Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the central dogma of biology

A

DNA–> RNA –> Protein

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2
Q

explain what the central dogma describes

A

information processing in any cell

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3
Q

what words are associated with DNA in the central dogma

A

replication
4 bases (dA, dT, dG, dC)

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4
Q

what words are associated between DNA and RNA in the central dogma

A

transcription

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5
Q

RNA uses what 4 bases

A

A, U, G, C

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6
Q

what word is associated between RNA and Protein in the central dogma

A

translation

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7
Q

what are the building blocks of proteins?

A

20 amino acids

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8
Q

what are the building blocks of DNA

A

4 bases ( dA, dT, dG, dC)

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9
Q

what are the types of proteins

A

enzymes
transport proteins
receptors
structural proteins

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10
Q

enzymes?

A

catalyze all chemical reactions

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11
Q

transport proteins?

A

move molecules

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12
Q

receptors proteins?

A

transduce signals –> means converting a stimulus into a different kind of signal

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13
Q

structural proteins ?

A

architecture of cells

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14
Q

No water =

A

NO LIFE

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15
Q

most living organisms contain about –>

A

65% water

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16
Q

describe the partial charges on a water molecule

A

2 Hydrogens have partial positive
2 pairs of lone pairs on oxygen have partial negative charge (making oxygen have partial neg charge)

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17
Q

WHat are the unusual and important properties of water

A
  1. only substance that exists on earth in all three physical states : solid, liquid, gas
  2. high boiling and melting point for such a small molecule
  3. Density of liquid water is greater than density of ice –> hence ice floats
  4. Very polar - metabolites and ions are soluble but lipids are not
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18
Q

structure of ice

A

crystalline structure where oxygen makes 4 bonds with other hydrogens from other water molecules

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19
Q

what do we compare water with to show that it has such a high boiling and melting points for such small molecules…..

A

compare water and methanol ( mass of 18 vs 32 Da)

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20
Q

ice vs liquid water structure

A

ice is much more organized less dense and crystalline

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21
Q

water forms….

A

weak bonds because they constant break and reform and not permanent rather are very DYNAMIC

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22
Q

what are electrolytes

A

molecules that can dissociate to form ions

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23
Q

hyrdrophobic

A

water fearing

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24
Q

hydrophilic

A

water loving

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25
Q

what happens to a hydrophobic molecule in water

A
  1. Aliphatic side chain disrupts water structure
  2. Water cannot H-bond with hydrocarbon
  3. Water must order itself around the hydrocarbon without optimal H-bonds. Such ordering is entropically not favorable.
  4. Energetically more favorable for hydrocarbon to separate from water. That’s why oil and water don’t mix
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26
Q

describe how water would interact with a cluster of lipid molecules

A

only lipid portion at the edge of the cluster force the ordering of water. Fewer h20 molecules are ordered and entropy is increased

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27
Q

amphi=

A

2 sides

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28
Q

pathic =

A

coming together

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29
Q

amphipathic=

A

both hydrophilic anad hydrophobic

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30
Q

SDS is a _________ molecule

A

detergent

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31
Q

detergent molecules are usully

A

amphipathic –> have a polar head group and a hydrocarbon tail

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32
Q

describe SDS

A

sodium dodecyl sulfate is an amphipathic molecule with a polar head group and a hydrocarbon tail

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33
Q

In water, SDS molecules self assemble into ….

A

micelles

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34
Q

what is a micelle structure

A

the hydrophobic tails aggregate in the center away from water

the hydrophilic heads form the outer surface, interaction with water

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35
Q

in micelles, al hydrophobic groups are

A

sequestered from water; ordered shell of H20 molecules is minimized

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36
Q

list the strong and weak forces

A
  1. covalent bonds–> STRONG, 250-800 KJ/mol
  2. non-covalent bonds: relativey weak, 0.4-250 kJ/mol
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37
Q

calorie? chemistry def

A

1cal= energy required to raise temperature of
1 gm water by 1.0 °C

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38
Q

calorie (dietetics)?

A

1 Cal = 1,000 calories = 1 kcal

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39
Q

Joule? (physics)

A

1 J = 0.239 cal and 1 cal = 4.18 J
1 kJ = 1,000 J = 239 cal = 0.239 kcal`

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40
Q

non covalent interactions are …

A

easily changed or modified, more dynamic than covalent bonds

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41
Q

what are examples of non covalent interections

A

base pairing of DNA double helix
RNA-DNA interactions in transcription
Folding of proteins
binding of metabolites to enzymes

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42
Q

what are the types of noncovalent interactions

A
  1. charge-charge IONIC interactions
  2. Hydrogen Bonds
  3. Van der Waals forces
  4. Hydrophobic interactions
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43
Q

descrive ionic interactions

A

non-directional
distance dependent
attractive or repulsive
energy 6-250 kJ mol-1

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44
Q

describe hydrogen bonds

A

highly directional
fixed length (2.5A-3.5A)
Most H-bonds require 2-10 kJ to break which are weaker than those of water

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45
Q

what is the range of fixed length for hydrogen bonds

A

2.5 A -3.5 A

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46
Q

what are the donors and acceptors in an Hydrogen Bond

A

Donors: R-NH, R-OH, R-SH
Acceptors: O: or N: via an unshared pair of electrons

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47
Q

angular dependence of hydrogen bonds

A

refers to the fact that the strength of a hydrogen bond is highly dependent on the angle between the donor atom (the atom with the hydrogen), the hydrogen atom itself, and the acceptor atom (the atom receiving the hydrogen bond), with the strongest hydrogen bonds occurring when this angle is close to 180 degrees

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48
Q

describe Van der Waals forces

A

due to permanent, transient or induces dipoles that occur in all molecules

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49
Q

which is the weakest by far of the weak forces and give the range

A

Van der Waals forces
between 0.4- 4 kJ mol -1`

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50
Q

what is the optimal distance for carbon atoms in Van der waals forces for most stability

A

3 A = 10^-8cm= 0.3 nm

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51
Q

What is the optimal distance between c-c bonod in a typical convalent c-c bond

A

1.5 A

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52
Q

What is hydrophobic interaction

A

coalescence of non-ppolar, “water-fearing” molecules in an aqueous environment

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53
Q

the force of coalescense in hydrophobic interaction is provided by

A

mainly stability of the H-bonding network of surrounding water- very little by the inherent attraction of the non-polar molecules for each other

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54
Q

Rank the strength of hydrophobic interactions and Van der Waal forces

A

Hydrophobic interactions are stronger than
Van der Waals forces - 3-10 kJ mol-1

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55
Q

what are the two laws of bioenergetics

A
  1. energy can not be destroyed or created
  2. entropy of the universe increases
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56
Q

Keq=?

A

keq= [products]/[reactants]

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57
Q

if a process is spontaneous then which side of the equation is favored and what does keq look like

A

if process is spontaneous, then the reaction moving to the right is favored and Keq > 1.0

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58
Q

reactants and products have ….

