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Bio 225 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 6 basic characteristics of animals?

A

1) Multicellular
2) Heterotrophic
3) Eukaryotic
4) Motile
5) No cell wall
6) Go through blastula

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2
Q

How can animals characterized?

A

By body plans

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3
Q

How many identified living species of animals are there?

A

1.3 Million

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4
Q

What are heterotrophs?

A

Obtain organic molecules from their food that they ingest and digest within their bodies

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5
Q

What are 2 defining characteristics of animals?

A

1) Nervous tissue
2) Muscle tissues

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6
Q

Definition of tissues

A

Groups of cells that act as a functional unit

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7
Q

What do parazoans lack?

A

They have no true tissue

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8
Q

What is the group called for all animals?

A

Metazoa

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9
Q

What does the group eumetazoa mean?

A

Animals w/ specialized tissues

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10
Q

How do zoologists sometimes categorize animals by?

A

Body plan: a set of morphological and developmental traits

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11
Q

How long has the molecular control of gastrulation remained unchanged?

A

More than 500 million years

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12
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of bilaterally symmetrical animals?

A

1) Dorsal and ventral (top and bottom)
2) right and left
3) Anterior and posterior (front and back)
4) cephalization: brain

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13
Q

True or False: Bilateral animals are triploblasts and Radial animals are diploblasts?

A

TRUE

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14
Q

What are the 5 stages of early embryonic development in animals?

A

1) zygote
2) 8-cell stage
3) Blastula
4) Gastrulation
5) Gastrula

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15
Q

What stage usually dominates the life cycle (diploid or haploid)?

A

Diploid stage

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16
Q

What are the 3 layers in tissue from outermost to innermost (triploblastic)?

A

1) Ectoderm
2) Mesoderm
3) Endoderm

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17
Q

What layer of tissue do diploblasts lack?

A

Mesoderm

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18
Q

Which animal is considered to be the simplest?

A

Trichoplax adhaerens (TP); used to be th only living species in the phylum placozoa (now there are 4)

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19
Q

What is a pseudocoelom?

A

A body cavity derived from mesoderm and endoderm (only triploblasts). Animals that possess these are called pseudocoelomates

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20
Q

Triploblastic animals that lack a body are called what?

A

Acoelomates

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21
Q

What are triploblasts that contain a true coelom called?

A

Coelomates

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22
Q

True or false: radial cleavage leads to protostomes and radial cleavage leads to deuterostomes

A

False: spiral cleavage = protostomes & radial cleavage = deuterostomes

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23
Q

What are ecdysozoans?

A

Invertebrates that shed their exoskeleton through a process called ecdysis

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24
Q

What does arthropod mean?

A

Jointed feet

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25
Q

Most animals, and only animals have these types of genes, what are they?

A

How genes: highly conserved and it can produce a wide diversity of animal morphology

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26
Q

What animal most resembles the closest living relative to animals?

A

Choanoflagellates: protists that are closest living relatives of animals

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27
Q

How long ago did the common ancestor of all living animals live between?

A

700-770 MYA

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28
Q

What are the 3 forms of evidence that choanoflagellates are closely related o animals?

A

1) Cell morphology
2) Cell morphology unique to animal cells
3) DNA sequence homology

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29
Q

What is anatomy?

A

It’s the biological form of an organis

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30
Q

What is physiology?

A

The study of biological functions an organism performs

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31
Q

How does a jackrabbit keep from overheating?

A

Their hug are ears help them regulate their body heat by increasing or decreasing blood flow through their ears

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32
Q

What 2 characteristics affect the way an animal interacts w/ its env?

A

1) size
2) shape

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33
Q

What is the body plan of an animal programmed by?

A

It’s programmed by the genome

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34
Q

What are the 4 things physical laws constrain?

A

1) strength
2) diffusion
3) movement
4) heat exchange

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35
Q

As animals increase in size what needs to happen?

A

Their skeletons must be proportionally larger to support their mass

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36
Q

What does evolutionary convergence reflect?

A

It reflects how adaptations are similar due to similar environmental challenges

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37
Q

What is the rate of exchange of nutrient, waste products, and gases across cell membrane proportional to?

A

Rate of exchange is proportional to a cell’s surface area

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38
Q

What is the amount of exchange material proportional to?

A

Amount of exchange material is proportional to a cell’s volume

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39
Q

What are the 4 internal exchange surfaces of complex animals?

