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Lab Diagnostics > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

define isohydria

A

concentration of hydrogen ions

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2
Q

pH is equal to …

A

-log 10 (H+)

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3
Q

What is a buffer?

A

solution that can maintain a nearly constant pH

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4
Q

Particularity of a buffer solution

A

resists to pH changes

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5
Q

Typical buffer solution

A

weak acid/base + one of it’s salts

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6
Q

Most important physico-chemical buffer

A

carbonic acid - bicarbonate buffer system

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7
Q

What is the carbonic acid - bicarbonate buffer system

A

CO2 + H2O –> H2CO3 –> H+ + HCO3-

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8
Q

Which organs form the vital buffer system?

A

Kidneys and Lungs

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9
Q

When H+ increases what happens to CO2

A

equation moves to the left, so CO2 increases

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10
Q

Equation of excretion of H+ by lungs

A

(increase)H+ + HCO3- –> H2CO3 –> H2O + (increase)CO2

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11
Q

Define Kussmaul breathing, and when does it happen?

A

normal frequency of breathing but very deep inspiration and expiration, when CO2 is being excreted

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12
Q

What is the kidney’s buffering capacity?

A

Can retain or excrete H+

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13
Q

When CO2 increases what happens to H+

A

equation moves to the right , H+ AND HCO3- increases

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14
Q

What kind of blood sample is needed to asses respiratory functions?

A

Arterial blood

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15
Q

What kind of blood sample is needed to asses metabolic status?

A

Venous or arterial sample

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16
Q

Why is air contamination avoided while sampling blood?

A

pO2 would increase and pCO2 would decrease (shortly after) or increase after long period of time

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17
Q

What can be calculated based on the pH and CO2?

A

HCO3- and ABE

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18
Q

Which are the metabolic parameters?

A

HCO3- (TCO2)
ABE

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19
Q

Give a respiratory parameter

A

pCO2

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20
Q

Give the blood pH reference range

A

7.35 - 7.45

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21
Q

An increase of CO2 can be called

A

a shift in “acidic” direction

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22
Q

impaired gas exchange in the lungs, remaining CO2:

A

Respiratory acidosis

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23
Q

Hyperventilation :

A

respiratory alkalosis

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24
Q

What happens to HCO3- in acidosis

A

decreases

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25
Q

What happens to HCO3- in alkalosis

A

increases

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26
Q

What happens to ABE during alkalosis

A

parameter shifts from 0 to positive

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27
Q

What happens to ABE during acidosis

A

parameter shifts from 0 to negative

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28
Q

How are compensatory parameters easily detected

A

parameter is shifted in opposite direction compared to pH

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29
Q

How do the primary process parameters shift?

A

in the same direction as the pH

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30
Q

What does it mean if all parameters are shifted in the same direction as pH?

A

advanced acidosis called mixed acidosis

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31
Q

How can we determine if the compensation effort is visible?

A

If either metabolic or respiratory parameter is shifted in opposite direction as pH

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32
Q

Metabolic acidaemia

A

HCO3- decrease
ABE decrease

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33
Q

metabolic acidaemia causes:

A

HCO3- loss (diarrhea)
decreased acid excretion (renal failure)

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34
Q

metabolic acidosis effects:

A

Kussmaul type breathing
Vomiting
Hypercalcaemia
Hyperkalaemia

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35
Q

Define the anion gap

A

describes the difference between the commonly measured cations in plasma and commonly measured anions

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36
Q

equation of anion gap

A

(NA+ + K+ + Uc) = (CL- + HCO3- + Ua)

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37
Q

Exemple of unmeasured cations

A

Ca2+
Mg2+
globulins

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38
Q

Exemple of unmeasured anions

A

negatively charged proteins
phosphate
lactate

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39
Q

Reference range for anion gap

A

8-16 mmol/L

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40
Q

How is it called when an increase of CL- occurs to compensate the decrease of HCO3- in the case of diarrhea

A

hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

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41
Q

metabolic alkalosis parameters:

A

pH > 7.4
HCO3- increases
ABE increases

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42
Q

metabolic alkalosis causes:

A

increased acid loss (vomiting)
increase alkaline production/ intake

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43
Q

metabolic alkalosis effects:

A

breathing drepession
muscle weakness (hypokalaemia)
hypocalcaemia

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44
Q

Respiratory acidosis parameters:

A

pH < 7.4
pCO2 increases
pO2 decreases

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45
Q

Respiratory acidosis causes:

A

upper airway obstruction
pulmonary/pleural cavity disease

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46
Q

Respiratory acidosis treatment:

A

assist in the ventilation

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47
Q

Respiratory alkalosis parameters:

A

pH > 7.4
pCO2 decreases
pO2 increases

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48
Q

Respiratory alkalosis causes:

A

loss of CO2 by hyperventilating

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49
Q

Respiratory alkalosis treatment:

A

anxiolytic or mild sedative in case of hyper excitation

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50
Q

what is the goal of blood gas analysis?