A

a free energy

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59
Q

How do obsereve the change in free energy

A

we observe as we go from reactants to products

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60
Q

give the delta G equation

A

ΔG°(reaction) = G°(products) - G° (reactants )

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61
Q

describe the spontaneous process for a delta G reaction

A

G°reactants > G° products SOOOO
ΔG°(reaction) <0

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62
Q

describe ΔG°

A

is the standard Gibbs Free energy change for a given reaction uncder standard conditions of pressure (1atm), temperature (25C or 298K) and [H+]( ph 7.0 or 0.1uM

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63
Q

Under standard conditions the concentration of every reactant and product is

A

1M and WATER is 55<

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64
Q

give a easy def of ΔG°(reaction)

A

tells is is at equilibrium a reaction lies to the right of left

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65
Q

What is special about ΔG°(reaction) and living system reactions

A

living system reactions are seldom at equilibrium so a more useful quantity is ΔG under non- equilibrium conditions

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66
Q

textbook def of Gibbs free energy ΔG

A

free energy needed to convert reactants to products under a defined set of conditions

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67
Q

ΔG°(reaction) textbook bdefinition

A

STANDARD free energy of a reaction. Depends on free energies inherent in the structures of the chemicals

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68
Q

Give the equation of Gibbs Free Energy

A

Look this one up

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69
Q

why does the gibbs free energy equation include the lnQ portion?

A

ΔG due to differences in the concentrations of reactants and products

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70
Q

what happens in the Gibbs Free energy equation when all the concentrations are equal to 1

A

then ΔG= ΔG°

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71
Q

what happens in the Gibbs Free energy equation when Q is a very small number

A

tends to make ΔG more negative –> reaction is favorable –> SPONTANEOUS

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72
Q

what happens in the Gibbs Free energy equation when Q is a very large number

A

Tends to make ΔG more positive–> reaction is unfavorable –> NOT SPONTANEOUS

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73
Q

at equilibrium what is Gibbs Free energy

A

ΔG= 0 and [C]^c[D]^d/[A]^a[B]^b= Keq

SO Keq= e^(-ΔG°/RT)

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74
Q

what is energy coupling

A

an important role for enzymes and for high energy compounds like ATP

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75
Q

Why does energy coupling happen

A

by coupling (1) and (2) an enzyme can tap the energy of a highly favorable reaction to drive an otherwise unfavorable reaction

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76
Q

ATP hydrolysis is highly…

A

EXERGONIC and FAVORABLE–> ΔG°= -31 kJ/mol

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77
Q

why is ATP hydrolysis so highly exergonic

A
  1. electrostatic repulsion- less with products
  2. resonance forms - more with products
  3. Proton release
  4. Hydration stabilization- more with products
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78
Q

describe proton release in ATP hydrolysis in more depth

A

H +] is kept very low in the cell ( ~10-7 M)
* This favors reactions that release protons (mass action effect)

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79
Q

APT IS ENERGY…

A

currency

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80
Q

what are some things that ATP hydrolysis can do

A

couple ATP hydrolysis with non-spontaneous reactions

can also transder energy to ATP–>For example: creatine kinase converts ADP and phosphcreatine
to ATP and creatine ∆G° = -12.5 kJ/mol

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81
Q

∆G is INDEPENDENT of …

A

reaction path –> doesn’t matter what road you take only the destination

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82
Q

what is the alternative equation for delta g that includes heat…

A

∆G = ∆H - T∆S

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83
Q

what is ∆H

A

enthalpy, which is the heat given off in a reaction

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84
Q

when ∆H is <0 what does this mean

A

favorable spontaneous

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85
Q

when a reaction goes from two molecule to one molecule what is the sign of entropy

A

negative ∆S<0

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86
Q

every enzyme has its own….

A

optimal pH range–> if outside of pH range, it may not work as efficiently

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87
Q

pure water is slightly .,,

A

ionized

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88
Q

________ do not exist in solution, they are immediately hydrated to _________ ___

A

free protons do not exist in solution, they are immediately hydrated to hydronium ions

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89
Q

describe protons in hydronium ions

A

they can create a proton hop chain
where hydronium ion gives up a proton to OH which turns it into hydronium then that hydronium donates a proton…. etc

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90
Q

In pure water, the concentrations of [H+] and [OH-] are

A

Equal = 10^-7M= 0.1 uM

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91
Q

Kw=?

A

Kx= Keq[H2o]

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92
Q

what is the concentration of water in water

A

55.5 M

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93
Q

what is Keq of water

A

1.8 x 10^-16 M

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94
Q

equation for pH

A

pH=-log[H+]

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95
Q

what is the neutral pH of water where [OH-]=[H+]=10^-7M

A

pH= -log(10^-7)= 7

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96
Q

strong acids and bases…

A

completely dissociate

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97
Q

life is _____ in a very ____ pH range near pH=7

A

life is compatible in a very narrow pH range near pH=7

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98
Q

what is Ka and what is the equation

A

ka is the acid dissociation constant

ka= [H+][A-]/[HA]

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99
Q

what is pka… how can we contextualize it

A

at that pH there is an equal amount of conj acid and base

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100
Q

at the pka there is

A

an equal amount of conj. acid and base

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101
Q

ther pka is a measure of …

A

acid strength of a particular compound

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102
Q

when the pka = pH, the concentrations of …

A

[Ac-] and [HAc] are equal

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103
Q

when [Ac-] and [HAc] are equal what is ka equal too

A

ka= [H+]

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104
Q

Henderson-Hasselbach Equation

A

pH= pka + log[A-]/[HA]

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105
Q

why are phosphates a good buffer for neutral pHs?

A

bc their chemical structure alllows it to exist in multiple forms near-neutral ph–>

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106
Q

in phosphate buffering what does the first midpoint look like

A

[H3PO4]=[H2PO4-]
pka=2.2

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107
Q

in phosphate buffering what does the second midpoint look like

A

[H2PO4-]= [HPO4^2-]
pka= 7.2

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108
Q

in phosphate buffering what does the third midpoint look like

A

[HPO4^2-]=[PO4^-3]
pka= 12.7

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109
Q

true or false:
phosphate a good buffer to use around neutral ph

A

True

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110
Q

true or false:
A reaction with ∆G= -17 kJ/mol coupled to a reaction with ∆G= 15 kJ/mol will be favored

A

TRUE

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111
Q

true or false:
The K eq of a reaction with ∆G= -17 kJ/mol coupled to a reaction with ∆G= 15 kJ/mol will be >1

A

TRUE

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112
Q

True or False
Strong Acids partially dissociate in solution

A

FALSE

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113
Q

what are the building blocks of all proteins

A

amino acids

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114
Q

how many amino acids do we have

A

20

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115
Q

proteins are ….. (complicated name lol)

A

linear heteropolymers of AA

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116
Q

what are some uses of proteins

A

neurotransmitters
metabolic energy
precursors to other molecules

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117
Q

What are essential vs non-essential amino acids

A

essential amino acids are the ones that we cannot synthesize, so they are the ones that we must get through our diet

nonessential are the ones that we can synthesize

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118
Q

in humans how many amino acids are essential and nonessential

A

we have 11 non essential and 9 essential amino acids

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119
Q

give me a statement regarding amino acids and bacteria

A

some bacteria are able to synthesize all 20 amino acids

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120
Q

what is the general form of the amino acid

A

carbonyl, hydrogen, and amino group attached to an alpha carbon, with a R group or side chain attached to the alpha carbon as well