A

1) Digestive system
2) Circulatory system
3) Respiratory system
4) Excretory system

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40
Q

(Digestive system) What characteristic of the small intestines aid in exchange?

A

The lining of the small intestine has finger-like structures that expand the surface area for nutrient absorption

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41
Q

(Excretory system) What characteristics of the kidneys aid in exchange?

A

Blood is filtered across the surface of long, narrow blood vessels packed into ball-shaped structures

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42
Q

(Respiratory system) What characteristics of the lungs aid in exchange?

A

They are sponge-like and balloon-like which provides an expensive wet surface for gas exchange w/ the env

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43
Q

In vertebrates, what fluid fills the space b/w cells, and what does this fluid allow for?

A

Interstitial fluid which allows for the movement of material into and out of cells

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44
Q

How doe a complex body plan help animals?

A

It helps with living in variable envs to maintain a relatively stable internal env

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45
Q

What is the order of the hierarchical organization of body plans?

A

Specialized cells -> tissues -> organs -> organ systems

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46
Q

What is an example of an organ that belongs to more than one organ system?

A

Pancreas

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47
Q

What are the 4 Ain categories of tissues?

A

1) Epithelial
2) Connective
3) Muscle
4) Nervous

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48
Q

Where is epithelial tissue found?

A

It cover the outside of the body and lines organs and cavities within the bod and contains cells that are closely joined

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49
Q

What are the 3 chapes of epithelial cells?

A

1) cuboidal
2) columnar
3) squamous

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50
Q

What are the 3 arrangements of epithelial cells?

A

1) simple: single cell layer
2) stratified: multiple tiers of cells
3) pseudo-stratified: a single layer of cells of varying length

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51
Q

What connective tissue do?

A

It mainly binds and supports other tissues

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52
Q

What are the 3 types of connective tissue fibres (all made of protein)?

A

1) Collagenous fibres: strength + flexibility
2) Elastic fibres: stretch and snap back
3) Reticular fibres: join connective tissue to adjacent tissues

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53
Q

What are the 2 types of cells in connective tissues?

A

1) Fibroblasts: secrete the protein of extracellular fibres
2) Macrophages: are involved in the immune system

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54
Q

What are the 6 major types of connective tissue in vertebrates?

A

1) Loose connective tissue
2) Fibrous connective tissue
3) Bone
4) Adipose tissue
5) Cartilage
6) Blood

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55
Q

What is muscle tissue responsible for?

A

Nearly all types of body movement

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56
Q

What do muscle cells confit of?

A

Filaments of the protein actin and myosin which together enables muscles to contract in response to nerve signals

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57
Q

What are the 3 groups of muscle tissue?

A

1) skeletal
2) smooth
3) cardiac

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58
Q

What are the 2 things nervous tissue contains and what do they do ?

A

1) Neurons/nerve cells: transmit nerve impulses
2) Glial cells/glia: help nourish, insulate, and replenish neurons

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59
Q

What do control and coordination within the body depend on?

A

They depend on the endocrine system and the nervous system

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60
Q

True or false: hormones act relatively slow, but can have long-lasting effects?

A

True

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61
Q

The information conveyed in the nervous system depends on what?

A

the information converted depends on a signal’s pathway, not the type of signal

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62
Q

Is never signal transmission fast or slow?

A

Very fast

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63
Q

What do regulators do?

A

They use internal control mechanisms to moderate internal change in the face of external environmental fluctuation

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64
Q

What do conformers do?

A

They allow their internal condition to vary with certain external changes

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65
Q

What do mechanisms of homeostasis do?

A

They moderate changes in the internal environment

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66
Q

What serves as stimulus in homeostasis?

A

For a given variable, fluctuations above or below a set point serve as a stimulus; these are detected by a sensor and trigger a response ad the response returns the variable to the set point

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67
Q

Is homeostasis a positive or negative feedback loop?

A

Negative feedback loop, since it returns a variable to a normal range

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68
Q

What do positive feedbacks do?

A

It amplifies a stimulus and doesn’t usually contribute to homeostasis in animals

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69
Q

Alterations in Homeostasis are caused by what?

A

Circadian Rhythm

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70
Q

Define acclimation?

A

Adjustment to a single environmental factor

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71
Q

Define acclimatization?

A

Adjustment to multiple factors

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72
Q

Define thermoregulation

A

The process by which animals maintain an internal temp within a tolerable range

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73
Q

How do endothermic animals generate heat?

