmata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how are animal cells held together

A

CAMs (cell adhesion molecules), made of collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the cells of epithelium are _______.

A

polarized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

blood vessels are lined with _______ to prevent leakage

A

endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

only about __ % of human DNA encodes proteins

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how do we study gene regulation?

A

observing the pattern of expression through delevopmental time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how are C. elegans a model organsim

A

-smal, short generation time (3 days) , hermaphroditic, transparent, easy to culture and maintain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T or F- worms can model human disease

A

T, disease model for alzheimers, parkinsons, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T or F: the order in humans and in mice is conserved

A

T, we share around 99% of genes with mice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is synteny

A

occurence of genes in the same order on a chromosome in 2 or more difference species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

why do humans appear so different from apes?

A

different regulation of genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are many genetic diseases casued by

A

mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the three steps for isolating organelles

A
  1. lyse the cells
  2. seaparate organelles
  3. use for further study
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are three techniques that can be used to disrupt the cell membrane

A

High speed blending
Sonication
Tissue homoginizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is simple diffusion

A

can move freely across a concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is facillitated diffusion

A

channels against a concentration gradiet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

after lysis, the mix of suspended cellular components is called the _______

A

homogenate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is sequential differential centrifugation

A

yeilds fractions of organelles that differ in mass and density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is equilibrium density-gradient centrifugation

A

separates cellular components by density, more specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how can cell components be identified after centrifugation

A

using organelle specific antibodies

or proteomic analysis to identify the protein components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do organelle specific antibodies work

A

binding of the antibody provides and handle that helps identify and pruify the organelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are the three steps in proteomic analysis of organelles

A
  1. isolation of organelle at high purity
  2. digest with protease, determine pass and sequence using spectrometry
  3. genome sequence for reference comparison
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what does a hermatocrit do

A

it is the volume of blood cells that are packed by centrifugation, can detect anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the fluorescence activated cell sorter (FACS)

A

analyzes and selects cells from thousands of others and sorts them into a separate culture dish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are monoclonal antibodies

A

antibodies that are made by identical immune cells that are all clones of a unique parent cell. They all bind to the same epitope

55
Q

what is the definition of a drug

A

non-food compounds that cause physiological changes, by binding to targets

56
Q

what dictates the outcome of a drug

A

the interaction between the drug and its target

57
Q

WHat are the two types of strategies when it comes to drug development

A

Phenoytpe based approach

Target based approach

58
Q

What is a phenotype based approach

A

start with asssays, add potential drugs and look for desirable change, then identifiy hits and targets

59
Q

what is a target based approach

A

start with a target selected from a biochemical pathway that is linked to a specific disease state, produce enough to convert hits to leads

60
Q

in light microscopy, resolution is limited by ____ _________

A

light wavelength

61
Q

What is the coefficient for resolution and what does it mean?

A

D, the minimum distance between two distinguishable objects, smaller D value, the better the resolution

62
Q

What is phase contrast microscopy

A

degree of darkness depends on the refractive index

63
Q

what is differential interference contrast microscopy

A

thin optical section of the objects, detail in thicker objects

64
Q

what are the three steps in preparing tissues for light microscopy

A
  1. Fixing- chemical cross linking of proteins
  2. Sectioning- cutting tissue into thin slices
  3. Staining
65
Q

What is an H+E stain

A

a stain in which hematoxylin binds to basic molecules wile eosin binds to acidic molecules

66
Q

what is fluroescence microscopy

A

absorbs light at one wavelength and requires a dichroic mirror, uses stains

67
Q

what is immunoflourescence microscopy

A

commonly used to detect the location of specific proteins, indirect because the flurorochrome is on the secondary antiobdy

68
Q

what are some advantages to immunoflurescence microscopy

A

images for different wavelenghts, electronically merged images, secondary antibodes are cheaper

69
Q

how else can antibodies be targeted to a protein of interest

A

make a recombiant protein that contains an epitope tag

70
Q

what are two drawbacks to fluorescence microscopy

A

cant visualize thick specimens, blurring the image outside the plane of focus

71
Q

what is confocal microscopy

A

collect many images and build up the final figure electronically, collect light from small areas at a time

72
Q

what are the two different types of advance fluorescence microscopy technieques

A

FRAP (fluoresence recovery after photobleaching) and FRET (forster resonance energy transfer)

73
Q

What is FRAP

A

uses high intensity light to pleach transmembrane protein until it no longer fluresces

74
Q

what is FRET

A

measures the distance between fluorochromes, reveals protein interactions

75
Q

What is electron microscopy and the 2 main types

A

short wavelength yields high resolution images, TEM and SEM

76
Q

What is Transmission electron microscopy

A

image is derived from electrons that have passed through the specimen

77
Q

what is scanning electron microscopy (SEM)

A

metal-shadowed material reveals the surface features

78
Q

phospholipids are ampipathic– what does this mean?

A

have both hydrophillic and hydrophobic properties

79
Q

T or F: heat can affect the fluidity of a membrane

A

T!

80
Q

with a small polar head, what shape does the layer form?

A

favour inverted micelles

81
Q

with a similar polar head and hydrophoic regions what does the layer form?