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121
Q

amino acids are ….. zz

A

ZWITTERIONS

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122
Q

WHAT ARE zwitterions

A

they are when the amino acid is in its IONIC form, so the carbonyl has a negative change and the amino has a positive SOO they cancel out–> NEUTRAL CHARge

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123
Q

how at least How many pkas does every amino acid have and why

A

at least 2 amino acids bc the Coo- can grab a proton and bc the amino Nh3+ can lose a proton

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124
Q

describe the peptide bond formation

A

coming together of the c- terminus to the n- terminus. The carbonyl loses the oxygen and the NH3 loses 2 H+–> creating a byproduct of water

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125
Q

When two amino acids are joined together to form a peptide bond there is a net …

Loss of one water molecule
Gain of one water molecule
Loss of one amino group
Gain of one carboxyl group

A

LOSE OF ONE WATER MOLECULE
–> water molecule is removed as a byproduct. This means the water that was part of the reactants is no longer present in the product (the peptide), so the system has lost water overall

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126
Q

in a final peptide bond (it is already formed) what two atoms are next to each other

A

the C from the carbonyl and the N from the amino group

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127
Q

oligopeptide?

A

a peptide of a few amino acids

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128
Q

what are examples of oligopeptides?

A

dipeptide
tripeptide
tetrapeptide

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129
Q

what is a polypeptide

A

many amino acids, no formal definition with regard to size

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130
Q

what is the definition of a protein

A

Hundreds of thousand chain of amino acids–> applicable when molecular weight is > 5000 Da

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131
Q

In what direction are peptide sequences written and read

A

N-terminus to C-terminus
LEFT TO RIGHT

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132
Q

what ph is a zwitterion amino acid usually at

A

around pH 7

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133
Q

What is a feature of nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

A

they usually have a net charge of 0

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134
Q

What are the types of amino acids

A
  1. nonpolar, aliphatic R group
  2. Polar, uncharged R groups
  3. aromatic R groups
  4. positively charged R groups
  5. negatively charged R groups
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135
Q

describe disulfide bonds in a specific amino acid

A

cysteines can form disulfide bonds between each other
like for example in between two cytsteines on different chains or even on the same chain

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136
Q

what do aromatic R groups usually have

A

A RINg (no way :))

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137
Q

Hydrophobic amino acid: pK 1 = 3.1, pK 2= 11.1 Which statement is BEST?

C. At pH 7, charge is -1, pI = 7.1
D. At pH 7, charge is 0, pI = 7.1
E. At pH 7, charge is +1, pI = 7.1
A. At pH 7, charge is +1, pI = 4.5
B. At pH 7, charge is 0, pI = 4.5

A

D

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138
Q

what are the levels of proteins structure

A
  1. primary
  2. secondary
  3. tertiary
  4. quaternary
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139
Q

what is primary structure

A

amino acid sequence

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140
Q

what is secondary structure

A

alpha helix and the beta strand–> a repeating pattern of bond angles in the polypeptide
backbone.

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141
Q

what is tertiary structure

A

Overall 3D structure of a polypeptide. Includes regions of secondary structure, turns and regions with random structure
(disorder).

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142
Q

what is quaternary structure

A

3d arrangement of MULTIPLE (more than 1) polypeptide

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143
Q

What is the highest level of protein structure in human
insulin, which has two polypeptides of different mass
linked by several disulfide bonds?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

A

QUaternary!

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144
Q

what are the four assumptions of secondary structure

A
  1. bond length and angles in proteins- should be the same as in free amino acids and small peptides
  2. Van der Waals radii must be respected
  3. amide bond is planar and trans –> no rotation at amide bone
  4. repeating structures will be stabilized by non-covalent forces–> especially the H-bond
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145
Q

disulfide bonds are usually….

A

PERMANENT bc its covalent meaning that it takes too much energy to break so its usually permanent

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146
Q

The 3D structure of the polypeptide backbone is completely defined by the

A

phi and psi angles

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147
Q

what is the phi angle

A

Phi angles are bond between N and Cα in the carbon backbone

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148
Q

what is the psi angle ?

A

angle around the bond between the alpha carbon (Cα) and the carbonyl carbon (C) in the protein backbone

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149
Q

what do the phi and psi angle create

A

they create an amide plane

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150
Q

what is an amide plane

A

the flat plane formed by the atoms involved in a peptide bond (amide linkage) between two amino acids, where the carbon of the carbonyl group, the nitrogen of the amine group, and the attached oxygen and hydrogen atoms all lie in the same plane due to the partial double bond character of the peptide bond

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151
Q

what character of the peptide bond makes it ______

A

the partial double bond character of the peptide bond makes it planar.

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152
Q

contrast the alpha and beta sheets

A

alpha helix: non planar backbone, and H-bonding neigbors are close

beta sheet: planar backbone, H-bonding neighbors are distant

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153
Q

what are similarities between the alpha and the beta sheet

A

both involve H-bonding between a backbone carnonyl oxygen and a backhone -NH group. Side chains are not involved

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154
Q

what are the most common helix found in proteins

A

right-handed alpha helix

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155
Q

in an alpha helix
Carbonyl O atom of amino acid ______
accepts a H-bond from the peptide
NH group of amino acid ______.

A

Carbonyl O atom of amino acid 1
accepts a H-bond from the peptide
NH group of amino acid 5.

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156
Q

the alpha helix has what residue per turn

A

3.6 residue

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157
Q

what is the pitch for an alpha helix per turn

A

5.4 A per turn

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158
Q

in alpha sheet - all the C=O point in which direction and to what

A

they all point up in the same direction to the helix axis

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159
Q

in alpha sheet - - where do the -NH point to and in what direction

A

they all DOWN up in the same direction to the helix axis

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160
Q

in alpha sheet - R groups point to what and to where

A

The R groups always point awya from the helix at about the same angle

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161
Q

in alpha sheet - the phi and psi angle ________-

A

for each residue is the same

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162
Q

explain the helical wheel diagram

A

based on the polarity and hydrophilicness of the amino acids you can determine the position of the protein’s 3d structures 2

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163
Q

in a beta sheet describe the way the c=o and -Nh groups are situated

A

the c=0 and -NH groups alternate left or right H-bonds

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164
Q

describe the R groups on a beta sheet

A

R groups alternate up and down out of the plane and sheet

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165
Q

what are the two types of Beta sheets

A

parallel or anti-parallel

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166
Q

when looking at the phi and psi angles in beta sheets what can you say about them

A

the phi and psi angle for each residue is the same

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167
Q

what is the difference between the antiparalle and parallel beta sheets

A

the antiparallel sheets have hydrogen bonds that are in the planar position meaning that they are stronger than the hydogen bonds in the parallel strand since those hydrogen bond are not planar

additionally the antiparallel sheet has a
C–>
N <–
C–>

Parallel
C–>
C–>
C–>

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168
Q

what can we say about the bends and loops in proteins?