A

Generate heat by animals; birds and mammals

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74
Q

How do ectothermic animals generate heat?

A

Gain heat from external sources; invertebrates, fishes, amphibians, and on avian reptiles

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75
Q

True or false: endotherms can’t maintain a stable body temp even in the face of large fluctuations in environmental temp

A

FALSE: they CAN maintain a stable body temp even in the face of large fluctuations in env temp; requires a lot of energy

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76
Q

True or false: in general, ectotherms tolerate greater variation in internal temps?

A

True

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77
Q

What are the 4 physical processes animals use to exchange heat?

A

1) Radiation
2) Evaporation
3) Convection
4) Conduction

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78
Q

What system in mammals is often involved in heat regulation?

A

integumentary system: skin, hair, and nails

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79
Q

What are 5 adaptations evolved to help animals thermoregulate?

A

1) Insulation
2) Circulatory adaptations
3) Cooling by evaporative heat loss
4) Behavioural responses
5) Adjusting metabolic heat production

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80
Q

What is the circulatory adaptation that marine mammals and birds evolved?

A

The arrangement of blood vessels in many marine mammals and birds allows for countercurrent exchange

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81
Q

What is countercurrent exchange?

A

Countercurrent heat exchangers transfer heat b/w fluids flowing in opposite directions and thereby reducing heat loss

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82
Q

How do many animals lose heat?

A

Through evaporation of water from their skin since sweating or bathing moistens the skin, helping to cool an animal down. Panting also increases the cooling effect in birds and many mammals

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83
Q

What behaviour by terrestrial invertebrates is used to minimize or maximize solar heat absorption?

A

They have postures that minimize or maximize absorption of solar heat

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84
Q

What behaviours in honey bees allows them to retain heat?

A

They huddle together during cold weather to retain heat

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85
Q

What is the definition of thermogenesis?

A

It’s the adjustment of metabolic heat production to maintain body temp

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86
Q

How is thermogenesis increased?

A

It’s increased by muscle activity such as moving or shivering

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87
Q

What is nonshivering thermogenesis (NST)?

A

it takes place when hormones cause mt to increase their metabolic activity

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88
Q

What is Brown Adipose Tissue (BAT) implicated in?

A

Keeps us warm

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89
Q

What do ectotherms produce when temperatures are subzero and what does it do?

A

They produce “antifreeze” compounds to prevent ice formation in their cells

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90
Q

What region of the brain in mammals controls thermoregulation?

A

Hypothalamus; it triggers heat loss or heat generating mechanisms

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91
Q

What is bioenergetics?

A

the overall flow and transformation of energy in an animal

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92
Q

What does bioenergetics determine in animals and what does it relate to?

A

determines how much food an animal needs, and it relates to an animal’s size, activity and env

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93
Q

What is metabolic rate?

A

It’s the amount of energy an animal uses in a unit of time

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94
Q

What are the 3 things metabolic rate is determined by?

A

1) An animal’s heat loss
2) The amount of oxygen consumed or CO2 produced
3) Measuring energy content of food consumed and energy lost in waste products

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95
Q

What is the Basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

A

the metabolic rate of an endotherm at rest at a “comfortable” temp

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96
Q

What is the Standard metabolic rate (SMR)?

A

the metabolic rate of an ectotherm at rest at a specific temp

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97
Q

What 3 things do BMR and SMR both assume?

A

assume a nongrowing, fasting, and non-stressed animal

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98
Q

True or false: Ectotherms have much higher metabolic rates than endotherms of a comparable size

A

FALSE: Ectotherms have much lower metabolic rates than endotherms of a comparable size

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99
Q

What are 6 key factors that affect metabolic rates?

A

1) age
2) sex
3) size
4) activity
5) temp
6) nutrition

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100
Q

What is metabolic rate proportional to?

A

Metabolic rate is proportional to body mass to the power of 3/4 (m^3/4). Smaller animals have higher metabolic rates per gram than larger animals

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101
Q

What is torpor and what does it enable?

A

It’s a physiological state in which activity is low and metabolism decreases and it enables animals to save energy while avoiding difficult and dangerous conditions

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102
Q

What is hibernation?

A

It’s long-term torpor, that is an adaptation to winter cold and food scarcity

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103
Q

What is the name of summer torpor and what does it enable?