A

asses effectiveness of gas exchange

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51
Q

Which sample is used for blood gas analysis ?

A

Arterial samples - assessment of respiratory functions
venous samples - how much oxygen is consumed

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52
Q

normal pCO2 values

A

40 mmHg

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53
Q

define haemostasis

A

group of processes initiated in the body in order to stop bleeding in case of tissue and/or blood vessel injuries

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54
Q

Give the 3 major groups of hemostasis disorders:

A
  • Vasculopathy
  • Thrombocytopathy
  • Coagulopathy
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55
Q

define vasculopathy

A

decreased ability of vasoconstriction
(first step of haemostatis process)

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56
Q

define thrombocytopathy

A

decreased ability of platelets to aggregates
(second step)

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57
Q

define thrombocytopenia

A

decreased amount of thrombocytes in the blood

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58
Q

define coagulopathy

A

problem with intrinsic- extrinsic or common pathway of coagulation cascade
(third step)

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59
Q

explain the capillary resistance test

A

ligature on the arm, above the elbow
after 3-5 minutes 3 small petechie should appear

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60
Q

What do we test with BT, BMBT

A

thrombocytopenia, thrombocytopathies and vasopathies

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61
Q

explain the BT, BMBT test

A

make incision on inner part of ear or in buccal mucosal surface
measure time from appearance of the first drop of blood until ceasing of bleeding

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62
Q

give the normal BMBT time

A

3-5min

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63
Q

What test should be performed to test for coagulopathies?

A

Coagulation time

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64
Q

Why should samples be taken with one precise venipuncture? (for CT)

A

to not cause damage, which may increase tissue factors

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65
Q

What tests can be performed to measure the CT?

A
  • appearance of the first fibrin strand
  • Clotting time on plastic syringe, glass tube and in ACT (activated clotting time)
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66
Q

Appearance of the first fibrin strand normal time

A

1-2min

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67
Q

CT in plastic syringe normal time

A

10-12min

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68
Q

CT in glass tube normal time

A

4-5min

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69
Q

Which factors are activated in an ACT tube?

A

XII which activates IX

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70
Q

2 methods to count platelets

A
  • blood smear
  • automatic cell counter
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71
Q

big platelets are often found in …

A

King Charles spaniel
Cats

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72
Q

general platelet count

A

200-800 X10 9/L

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73
Q

explain the clot retraction test

A

leave blood clot in tube for some hours
it will become smaller and serum will appear
volume of serum released after 1 hour is 25% of whole volume of initial clot

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74
Q

What is tested with the clot retraction test

A

thrombocytes functions

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75
Q

organize species according to the size of their thrombocytes

A

horse, sheep, cattles < dogs, swine < cats

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76
Q

When should we expect signs of really severe bleeding disorder?

A

with coagulopathies

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77
Q

Which factors are involved in the Prothrombin time?

A

I, II, V, VII, X, XIII

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78
Q

Which factors are involved with the APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) test

A

I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XIII

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79
Q

Prothombin test gives information to which pathway?

A

Extrinsic

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80
Q

APTT test gives information about which pathway?

A

Intrinsic

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81
Q

In which case an increase in APT and PT test would be observed?

A

Common pathway problem

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82
Q

During dicumarol/warfarin toxicosis which test will increase?

A

only PT during early stages
APTT later

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83
Q

What is the fibrinolytic pathway responsible for?

A

keep the clot formation within normal limits

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84
Q

Most accurate way to detect increased fibrinolysis

A

examination of D-dimer level in blood

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85
Q

FDP and D-dimers tests are helpful in the diagnosis of …

A

DIC, disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

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86
Q

What is an indicator of DIC

A

CT: increase
BT: increase
Platelet count: decrease
PT: increase
APTT: increase
TT: increase
FDP, D-dimer: increase

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87
Q

Which breed is commonly seen for Von Willebrand disease

A

Dobermann pinchers

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88
Q

What is missing in von Willebrand disease

A

Factor VIII

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89
Q

what do we use as solution for anticoagulant?

A

EDTA

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90
Q

how does EDTA work?

A

irreversibly binds Ca ions in sample

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91
Q

what happens if blood is stored with EDTA for over 12 hours?

A

cells will swell

92
Q

Where can we evaluate blood biochemistry parameters?

A

serum

93
Q

What can we use as anticoagulant while evaluating biochemistry parameters?

A

heparin

94
Q

Which anticoagulant is used when testing for blood clotting parameters?

A

Na2-citrate

95
Q

What are the water compartments of the organism?

A

extracellular, intracellular, transcellular and interstitial space

96
Q

How can we evaluate perfusion?

A

Capillary refill time
color of mucous membrane
blood pressure

97
Q

how can we evaluate hydration?

A

skin turgor
mucous membranes
sunken eyes
volume of urine

98
Q

define perfusion

A

intravascular deficit or circulation problems

99
Q

define hydration

A

interstitial or intracellular water supply

100
Q

define packed cell volume or haematocrit

A

ratio of whole blood volume to the volume of red blood cells

101
Q

what are the methods used to evaluate the PCV or Ht

A
  • microcapillary method
  • automated cell counter
  • handheld HCT meter
102
Q

What can be a false cause of increased PCV?