A

just because they are unstructured doesn’t mean they are unimportant rather they help with the stability of the polypeptide

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169
Q

What are the two types of tertiary structure

A

fibrous proteins
globular proteins

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170
Q

what are fibrous proteins?

A

-twisted double alpha helices (keratin-nails, hair)
- twisted alpha helicies (collagen- tendons)
- super beta sheets (silk)

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171
Q

what are globular proteins

A
  • most contain multiple regions of alpha and beta structures
  • some are predominantly one or the othe r
  • hydorphilic side chains tend to reside on the surface; alphatic/hydrophobic side chains tend to be buried inside
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172
Q

what is a domain? (think protein)

A

compact, locally folded region of 3-D structure with a specific function

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173
Q

what is an important difference between secondary structure and tertiary structure?

A

secondary structure is hydrogen bonding while tertiary structure is hydrophobic bc of the 3D structure

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174
Q

what are the three landmarks of quaternary structure

A

a. only relevant to multi-subunit proteins; refers to relative arrangement of the subunits

b. subunits can be identical or not

c. several types of symmetry exist with regard to the arrangement of subunits

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175
Q

symmetry is a landmark to what protein structure

A

QUATERNAry

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176
Q

describe the types of symmetry in proteins

A

cyclic: single axis of symmetry
dihedral: two types of rotational symmetry axes
tetrahedral
octahedral
icosahedral –> covid 19 also protein ferritin

177
Q

describe the virus assembly from subunits

A

180 identical subunits with 3 slightly different conformations in a icosahedron formation

178
Q

describe the formation of active sites on proteins

A

Different colors highlight specific amino acids that contribute to the formation of the active site. These residues might interact with a substrate or participate directly in catalysis with the enzyme .

179
Q

is the 3D shape of the protein important

A

YES–> very important to the function of the protein

180
Q

describe the reaction where we found out that protein folding is very important for the protein function

A

Native state (top):

–> The protein is in its folded, catalytically active form.
Disulfide bonds between specific cysteine residues stabilize the structure.

Denaturation (middle):

–> Addition of urea and mercaptoethanol breaks non-covalent interactions and reduces disulfide bonds to free sulfhydryl (–SH) groups, leading to an unfolded, inactive state.

Renaturation (bottom):

–> Removal of urea and mercaptoethanol allows the protein to refold spontaneously.
Correct reformation of disulfide bonds restores the native, catalytically active structure, demonstrating the role of primary sequence in guiding proper folding.

181
Q

can we renature proteins after denaturation?

A

most of the time no, must be a specific protein like ribonuclease

182
Q

describe Sequential stabilization of intermediates

A

some 3D folding structures may have better free energy values than other folding structures

183
Q

death by misfolding…. what is this referring too

A

an incorrectly folded protein can be deadly and even cause disease like alzeihmers –> if chunk of protein is cut then it causes the protein to re-fold which can cause MAJOR problems

184
Q

describe the molecular weight of a free amino acid vs amino acid residue in protein

A

the free amino acid is heavier by 18 Da which is the mw of water
the mw of the amino acid in the protein is the free amino - 18 Da

185
Q

amino acid residue masses are ___ mass
units (Da) less than the free amino acid

186
Q

each peptide bond eliminates one

187
Q

the molecular weight of a peptide =

A

sum of all residue masses + 18 Da
OR
sum of all free AA masses - (NAA-1) * 18 Da

188
Q

average residue mass of all 20 AAs is

189
Q

for a protein of average composition,
average residue mass is

A

≈ 110 Da, because
some amino acids are observed more
frequently than others in proteins

190
Q

To estimate the mass of a 150 AA protein…

A

150 x 110 = 16,500 Da = 16.5 kDa (kiloDaltons)

191
Q

The isoelectric point (pI) is

A

the pH at which a particular molecule
or surface carries no net electrical charge

192
Q

At pH above pI…1

A

, proteins or amino acid carry a net negative charge

193
Q

At pH below pI…

A

proteins or amino acids carry a net positive charge

194
Q

what types of amino acids absorb UV light at higher wavelengths than other amino acids

A

aromatic amino acids

195
Q

which specific amino acids absorb UV light at higher wavelengths than other amino acids

A

Tryptophan and Tyrosine

196
Q

does Phenylalanine absorb UV light

A

YES but not as useful as Tryptophan and tyrosinde in determining the concentration or absorption

197
Q

what is the lambert Beer law

A

log Io/I= Abs= Ecl

198
Q

what is E in the lambert beer law equation

A

extinction coefficient is the optical density of a material at a given concentration,

199
Q

what is the l in the lambert beer law equation

A

pathway length of the cuvette

200
Q

absorption should bee….

A

less than one

201
Q

what is Etotal=

A

(number of proteins)(extinction coefficient) +(number of proteins)(extinction coefficient)…..

202
Q

what is the unit of concentration

203
Q

Favored conformation of a peptide bond is….

A

the sequential alpha carbons in the TRANS position

204
Q

peptide bonds tend to form…

A

a planar structure

205
Q

water is released during the formation of ….

A

peptides bonds

206
Q

at equilibrium, the peptide bond forming reaction favors …

A

hydrolysis

207
Q

Which of the following best describes the state of a
protein whose pI = 9, when in a solution whose pH =
7?

A

C. The protein will have a net positive charge.

208
Q

steps in the purification of a typical soluble protein

A

1.homogenization
2. centrifugation
3. salting in and salting out
4. column chromatography

209
Q

what is homogenization

A

is a step in the process of preparing a cell-free extract (CFE). The process involves disrupting cells to release their contents, and then removing the cell debris and other insoluble components

210
Q

what is centrifugation

A

to remove membrane, nuclei , large organelles (mitochondira)

cell debris is usually at the bottom

211
Q

what is salting in/out

A

Salting in:
The solubility of a substance increases when salt is added to a solution. This happens because the ions in the solution shield the substance molecules from each other’s charge.

Salting out:
The solubility of a substance decreases when salt is added to a solution. This happens when the salt and water compete for the substance

212
Q

describe how salting out can help with purification

A

Salting out can be used to separate proteins by precipitating them out of solution. This is because the solubility of proteins decreases at high salt concentrations

213
Q

what are the main types of chromotography

A

-ion-exchange

  • gel filtration
  • affinity
214
Q

what is ion exchange chromatography based on

A

uses charge to separate molecules

215
Q

describe which rate at which molecules would move in an ion exchange

A
  • non charged ions move first bc they are not attracted to the bead
  • the most charged ions will move the least bc they are highly attracted to the bead
216
Q

what is gel filtration based off of

A

separated based off of a molecules size bc the beads have cracks

217
Q

describe the rate of movement for molecules in gel filtration

A

the small molecules get stuck in the cracks so they move less

the larger molecules do not get stuck in the cracks so they move more

218
Q

describe the affinity column

A

a ligand is on the bead that has a tag for a specific protein. The target protein binds to the ligand while the rest of the proteins filter out
–> then the target protein is eluted from the beads using a compound that is more attracted to the ligand the protein

219
Q

how does one monitor protein purification??