A

It’s called estivation and it enables animals to survive long periods of high temps and scarce water

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104
Q

Who exhibits daily torpor and what is it adapted to?

A

Daily torpor is exhibited by many small mammals and birds and seems adapted to feeding patterns

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105
Q

What 3 things do feedback circuits regulate?

A

1) digestion
2) energy storage
3) appetite

106
Q

What is dentition in mammals specialized for?

A

different diets

107
Q

What are the 4 classes of essential nutrients?

A

1) Essential amino acids
2) Essential Fatty acids
3) Vitamins
4) Minerals

108
Q

What do micronutrients play roles in?

A

they play roles in enzyme function as substrates, coenzymes, and cofactors

109
Q

How many amino acids do animals require and how many can they synthesize?

A

Require 20 and can synthesize about half and the remaining essential amino acids must be obtained from food

110
Q

What 3 foods provide all essential amino acids and thus “complete” proteins?

A

1) meat
2) eggs
3) cheese

111
Q

How do animals obtain essential fatty acids (can’t synthesize them)?

A

must be obtained from the diet and include unsaturated fatty acids (one or more double bonds).

112
Q

True or false: Deficiencies in fatty acids are rare

A

TRUE

113
Q

How many vitamins are essential for humans and what are the 2 groups that they fall under?

A

13 and they are grouped into 2 categories: Fat-soluble and water-soluble

114
Q

What is scurvy?

A

a severe vitamin C deficiency

115
Q

Which 5 fruits have the top highest vitamin C levels?

A

1) Guavas
2) Kiwifruit
3) Bell peppers
4) Strawberries
5) Oranges

116
Q

What is the current daily value for vitamin C?

A

90mg

117
Q
A
118
Q

VITAMINS CHECK DOC

A
119
Q

How do cattle, deer and other herbivores prevent phosphorous deficiencies?

A

They consume concentrated sources of salt or other minerals; licking rocks or the ground

120
Q

What are the 5 things that undernourished individuals will do?

A

1) use up stored fat and carbs
2) break down its own proteins
3) lose muscle mass
4) suffer protein deficiency of the brain
5) die or suffer irreversible damage

121
Q

What are the 4 main ways of feeding?

A

1) Suspension feeding
2) substrate feeding
3) fluid feeding
4) bulk feeding

122
Q

How do suspension feeders obtain their food?

A

Many aquatic animals are suspension feeders which sift small food per tickles from the water. Example = whales w/ baleen

123
Q

How do substrate feeders obtain their food?

A

They are animals that live in or on their food. Example = caterpillars

124
Q

How do fluid feeders obtain their food?

A

They suck nutrient-rich fluid from a living host. Example = black soldier fly which sucks nectar from flowers

125
Q

How do bulk feeders obtain their food?

A

They eat relatively large pieces of food. Example = Lions, snakes, etc.

126
Q

In enzymatic digestion, what does enzymatic digestion do?

A

It split bonds in molecules with the addition of water

127
Q

Define elimination in the contact of digestion?

A

Elimination is the passage of un digested material out of the digestive system

128
Q

Most animals process foods in specialized compartments, why is this?

A

It reduces the risk of an animal digesting its own cells and tissues

129
Q

What is intracellular digestion and give an example of an organism that digests through this process?

A

Food particles are engulfed by phagocytosis. Example = sponges digest their food entirely by this mechanism

130
Q

Animals have. Digestive tube with 2 openings, mouth and anus, what is this digestive tube called?

A

Complete digestive tract or an alimentary canal

131
Q

What does the mammalian digestive system consist of?

A

1) an alimentary canal
2) accessory glans that secrete digestive juices through ducts

132
Q

What are the 4 mammalian accessory glands that secrete digestive juices through ducts?

A

1) The salivary gland
2) The pancreas
3) The liver
4) The gallbladder

133
Q

How is food pushed along during digestion?

A

It’s pushed along by peristalsis, rhythmic contractions of muscles in the wall of the canal

134
Q

What regulates movement of material b/w compartments in digestion?

A

Vives called sphincters

135
Q

What does the first stage of digestion consist of?

A

Occurs in the oral cavity where salivary glands deliver saliva to lubricate food, teeth chew food into smaller particles to then be mixed w/ salivary amylase which initiates breakdown of glucose polymers

136
Q

What does saliva also contain and what is this made of?

A

Saliva also contains mucus which is a viscous mixture of water, salts, cells, and glycoproteins

137
Q

What shape does the tongue shape food into?