A

pefers bilayers

82
Q

with a bulky polar head and only one acyl chain, what does the layer form?

A

pefers micelles

83
Q

What are the three types of phospholipids

A

phosphoglycerides, sphingolipids, and sterols

84
Q

What are sphingolipids

A

class of compounds that are fatty acid derivatives of sphingosine

85
Q

what are sterols

A

single polar hydroxyl with conjugated 4 ring hydrocarbon tail

86
Q

where are phospholipids synthesized

A

cytosolic face of ER

87
Q

where is sphingomylein synthesized

A

exoplasmic face of Golgi complex

88
Q

what helps maintain fluidity in the lipid bilayer

A

cholesterol

89
Q

are lysolipids more on the inner or outer leaflet

A

outer leaflet

90
Q

where are excess lipids soterd

A

ER membrane

91
Q

What are the 3 types of biological membranes

A

intergral, lipid anchored and periphrial proteins

92
Q

What are some characteristics of intergral proteins

A

maily hydrophobic, 20-25 amino acids, positively charged with Arg _ Lys anchor

93
Q

what are annular phospholipids

A

fatty acyl chains pack tightly against irregular hydrophobic outer face to form shell around the protein

94
Q

what are transmembrane helices

A

guide assembly and stabilization of the bilayer core

95
Q

what are lipid anchored proteins

A

protein bound covalently to one or more lipid molecules, lipid protein inserted to one leaflet of the membane

96
Q

T or F: membrane proteins can flip flop across the membane

A

F

97
Q

what are preiphrial membrane proteins

A

do not directly contact the hydrophobic core, invocled with associating cytoskeleton with plasma membrane

98
Q

what do lipid binding motifs do

A

target periphrial proteins to the membane

99
Q

What do detergents do

A

can be sued to solubilize lipids and membrane proteins

100
Q

T or F: detergents are ampipathic

A

T

101
Q

what is the difference between ionic and nonionic detergents

A

ionic deterents contain a charged group while nonionic detergents lack one

102
Q

what do ionic detergents do

A

tend to denature proteins

103
Q

what do nonionic detergents do

A

can extract transmembrane proteins in folded (Active) form

104
Q

T or F: Detergents cannot form micelles

A

F, at high concentrations

105
Q

What is the soluble portion of the chloroplast

A

the stroma

106
Q

where does light energy capture occur in chloroplasts

A

thykaloid membrane

107
Q

photosynthesis consists of both ____ and ____ reactions

A

light and dark

108
Q

where do dark reactions occur

A

in the stroma

109
Q

what happens in the dark reaction

A

uses NADPH and ATP to drive the endergonic process of sugar formation (hexose)

110
Q

what are the 4 stages of photosynthesis

A
  1. light absorption and O2 formation from H2O
  2. Electron transport binding to reduce NADP + to NADPH and PMF generation
  3. Synthesis of ATP
  4. Carbon fixation, conversion of CO2 to carbohydrates
111
Q

what does DCPIP do

A

it can replace the final electron acceptor in photosynthesis

112
Q

how do cells synthesize new membranes

A

by the expansion of existing membranes

113
Q

what is fatty acid biosynthesis needed for

A

phospholipids and sphingolipids

114
Q

Saturated fatty acids have __ double bonds

A

no

115
Q

what does fatty acid synthease do

A

generates saturated fatty acids from ocndensation of malonyl coA and acetyl CoA

116
Q

what do cytosolic proteins do

A

transport fatty acids in the cytosol

117
Q

What are the four types of lipoproteins in the bloodstream

A

Chylomicrons- transport triglycerides
VLDL (Very low density lipoproteins) synthesize and release by lliver, cells remove triglycerides becoming LDL
LDL- less healthy, deliver cholesterol to tissues
HDL- healthy, return excess cholesterol from tissues and bring back to liver

118
Q

What are lipid bilayers impermeable to

A

ions, amino acids, water, sugars

119
Q

T or F- without lipid bilayer, life would not be possible

A

T

120
Q

simple diffusion rate is proportion to its _____ _______

A

concentration gradient

121
Q

how do we measure simple diffusion

A

partition coefficeint, K. the higher the K the faster to cross a bilayer

122
Q

What are the 3 types of transport proteins

A

Channels, transporters and ATP powered pumps

123
Q

What do channels do

A

Form protein lined pathway though the membrane, allows hydrophillic molecules to avoid interacting with the interior

124
Q

What do transporters do

A

selective, unipoerters, symporters and anitporters transport molecules up or down a concentration gradient

125
Q

what do ATP-powered pumps do

A

use energy of ATP hydrolysis to transport up a chemical concentration gradient, primary active transport

126
Q

Is the Na/K pup primary or secondary active transport

A

primary

127
Q

Na/lysine symporter primary or secondary

A

secondary

128
Q

K+ channel releases K+ ___ (up or down) gradient

A

down

129
Q

Glucose is used as a substrate for ___

A

ATP

130
Q

what is Vmax

A

the maximum transport rate

131
Q

what does GLUT1 do

A

a uniporter of glucose

132
Q

what happens to glucose inside the cell

A

enters glycolysis. phosphorylation rapid and constant

133
Q

aquaporins increase water _____ of cellular membranes

A

permebillity