220
Q

what factor does SDS page separate molecules

A

based on molecular weight

221
Q

SDS- page is a type of

222
Q

about how many SDS binds per _ amino acid

A

about 1 SDS binds per 2 amino acids

223
Q

in the elecvtric field of a gel the proteins migrate to the

A

Positive (anode ) side

224
Q

in a sd sgel describe the rate of movement based on molecule size

A

large proteins are retained in the continous gel and move slower, small proteins move faster

225
Q

Facts about GEL

A
  1. proteins can be visualized by gel
  2. if protein is pure, we should only see one band
226
Q

what can we estimate using gel if we know the molecular weight

A

By using proteins of known molecular weight, we can estimate the molecular weight of our protein

227
Q

describe the way the SDS surrounds the protein

A

the negatively charged molecules fully surround the protein so they unfold it HOWEVer they cannot break disulfide bonds

228
Q

what do we need to add to a gel to break disfulfide bonds

A

mercaptoethanol

229
Q

what is the equation for specific activity

230
Q

imagine two beakers
beaker a: has 10,000 proteins –> 7 different types
beaker B: has 1000 proteins–> 7 different types

which has the higher specific activity and activity

A

Both beakers have the same activity through B has a higher specific activity as there are less mgs of proteins

231
Q

in a gel, the intensity of the band can tell us about

A

the concentration of the reaction

232
Q

why do we want to identify proteins

A

proteins associated with cancer and other disease states, protein modification and interactions

233
Q

What are the typical approaches to protein identification

A
  1. 2-D gel electrophoresis
  2. digest protein of interest with protease
  3. determine masses of resulting peptides match masses to parent protein
234
Q

what is the first dimension of 2D Gel electrophoresis

A

stops protein migration at the proteins pI

235
Q

what is the second dimension of 2D Gel electrophoresis

A

separation by molecular weight–> the smaller/lighter the molecule the further down it travels

236
Q

what are the 5 steps to sequencing proteins

A
  1. break and block disulfide bonds
  2. cleave proteins into smaller peptides
  3. separate the peptides
  4. sequence the peptides
  5. align the peptide sequences
237
Q

describe the first step of protein sequencing –> breaking and blocking disulfide bonds

A

reduction and alkylation
1) reduction: break disulfide bonds in the proteins (using 2-Mercaptoethanol)

2) blocking step aka alkylation: where we introduce simething that covalently binds to prevent the formation of disulfide bonds

238
Q

describe the cleavage step in protein sequencing

A

enzymatic cleavage using protease enzymes –> cuts peptide bonds at SPECIFIC locations

239
Q

describe what a reagent is? (think protein sequencing)

A

specific compound that you can use to preform selective cleavage

ex: trypsin’s specificity is that it cuts at lys, and arg c termnius

240
Q

describe the separation and purification of proteins (in protein sequencing)

A

USE HPCL
–> uses reverse phase columns for separating peptides ; binding of protein to bead is VIA HYDROPHOBIC interaction, not charge

–> fragments that are least hydrophobic come out first –> need something to elude hydrophobic molecules so you need to increase solvents

241
Q

what is HPLC

A

high preformance liquid chromatography

–> a form a liquid chromatography but smaller column size, smaller beads inside column and higher pressures

242
Q

What are the methods that we can use to sequence a polypeptide

A

a) Edman degradation
b) MS or tandem mass spectrometry

243
Q

describe Edman Degredation

A

a chemical reaction that is executed in a series of steps and labels and removes one N-terminal amino acids at a time from the amino end of a peptide

244
Q

what is the primary reagent used to sequence proteins during the edman degredation & what type of bond does it form

A

phenyl isothiocyanate–> forms covalent bond with the released amino acid

245
Q

describe sequencing a polypeptide via MS/MS

A

The separated peptides are introduced into the mass spectrometer and ionized using a technique like electrospray ionization (ESI) to create charged ions.

The mass spectrometer measures the mass-to-charge ratio (m/z) of each peptide ion, allowing for selection of a specific peptide for further fragmentation.

The selected peptide ion is then fragmented in a collision cell by colliding with inert gas molecules, causing peptide bonds to break at various sites, generating a set of smaller fragment ions.

The resulting fragment ions are analyzed by the mass spectrometer to generate a tandem mass spectrum, which shows the masses of all the fragment ions produced from the selected peptide

246
Q

what type of molecule will hit the detector in MS/MS

A

uncharged molecules never hit the detector

Smaller molecules hit detector first

247
Q

what is the last step in protein sequencing

A

aligning the peptides to establish final sequence –> placing the sequencing in the correct order

248
Q

myoglobin has what type of structure

249
Q

hemoglobin has what type of structure

A

quaternary

250
Q

how many heme groups do myoglobin and hemoglobin have

A

myoglobin= 1
hemoglobin=4

251
Q

what is so special about the heme group

A

it is the part of both hemoglobin and myoglobin that has an iron and allows the oxygenic bond

252
Q

what type of symmetry does heme group have & why is it important

A

octahedral symmetry allows the oxygen to bind and leave

253
Q

what are the similarities between hemoglobin and myoglobin

A

1) polypeptide length and sequences are similar
2) presence of heme, mechanism of Oxygen binding

254
Q

what are the differences between hemoglobin and myoglobin LOCATION

A

location:
Mb= muscle
HB= blood

255
Q

what are the differences between hemoglobin and myoglobin subunits

A

Mb= 1
HB= 4

256
Q

what are the differences between hemoglobin and myoglobin FUNCTION

A

MB: O2 reserve
HB: O2 transport

257
Q

what are the differences between hemoglobin and myoglobin O2 SOURCE

A

MB: blood
HB: lung

258
Q

what are the differences between hemoglobin and myoglobin O2 DESTINATION

A

MB: mitochondria
HB: periphery

259
Q

what are the differences between hemoglobin and myoglobin BINDING

A

MB: hyperbolic
HB: sigmoidial ( needs to be very effective)

these words refer to the graph’s of the O2 binding btw

260
Q

when thinking about O2 binding curves what is Y equivalent too

A

Y= bound MB/ total MB
y= [O2]/ kd + [O2]
y=pO2/p50+pO2

261
Q

when deos Kd= [O2] 0.5

A

when [Mb]= [Mb:O2 ]

262
Q

what equation describes a hyperbolic curve

A

y= x/(x+z)

263
Q

Buffering of O2 equation

A

MbO2 –> <—Mb + O2

264
Q

what are thinks to keep in mind for HB’s O2 binding curve

A
  1. Hb needs to pick up O 2 efficiently at the lung where pO 2 is high
  2. Hb needs to drop off O 2 efficiently in the tissues where pO 2 is somewhat lower (30 mmHg = 4 kPa).
  3. Normal or hyperbolic binding won’t suffice; not enough difference in saturation when pO 2 drops to
    only 1/3 the higher value.
265
Q

What binding suits a transport
protein well –> like HB

A

Sigmoidal (cooperative)

266
Q

describe what creates the Sigmoidal binding of HB

A

Change in conformation of heme as Hb
goes from T (tense) -> R (relaxed) state

267
Q

The tense state in HB has a

A

lower affinity for O2, deoxy state

meaning usually doesnt carry oxygen

268
Q

the Relaxed state for HB has a

A

higher affinity for O2, oxy state

usually carries oxygen

269
Q

how do we go from a tense to a relaxed state HB

A

heme group becomes more planar–> conformation change in R group moves Val 68 away

270
Q

Hb is an allosteric protein whose properties are affected by changes….