A

The tongue shapes food into a bolus and helps with swallowing

138
Q

Where does the pharynx (the throat) lead to?

A

The throat, or pharynx, is the junction that opens to both the esophagus and the trachea.

139
Q

What part connects to the stomach?

A

The esophagus connects to the stomach

140
Q

What part blocks entry to the trachea?

A

Swallowing causes the epiglottis to block entry to the trachea which lead to the lungs

141
Q

When does coughing occur when you’re eating food?

A

Coughing occurs when the swallowing reflex fails and food or liquid reach the windpipe

142
Q

The stomach secretes gastric juices which converts a meal into what?

A

Your meal becomes chyme

143
Q

What is the pH of gastric juices and what does it do?

A

has a low pH of 2 which kills bacteria and denatures proteins

144
Q

What are the 2 components of gastric juice?

A

1) HCl
2) Pepsin - protease that cleaves proteins into smaller peptides

145
Q

What do parietal cells in the stomach do?

A

They secrete H+ ad Cl- separately into the stomach lumen

146
Q

What do chief cells secrete into the stomach?

A

They secrete inactive pepsinogen which is activated when mixing w/ HCl = pepsin

147
Q

What protects the stomach lining from gastric juices?

A

Mucus

148
Q

What bacteria mainly causes gastric ulcers and lesions in lining?

A

Helicobacter pylori

149
Q

What is the longest section of the alimentary canal and is the site of most enzymatic hydrolysis of macromolecules from food?

A

The small intestine

150
Q

What is the first portion of the small intestine and what does it do?

A

The duodenum = were chyme from stomach mixes w/ digestive juices from the pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and small intestine itself

151
Q

What does the the pancreas secrete and what does it do to the acidic chyme?

A

The pancreas produces trypsin and chymotrypsin that are activated in the lumen of the duodenum and tis solution is alkaline and so it neutralizes the acidic chyme

152
Q

Where is bile made, where is it stored and what does it aid in?

A

Bile is made in the liver an stored in the gallbladder and in the small intestine it aids in digestion and absorption of fats

153
Q

What’s an additional function of bile in accordance w/ red blood cells?

A

Bile also destroys nonfunctional red blood cels

154
Q

What part of the duodenum produces several digestive enzymes?

A

Epithelial lining of the duodenum

155
Q

Where does the most digestion occcur?

A

In the duodenum; the jejunum and ileum function mainly in absorption of nutrients + H2O

156
Q

How does the small intestine have a huge surface area and what does this create?

A

Huge surface area due to villi and microvilli which creates a brush border that greatly increases rate of nutrient absorption

157
Q

What does the cecum aid in and where does it connect?

A

The cecum aids in the fermentation of plant material and connects where the small intestine and large intestine meet

158
Q

What is an extension of the cecum in humans?

A

The appendix, which plays a minor role in immunity

159
Q

What is the major function of the colon?

A

Recover water that has entered the alimentary canal

160
Q

Why do herbivores and omnivores have longer alimentary canals than carnivores?

A

It reflects the longer time needed to digest vegetation; need longer cecum which aids in the fermentation of plant material

161
Q

What 2 hormones regulate the breakdown of glycogen into glucose?

A

Insulin and glucagon

162
Q

What organ is the site for glucose homeostasis and which hormones increase and decrease glucose levels?

A

The liver; insulin decreases glucose, glucagon increases it

163
Q

What is partial pressure?

A

The pressure exerted by a particular gas in a mixture of gases

164
Q

What are gills?

A

Outfoldings of the body that create a large surface area fo gas exchange

165
Q

What kind of exchange is demonstrated by Gills?

A

Countercurrent exchange

166
Q

What does the tracheal system of insects consist of?

A

A network of branching tubes throughout the body

167
Q

What 2 characteristics of the lungs correlate with an animal’s metabolic rate?

A

1) size
2) complexity
-> Of the lungs

168
Q

What are lungs?

A

Infolding of the body surface

169
Q

What is the order that air passes through in the mammalian respiratory system?

A

1) pharynx
2) larynx
3) trachea
4) bronchi and bronchioles
5) alveoli = where gas exchange occurs

170
Q

Where in the mammalian respiratory system does gas exchange occur?

A

Alveoli

171
Q

How does an amphibian breath?

A

Amphibians such as frogs ventilate their lungs by positive pressure breathing which forces air down the trachea

172
Q

How do mammals breath?

A

They ventilate their lungs by negative pressure breathing which pulls air into the lungs

173
Q

What is the term for the volume of air inhaled w/ each breath?

A

Tidal volume

174
Q

What is maximum tidal volume?

A

Vital capacity

175
Q

Where is the breathing control center located in humans?

A

It’s located in the medulla oblongata of the brain which regulates rate and depth of breathing in response to pH changes in cerebrospinal fluid

176
Q

Where in vertebrates is hemoglobin contained within and how many molecules of oxygen can each hemoglobin carry?

A

It’s contained within erythrocytes, and a single hemoglobin can carry 4 O2 molecule = 1 per iron containing heme group

177
Q

Where is oxygen stored in diving mammals?

A

They can store O2 in their muscles in myoglobin proteins

178
Q

What are 3 ways diving mammals can conserve oxygen?

A

1) changing their buoyancy to glide passively
2) decreasing blood supply to muscles
3) deriving ATP in muscles from fermentation once O2 is depleted

179
Q

What are the functions of gastrovascular cavities in some cnidarians, such as jellies?

A

functions in both digestion and distribution of substances throughout the body

180
Q

What are the 3 main components of a circulatory system?

A

1) circulatory fluid
2) set of interconnecting vessels
3) muscular pump = heart

181
Q

What is an open circulatory system?

A

There is no distinction b/w blood and the interstitial fluid (hemolymph)?

182
Q

Do insects, other arthropods, and most molluscs have an open or closed circulatory system?

A

Open: circulatory fluid called hemolymph bathes organs directly (no distinction b/w interstitial fluid and blood)

183
Q

What is a closed circulatory system?

A

Blood is confined to vessels and is distinct from the interstitial fluid; they’re more efficient at transporting circulatory fluids to tissues and cells

184
Q

What 3 groups of organisms have closed circulatory systems?

A

1) Annelids
2) Cephalopods
3) Vertebrates

185
Q

What is the name of the circulatory system in humans and other vertebrates? AND what are the 3 types of blood vessels?

A

Cardiovascular system
Blood vessels:
1) arteries
2) veins
3) capillaries

186
Q

Is blood flow in the cardiovascular system 1 way or 2 way?

A

1 way blood flow

187
Q

What is the order that blood circulates in the vertebrate circulatory system?

A

Heart -> Arteries -> arterioles -> capillaries -> capillary beds -> Venules -> veins -> Heart

188
Q

Capillary beds are the sites of what?

A

Chemical exchange v/w blood and interstitial fluid

189
Q

Bony fish, rays, and sharks have what kind of circulation with a heart with how many chambers?

A

Single circulation w/ 2 chambered heart

190
Q

In single circulation, how many capillary beds does the blood pass through before returning to the heart?

A

Blood passes through 2 capillary beds before returning

191
Q

What happens in double circulation which occurs in other vertebrates?

A

Oxygen-poor blood and oxygen-fish blood are pumped separately. Oxygen-rich blood is delivered from the heart to the rest of the body through the systemic circuit.

192
Q

Through wat circuit does oxygen-rich blood travel through from the heart to the rest of the body?

A

The systemic circuit

193
Q

Through what circuit does blood travel from the heart to the respiratory surface?

A

Pulmonary circuit

194
Q

How many chambers are there in the hear of frogs and other amphibians and what circuit does oxygen-poor blood travel through?

A

They have a 3 chambered heart (2 atria + 1 ventricle) and oxygen-poor blood travels through a pulmocutaneous circuit to pick up O2 through lungs and skin

195
Q

What happens to the blood flow in amphibians when they’re underwater?

A

Blood flow to the lungs is nearly shut off

196
Q

What kind of circulation do reptiles have and what are the 2 circuits that their blood goes through?

A

Reptiles have double circulation w/ a pulmonary circuit (lungs) and a systemic circuit

197
Q

What is different about snakes, lizards and turtles when talking about circulation and blood flow?

A

The one ventricle is partially divided by an incomplete septum

198
Q

What is different about crocodilians when talking about circulation and blood flow?

A

A septum divides te ventricle, but pulmonary and systemic circuits are connected where arteries exit the heart

199
Q

In mammals and birds, how many chambers does their heart have?

A

4 chambered heart = 2 ventricles and 2 atria

200
Q

In mammals and birds, which side of te heart only pumps and receives oxygen-rich blood and which side only pumps and receives oxygen-poor blood?