A

in structure, which are mediated by interactions with small molecules like O2 (causes change from T- R state)

271
Q

What are the models of cooperativity

A

a) A simple 2- subunit model
b) 4-subunit model

272
Q

what are the types of 4 subunit models

A

1) concerted model
2) sequential model

273
Q

describe the 2- subunit model of cooperative ligand binding

A

model used to explain how a protein with two subunits can bind ligands cooperatively, meaning that the binding of a ligand to one subunit increases the affinity of the other subunit for the same ligand, leading to a sigmoidal binding curve where ligand binding occurs more readily once the first ligand is bound

–> STill don’t understand that well

274
Q

describe concerted model for the cooperative transition of HB subunits

A

model where all subunits of a protein molecule simultaneously switch between low and high affinity states upon ligand binding, meaning that when one ligand binds, it triggers a conformational change affecting all other binding sites at once, essentially acting as an “all-or-none” transition

*** ALL OR NONE

275
Q

describe sequential model for the cooperative transition of HB subunits

A

a model where the binding of a ligand to one site on a protein molecule induces a conformational change that increases the affinity of neighboring binding sites for the same ligand, leading to a sequential increase in binding as more ligands attach, resulting in a cooperative binding effect

276
Q

what is the Bohr effect

A

the higher the concentration of CO2 (LOWER PH) the easier it is to transfer oxygen from hemoglobin to a tissue

**essentialy the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen depends on the pH environment as the concentration of co2

277
Q

in the bohr effect what are the allosteric effectors

A

H+ and Co2 because they both bind to HB and stabilize the T state

278
Q

enzymed are _____ by the reaction

A

UNCHANGED–> hence can be reused

279
Q

enzymes are ______ ______ and _____ of metabolic reactions

A

selective catalysis and regulation

280
Q

what do some enzymes require to work

A

cofactors (small organic molecules and or metals such as Ca, Zn, Cu, or Fe)`

281
Q

most enzymes are ____ but some are _____

A

most enzymes are PROTEINS but some can be RNAs

282
Q

what is an example of extreme catalytic power

283
Q

what is delta G

A

overall rxn free energy change

284
Q

what does delta G determine

A

determines where equilibrium lies

285
Q

what does delta G T mean?

A

transition state free energy aka Activation energy

286
Q

what does Delta G T determine

A

determines the rate at which equilibrium is achieved

287
Q

how does an enzyme affect delta G

A

do not alder the equilibrium of delta G

288
Q

how does enzymes affect delta G T

A

they accelerate the reaction by decreasing Delta G T (activation eneryg)w

289
Q

what is another word for Delta G T

A

activation energy

290
Q

essentially–> what do enzymes do

A

they stabilize the transition state

291
Q

Describe the LOCK AND KEY model of enzyme substrate interaction

A

lock and key model” describes an enzyme’s active site as a rigid structure that perfectly matches the shape of a specific substrate, like a key fitting into a lock

292
Q

Describe the INDUCED model of enzyme substrate interaction

A

the active site of an enzyme changes shape slightly upon substrate binding to better accommodate it, essentially “molding” around the substrate to create a better fit

293
Q

what is the difference between an induced model and a lock and key model (for enzymes)

A

key difference is that the lock and key model assumes a static active site, while the induced fit model allows for conformational changes in the enzyme upon substrate binding

294
Q

describe the concept of stickase enzyme

A

the concept that enzymes are designed to best fit and stabilize the transition state of a reaction, rather than the initial substrate–> this is because if tje enzyme perfectly fit the reactant and not the intermediate it would stay in that conformation as it is very stable

295
Q

What are the factors contributing to rate enhancement by Enzymes

A
  1. concentration
  2. orientation
  3. strain
  4. chemical catalysis
296
Q

describe how concentration will effect the rate of an enzyme

A

“effective molarity in the active site- proximity effect”

–»>the more enzyme molecules present, the more active sites are available to bind with substrate molecules, leading to a higher rate of reaction and increased enzyme activity–> also the PROXIMITY EFFECT

297
Q

what is the proximity effect

A

Enhancing the proximity of reactants increases their collision frequency, thus causing the reaction to proceed at a faster rate

298
Q

describe how orientation can affect rate enhancement by enzymes

A

orientation increases the probability of correct bond or orbital alignment

299
Q

describe how STRAIN can affect rate enhancement by enzymes

A

–> weakening of bonds by distortion–> essentially the stickase model

refers to the physical distortion or stress applied to a substrate molecule when it binds to an enzyme’s active site, which can significantly increase the rate of a chemical reaction by stabilizing the transition state, effectively lowering the activation energy needed for the reaction to occur; essentially, the enzyme “strains” the substrate molecule to make it more reactive.

300
Q

describe how chemical catalysis can affect rate enhancement in enzymes

A

lowering the activation energy of a chemical reaction, essentially creating an alternative pathway that requires less energy for the reaction to proceed, thereby allowing the enzyme to significantly speed up the process without being consumed itself

301
Q

what are the major types of chemical catalysis

A

acid-base, covalent, metal ions

302
Q

A given enzyme may use several types of ______ ____ in its mechanism

A

chemical catalysis

303
Q

what is a major factor for most enzyme’s rate

A

chemical catalysis

304
Q

enzymes are HIGHLY …

305
Q

True or false:
Enzyme catalysts bind to substrates but are never covalently attached to substrate or product.

306
Q

True or False:

Enzyme catalysis increases the equilibrium constant for a reaction, thus favoring product formation

A

FALS–> remember its doesnt change Delta G

307
Q

True or false:
Enzyme catalysts increase the stability of the product of a desired
reaction by allowing ionizations, resonance, and
isomerizations not normally available to substrates.

A

FALSE- they stabilize the transition state

308
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
Enzyme catalysts lower the activation energy for the conversion of substrate to product

309
Q

True or false:
To be effect enzyme catalysts must be present at the same concentration as their substrates

310
Q

Enzyme reactions have at least ____ steps

311
Q

describe the first step of an enzyme reaction

A

binding step rapid and reversible

312
Q

describe the second step of enzyme reactions

A

catalytic step slower and irrevisible (often)

313
Q

E+S means

A

FREE enzyme and substrate compound

314
Q

ES means

A

enzyme and substrate complex (binded together)

315
Q

what are the assumptions for the steady state kinetics

A

1) [ES] remains constant over time
2) presteady state, the build up of the ES is complex- is microseconds
3) Usually have nM enzyme, mM substrate in reaction

316
Q

what is the physical meaning of K2

A

of reactions a single enzyme molecule can catalyze per unit time

317
Q

Therefore, 1/k2 is:

A

Time for conversion of 1 molecule S → P

318
Q

what is the physical meaning of Km

A
  1. a measure of how tightly an enzyme binds its substrate
319
Q

what is the definition of Km in terms of S

A

it is the value of S at which half of the enzyme molecule have their active sites occupied with S

320
Q

Lower Km means

A

more effect binding–> higher affinity

321
Q

LOOK AT LECTURE 8 equations and graphs –> didnt include in this

322
Q

what is enzyme efficiency

A

efficiency= kcat/Km

323
Q

In a cell, [S] for most reactions is most likely:

A. Very low – don’t want too much S –> P
B. Saturating – maximal reaction rate
C. Around Km
D. Irrelevant since DG0 doesn’t change
E. Very high to minimize activation energy

A

C Around Km

324
Q

what is the difference between reversible and irreversible inhibition

A

Reversible inhibitors bind to enzymes in a way that can be reversed, while irreversible inhibitors bind in a way that is permanent

325
Q

how can you recognize competitive inhibition on graph

A

V max remains unchanged, km increases with increases [I]

326
Q

what is competitive inhibition

A

an inhibitor that resembles the normal substrate binds to the enzyme, usually at the active site, and prevents the substrate from binding

327
Q

what is alpha in terms of competitive inhibition

A

alpha= 1+ [I]/ki

328
Q

what is Ki in terms of competitive inhibition

A

ki= [E][I]/[EI]

329
Q

what are the modes of enzyme regulation

A

1) allosteric control/regulation

2) covalent modification

330
Q

what are the types of allosteric control/regulation

A

1) homotropic allostery
2) heterotropic allostery

331
Q

what is homotropic allostery

A

binds in the active site and only occurs with multisubunit proteins

332
Q

what is heterotropic allostery

A

bind in a different shape

333
Q

what are the types of covalent modification

A

1) group addition
2) proteolysis

334
Q

describe group addition

A

often reversible phosphorylation, and many other types

335
Q

describe proteolysis

A

irrevesible

336
Q

describe why we need regulation of enzyme activity

A

It would be wasteful to continue to turn substrate into product if
enough is available for proper cellular function. Therefore, enzymes
often are highly regulated by binding small molecules that can either
decrease or increase activity

337
Q

describe heterotropic allosteric activation in depth

A

The enzyme consists of a catalytic (C) subunit, which binds the substrate, and a regulatory (R) subunit, which responds to modulators. In its less-active state, the enzyme has low substrate affinity. When a positive modulator (M) binds to the regulatory subunit, it induces a conformational change, shifting the enzyme to a more active form with higher substrate affinity. This allows efficient substrate binding, forming an active enzyme-substrate complex and increasing reaction efficiency. Such allosteric regulation is crucial in metabolic pathways, ensuring precise enzymatic control based on cellular conditions.

339
Q

describe the effect of inhibitor or activation on Vo vs [S] plot

A

activator with decreas Km
inhibitor with increase Km

340
Q

most allosteric enzymes are…

A

multi-subunit enzyme

341
Q

subunit structure and mechanism of activation can lead to ____; also what is an example

A

post translational modification ; example: Cyclic: AMP

342
Q

what is an example of phosphorylations reversible covalent modification

A

ATP to ADP and vice versa–> Phosphorylation is reversible
and is used in many
pathways to control
activity. Enzymes that add a
phosphate to a hydroxyl side
chain are commonly called
kinases. Enzymes that
remove a phosphate from a
phosphorylated side chain
are called phosphatases.

343
Q

What are the defining features of lipids?

A

1) major portion of lipid is hydrophobic due to many Ch2 groups
2) minor portion is often hydrophylic
3) do not exist as large polymers (unlike nucleic acids, proteins and polysaccharides)

344
Q

what are the major functions of lipids

A

1) energy storage
2) membranes
3) specialized roles

345
Q

lipids for energy storage in animals is stored in

346
Q

lipids for energy storage in plants is stored as

347
Q

what are some examples of specialized roles of lipids

A

hormones, vitamins, signaling molecules

348
Q

triacylglycerols=

A

triglycerides - fats

349
Q

glycerol is acylated to form

A

an ester of a fatty acid

350
Q

free fatty acids in bloods are mostly bound to

A

serum albumin, an abundant blood protein

351
Q

KNOW fatty acid nomenclature

352
Q

which FAs are found in triglycerides

A

-up to 3 different FAs in a given triglyceride
-mix of unsaturated and saturated FAs
- FA structure determined melting point

353
Q

difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids

A

saturated fats don’t have alkenes –> so they don’t have kinks

Fatty acids have kinks

354
Q

which type of fatty acids can stack

A

saturated acids and they can’t have other compounds in between them

355
Q

tay saches disease is cause by

A

impaired degradation of brain gangliosides

356
Q

what are the types of membrane lipids

A

Glycerophospholipids
sphingolipids

357
Q

describe glycerophospholipids

A

Glycerol Backbone: The molecule is derived from glycerol, with two fatty acids (FAs) and a phosphate group attached.

Fatty Acid Chains (Apolar Region, Pink): These can be saturated or unsaturated, typically C16 or C18 in length. They are hydrophobic, forming the apolar (nonpolar) tails.

Phosphate Group (Polar Region, Blue): The phosphate group, along with an attached head group, is hydrophilic, forming the polar head.

358
Q

describe spingolipids

A

Sphingosine Backbone (Blue Region): Unlike glycerophospholipids, sphingolipids are based on sphingosine, a long-chain amino alcohol.

Fatty Acid Tail: Attached via an amide bond to the sphingosine backbone, forming ceramide when R = H.

Head Group (R Group): Determines the specific type of sphingolipid.

359
Q

what is the name of the R group -H

360
Q

what is the name for the r group phosphocholine

A

sphingomyelin

361
Q

what is the name for the r group monosaccharides

A

cerebrosides

362
Q

what is the name of the r group for oligosaccharides

A

gangliosides

363
Q

types of glycerophospholipids

A

Phosphatidylcholine
Phosphatidylethanolamine
Phosphatidylserine

364
Q

Cholesterol is a

365
Q

cholesterol is common

A

in animal membranes

366
Q

cholesterol is a precursor to

A

several steroid hormones

367
Q

describe the composition of RBC membranes

A

49% protein
carbohydrates 8%
Lipid 43%
–> for lipid
- glyceophospholipids 48%
-sphingolipids 27%
-cholesterol 25%

368
Q

how does cholesterol change for transport and storage

A

hydroxyl group condenses with a fatty acid to form a sterol ester

369
Q

amphipathic lipids types of aggregations

A

micelle
bolayer
liposome

370
Q

what is inside the liposome

A

the cell material
inside is like a cavity

371
Q

why is cholesterol so important in the phosphobilipid layer

A

helps keep fluidity of layer at cold or wharm temperatures

372
Q

what are some of the phase transitions in the membrane

A

–> At physiological temperature,
bilayer exists as liquid crystal –
but it is still highly organized by
allows for embedded proteins and
other molecules such as sterols.

–>At a specific temperature, chains
are largely frozen and the bilayer
is said to exist as a gel.