A

Left = only rich blood
Right = only poor blood

201
Q

What kind of circulation do mammals have and what is different about it?

A

They have double circulation where pulmonary and systemic blood are completely separate; the heart is separated into 2 ventricles

202
Q

In the mammalian heart, what do the atria serve as?

A

The 2 atria have relatively thin walls and serve as collection chambers for blood returning to the heart

203
Q

In the mammalian heart, what do the ventricles serve as?

A

The ventricles have thicker walls and contract much more forcefully

204
Q

What rhythmic cycle does the heart follow?

A

Cardiac cycle

205
Q

What is the name of the contraction, or pumping phase called during the cardiac cycle?

A

Systole

206
Q

What is the name of the relaxation phase or filling stage of the cardiac cycle?

A

Diastole

207
Q

What is the definition of heart rate?

A

Also called pulse, is the # of beats per minute

208
Q

What is the definition of stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood pumped in a single contraction

209
Q

What is the definition of cardiac output?

A

The volume of blood pumped into the systemic circulation per minute and depends on both heart rate and stroke volume

210
Q

What do the atrioventricular valves (AV) separate in the heart?

A

They separate each atrium and ventricle

211
Q

What do the semilunar valves control?

A

They control blood flow through to the aorta and the pulmonary artery

212
Q

What mechanisms regulate arterial blood pressure by altering te diameter of arterioles? Vasoconstriction and vasodilation

A

Homeostatic mechanisms;
1) Vasoconstriction: contraction of smooth muscle in arteriole walls; it increases blood pressure
2) Vasodilation: relaxation of smooth muscles in the arterioles; it causes blood pressure to fall

213
Q

What is healthy blood pressure in a 20 yr old?

A

120mmHg systole and 70mmHg diastole

214
Q

True or false: animals with long necks require a very high systolic pressure to pump blood a greater distance against gravity

A

TRUE

215
Q

What is one type of cardiovascular disease caused by the buildup of fatty deposits (plaque) within arteries?

A

Atherosclerosis

216
Q

What is another name for a heart attack and what is it caused by?

A

Myocardial infarction is the damage or death of cardiac muscle tissue resulting from blockage of one or more coronary arteries which supply oxygen-rich blood to the heart

217
Q

What is a stroke caused by?

A

It’s the death of nervous tissue in the brain, usually resulting from suture or blockage of arteries in the head

218
Q

What are the 3 aspects of innate immunity in invertebrates?

A

1) Chitin exoskeleton = 1st barrier
2) Lysozyme, an enzyme that breaks down bacterial cell walls in digestive system
3) Hemocytes circulating within hemolymph and carry our phagocytosis

219
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

The ingestion and digestion of foreign substances including bacteria where a phagocytize cell engulfs the bacteria by endocytosis and the vacuole fuses w/ lysosome

220
Q

How does the immune system recognize bacteria and fungi?

A

Recognizes them by structures on their cell walls

221
Q

Insects also have specific defences against infection by viruses, how does t work?

A

The presence of RNA can trigger a specific defence against invading virus in insects

222
Q

What are the 3 components of the innate immunity?

A

1) barrier defenses
2) phagocytosis
3) antimicrobial peptides

223
Q

What are 3 additional defences unique to vertebrates?

A

1) natural killer cells
2) interferons
3) inflammatory response

224
Q

What are the 4 barrier defenses?

A

1) Skin
2) Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
3) Urinary tract
4) Reproductive tract

225
Q

What aspect of the skin and digestive system prevents growth of many bacteria?

A

Low pH

226
Q

How do phagocytic cells recognize groups of pathogens in innate defenses?

A

by TLRs, Toll-like receptors; TLRs recognize fragments of molecules characteristic of a set of pathogens

227
Q

How do white blood cells work in innate defences

A

Thye engulf invading pathogens; the resulting vacuole containing the microbe fuses w/ a lysosome to destroy it

228
Q

What are the 2 main types of phagocytic cells?

A

1) Neutrophils; engulf + destroy pathogens
2) Macrophages; found throughout body

229
Q

What are 2 additional types of phagocytic cells?

A

1) Dendritic cells; stimulate development of adaptive immunity
2) Eosinophils; release destructive enzymes

230
Q

What do natural killer cells do in innate defenses in vertebrates?