373
Q

many carbohydrates have more complex ..

A

formulas and contain amino, phosphate, sulfate and other groups

374
Q

what are some functions of carbohydrates

A

1) fundemental source of metabolic energy for most life forms
2) components of many important biomolecules

375
Q

carbohydrates are often…

376
Q

what are some example of polymers

A

monosaccharides, oligocaccharides, polysaccharides

377
Q

what are some monosaccharides

A

glucose, ribose, fructose

378
Q

sucrose is a ….

A

disaccharide: glucose + fructose

379
Q

polysaccharides can be

A

linear or branched

380
Q

asymmetric is another word for

381
Q

chiral carbons allow

A

many distinct monosaccharides

382
Q

mannose, glucose, and galactose are all

A

aldohexoses –> are monosaccharides with six carbon atoms and an aldehyde functional group (-CHO) at one end of the carbon chain.

383
Q

diastereomers

A

identical structures except for configuration at one or more carbons

384
Q

all aldohexoses are …

A

diastereomers of each other

385
Q

epimers…

A

differ in chirality at only one carbon

386
Q

glucose and galactose are …

A

epimers at carbon 4

387
Q

enantiomers are

A

mirror images

388
Q

what is designated as D and L

A

enantiomers

389
Q

most pentoses and hexoses …

A

spontaneously form ring cyclized structures in solution

390
Q

what is a 5 membered ring called

391
Q

what is a 6 membered ring called

392
Q

when forming a ring, a new….

A

asymmetric center is created giving rise to 2 possible anomers–> alpha and beta anomers (think front and backside attack)

393
Q

in solution rapid ______ occurs

A

mutarotation–>

394
Q

what is mutarotation

A

the process by which a substance changes the way it rotates polarized light

395
Q

where are disaccharides mainly found

A

mainly found in plants

396
Q

what are three common disaccharides

A

sucrose, lactose, maltose

397
Q

2 monosaccharides are joined ..

A

covalently by an O-glycosidic bond

398
Q

Common disaccharides are produced by

A

enzyme- catalyzed condensation/dehydration reactions

399
Q

ploysaccharides are also known as

400
Q

what is the difference between homopolysaccharides and
heteropolysaccharides

A

A homopolysaccharide is classified as a chain that contains only one type of monosaccharide unit, whereas a heteropolysaccharide contains two or more types of monosaccharide units

401
Q

polysaccharides have what kind of branching

A

can be branched or unbranched

402
Q

what is the main use of polysaccharides

A

used by animals and plants as a compact strorage form of CH2Os

403
Q

what are common examples of polysaccharides q

A

starch, glycogen, cellulose

404
Q

starch is made up of

A

amylose and amylopectin

405
Q

amylopectin is made of

A

a branched for of amylose

406
Q

glycogen is like

A

starch but more branched

407
Q

what is the structure of starch

A

branched (amylopectin) and unbranched (amylose)

408
Q

amylose is what type of chain

A

a linear chain

409
Q

amylopectin is what type of chain

A

branched chain

410
Q

what is protein glycosylation

A

a post-translational modification process in which sugar molecules (glycans) are attached to specific amino acid residues on proteins

411
Q

sugars frequently compromise …

A

50% or
more of the total molecular weight of a
glycoprotein

412
Q

Most glycosylated proteins are either

A

secreted or remain membrane-
bound

413
Q

what is the most abundant dorm of post translational modification

A

glycosylation

414
Q

what is important in cell to cell recognition

A

protein glycosylation

415
Q

Glycosylation confers resistance to

A

protease digestion by steric protection

416
Q

describe how blood groups relate to carbohydrates

A

the difference between the blood types can be conributed to the differnt sugars that are attached

417
Q

The O substance is a

A

tetrasaccharide which is
missing the 5th residue
(monoscacharide) and does not
elicit an antibody response
(non-antigenic)

418
Q

The A antigen and B antigen
are

A

pentasaccharides which
differ in composition of the 5th
sugar residue

419
Q

what is hemiacetyl

A

alcohol + aldehyde

Creates a molecule where there is one carbon between two oxygens where one of the oxygens is attached to a hydorgen and the other carbon is attached to a r group

420
Q

what is the difference between acetal and hemiacetyl

A

acetal oxygens will both be attached to R groups

Hemiacetyl has one oxygen attached to a hydorgen and one oxygen attached to R group

421
Q

hemiacetyl gives what types of abilities

A

hemiacetal allows for mutarotation (interconversion between α and β anomers)

422
Q

starch has what types of ends and what do they mean

A

nonreducing ends: Multiple ends available for enzymatic activity during starch hydrolysis.

reducing ends: The single end with a free aldehyde group

423
Q

what is the difference between glucose, sucrose, maltose, and lactose

A

lactose and sucrose don’t have acetyl or hemiacetyl

glucose has hemiacetyl
maltose has acetyl

424
Q

everything that can be acetyl or hemiacetyl can have

A

MUTAROTATIon think optical rotation from ochem

425
Q

how to convert a hemiacetyl to an acetyl

A

add R-OH, you will get an acetyl and H20

426
Q

What does the OG glucose look like

A

4 chiral carbons –> 2nd chiral compound has OH on the left all the other carbons have OH on the right

427
Q

Why is sucrose a nonreducable sugar?

A

NO HEMIACETAL AT THE ENDS, CANNOT ADD ANYMORE

428
Q

What is not present in nonreducing ends?

A

hemiacetal groups

429
Q

a lower P50 value means

A

higher oxygen affinity
–> less oxygen released

430
Q

a higher P50 value means

A

lower oxygen affinity
–> more oxygen released

431
Q

increased Co2 caused the ph to

432
Q

increase in H+ causes the PH to

433
Q

o-glycosidic bonds form

A

through condensation reactions –> hemicetal + Oh-R to make acetal

434
Q

mannose and galactose are …

A

epimers of glucose

435
Q

HOW is chymotrypsin specific

A

Substrate Binding Pocket: Chymotrypsin has a deep, hydrophobic binding pocket that selectively accommodates large, nonpolar, and aromatic residues like phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan. This structural feature ensures specificity for peptides containing these residues.

Catalytic Triad: The enzyme’s active site contains a catalytic triad (Ser195, His57, and Asp102) that precisely orients and activates the substrate for hydrolysis. This arrangement ensures that only peptides with suitable cleavage sites undergo efficient catalysis.

Oxyanion: During catalysis, the oxyanion hole, formed by the backbone amides of Gly193 and Ser195, stabilizes the negatively charged oxygen of the tetrahedral intermediate through hydrogen bonding. This stabilization lowers the activation energy of the reaction and ensures efficient cleavage of correctly positioned substrates

436
Q

What does Fe2+ bind to in hemoglobin?

A

an O2 molecule and His 98 (amino acid atom)

437
Q

In hemoglobin, what is the role of Val68? The role of His98?

A

Val68: cause of the steric hindrance present in the T-form

His98: stabilizes the hemoglobin molecule, keeps the Fe in the heme group

438
Q

When do you use affinity chromatography?

A

same charge, same MW, and/or 6-His tag