A

they circulate throughout the body and detect abnormal cells then they release chemicals leading to cell death, inhibiting the spread of virally infected or cancerous cells

231
Q

What 2 things do interferon proteins provide during innate defense?

A

they interfere w/ viruses and help activate macrophages

232
Q

What is the complement system of innate defense?

A

About 30 proteins that cause lysis of invading cells and helps trigger inflammation

233
Q

What are mast cells and what do they do during the inflammatory response?

A

They are a type of connective tissue and they release histamines which triggers blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable

234
Q

What do activated macrophages and neutrophils release?

A

Cytokines: signaling molecules that enhance the immune response

235
Q

What is a fever and what is it triggered by?

A

It’s a systemic inflammatory response triggered by substances released by macrophages in response to certain pathogens

236
Q

What is septic shock caused by?

A

It’s a life-threatening condition caused by an overwhelming inflammatory response

237
Q

How do Pathogens evade innate immunity?

A

Some avoid destruction by modifying their surface to prevent recognition or by resisting breakdown following phagocytosis

238
Q

What is one disease that evades innate immunity?

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

239
Q

What are lymphocytes?

A

White blood cells

240
Q

Are lymphocytes a part of innate immunity or adaptive immunity?

A

Adaptive

241
Q

What are lymphocytes called that mature in the thymus above the heart?

A

T cells

242
Q

What are lymphocytes called that mature in bone marrow called?

A

B cells

243
Q

What are antigens?

A

Substances that can elicit a response from B or T cells

244
Q

How do T or B cells bind to antigens?

A

They bind via antigen receptors specific to that pathogen

245
Q

What is the small accessible part of the antigen that the antigen receptor binds to?

A

Epitope

246
Q

How do B and T cells differ?

A

They differ in how they encounter pathogens since their antigen receptors are different. B cells have Y shaped chain w/ an antigen receptor on either end and T cells at the tip of the chain have 1 antigen receptor shaped like a V

247
Q

B cell activation gives rise to cells that secrete what?

A

they secrete a soluble form of the receptor called an antibody or immunoglobulin (Ig)

248
Q

T cells bind to antigen fragments displayed or presented on a host cell. What molecules display these fragments?

A

MHC (major histocompatibility complex) molecules are host proteins that display antigen fragments on the cell surface

249
Q

What do MHC molecules do in infected cells?

A

They bind and transport antigen fragments to the cell surface in a process called antigen presentation then a T cell can bind to both MHC and antigen fragment

250
Q

What are the 4 major characteristics of the adaptive immunity system?

A

1) immense diversity of lymphocytes and receptors
2) Self-tolerance; lack of reactivity against an animal’s own molecules
3) B and T cells proliferate after activation
4) Immunological memory

251
Q

When activated, a B or T cell undergoes clonal selection to produce a clone of identical cells. What are the 2 types of clones produced?

A

1) Effector cells: short-lived and act immediately against antigen
2) Memory cells: long-lived and can give rise to effector cells if the same antigen is encountered again

252
Q

What are cytotoxic T cells?

A

effector cells in the cell-mediated immune response. They use toxic proteins to kill cells infected by viruses or other intracellular pathogens

253
Q

The defenses provided by B and T lymphocytes can be divided into 2 different immune response, what are they?

A

1) humoral immune response
2) Cell-mediated immune response

254
Q

What occurs in the humoral immune response?

A

antibodies help neutralize or eliminate toxins + pathogens in the blood and lymph

255
Q

What occurs in the cell-mediated immune response?

A

specialized T cells destroy affected host cells

256
Q

What do helper T cells do?

A

bind to antigen and class II MHC molecule which then activates it. Then it forms clones which then activate the appropriate B cells

257
Q

With the help of 2 things, B cells can proliferate and differentiate into memory B cells and plasma cells, what are these two things?

A

1) Cytokines from helper T cells
2) Antigen

258
Q

What is immunization?

A

the use of antigens artificially introduced into the body to generate an adaptive immune response and memory cell formation

259
Q

When does active immunity develop?

A

develops naturally when a pathogen invades and elicits primary or secondary immune response or it can develop following immunization (vaccination) where an antigen is introduced into the body

260
Q

What does passive immunity provide and how is it produced artificially?

A

provides immediate, short-term protection. Can develop artificially when antibodies from an immune animal are injected into a non-immune animal

261
Q

What are allergies?

A

exaggerated (hypersensitive) responses to antigens called allergens

262
Q
A

Bio 225 (4 decks)

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