A

long sample storage with EDTA

103
Q

What can be a physiological cause of increased PCV?

A

Congenital: greyhound, whippet, borzoi and hot blooded horses

104
Q

what does dehydration/vomiting do to the PCV?

A

makes it increase

105
Q

What can be a physiological cause of decreased PCV?

A

increase plasma volume during 3rd trimester of pregnancy

106
Q

What can be an absolute cause of decreased PCV?

A

hours after acute bleeding
decreased red blood cell production
decreased life span
sequestration of RBC in spleen

107
Q

What can be an absolute cause of decreased PCV?

A

hours after acute bleeding
decreased red blood cell production
decreased life span
sequestration of RBC in spleen

108
Q

What would a reddish color of plasma mean?

A

haemolysis

109
Q

What would a whit, opaque color of plasma mean?

A

hyperbilirubinaemia

110
Q

What would a chocolate brown color of plasma mean?

A

mathaemoglobinaemia

111
Q

color of horse and ruminant plasma

A

yellowish

112
Q

What is the Buffy coat

A

the white blood cells form a whitish opaque layer

113
Q

What is the mathematical equation used to calculate osmolality

A

2(Na+ + K+) + urea + glucose

114
Q

What is the Biuret test used for?

A

used to measure TP, photometrically

115
Q

true or false,
TP concentration of blood plasma depends on the water balance

A

True

116
Q

how do we generally calculate globulin?

A

by the difference of the TP and albumin concentration

117
Q

Causes of a decrease of albumin concentration

A

decrease synthesis, intake
increase loss, utilisation

118
Q

causes of an increase of albumin concentration

A

dehydration

119
Q

2 reasons explaining a higher level of globulin

A

inflammatory process
process related to neoplasia

120
Q

define polyclonal gammopathy

A

beta and gamma globulins derived from different clones

121
Q

define monoclonal gammopathy

A

one protein fraction derived from one clone

122
Q

when does a polyclonal gammopathy occur

A

inflammatory processes or some immune mediated diseases

123
Q

when does a monoclonal gammopathy occur

A

immune mediated or neoplastic conditions

124
Q

Onan electrophoresis how can we identify a monoclonal gammopathy

A

narrow peak comparable to the albumin

125
Q

how to calculate fibrinogen concentration

A

plasma TP - serum TP

126
Q

causes of fibrinogen concentration changes

A

increase: acute inflammation, dehydration
decrease: liver function impairment

127
Q

most frequent method to measure glucose

A

glucometer

128
Q

if patient has anaemia what happens to measured glucose?

A

measured lower

129
Q

if patient has polycythaemia what happens to measured glucose?

A

measured higher

130
Q

increase in glucose

A

stress
food intake

130
Q

increase in glucose

A

stress
food intake

131
Q

constant hyperglycemia

A

diabetes
progesterone effect
glucocorticosteroid therapy

132
Q

decrease in glucose

A

ketosis in ruminant
starvation
insulin overdose
hunting dogs, puppies small breed, racehorses

133
Q

Why is the intravenous glucose tolerance test used?

A

when suspected the onset of latent diabetes or insulinoma

134
Q

When is the oral glucose tolerance test used?

A

when suspected chronic bowel disease

135
Q

what can be used as a marker for average blood glucose levels over the previous 2-3 months ?

A

glycated haemoglobin

136
Q

What is the appearance of keto bodies due to?

A

energy deficiency in liver cells

137
Q

what is used to measured the amount of ketone bodies?

A

Ross-reagent

138
Q

how can energy status of cattle be estimated?

A

by urea concentration analysis from milk and plasma

139
Q

causes of hyperlipidemia

A
  • ponies
  • hypothyroidism
  • pancreatitis
  • increased fat diet
140
Q

causes of decrease of lipid content

A

starvation
liver failure
malabsorption

141
Q

causes of hypocholesterolaemia

A

mal nutrition
liver failure

142
Q

causes of hypercholesterolaemia

A

diabetes
increased dietary fat

143
Q

what is called the difference between calculated and measured osmolality

A

osmolar gap

144
Q

above which value the osmolar gap is regarded to be pathologic

A

15

145
Q

how can you calculate MCH?

A

Hgb/ RBC count x 10^12 = MCH

146
Q

2 examples of decreased MCHC

A

newborn animals
regenerative anaemias

147
Q

When do spherocytes appear?

A

in sensitive RBC membrane

148
Q

how can you calculate MCV

A

PCV / RBC count x 1000

149
Q

2 examples of increased MCHC

A

Vit B12, folic acid deficiency
lead poisoning

150
Q

when do stomatocytes appear ?

A

When there is an increase in RBC production

151
Q

what is the normal oxygen saturation of arterial blood

A

95-99%

152
Q

what is the normal oxygen saturation of venous blood

A

80-90%

153
Q

What are called Hgb molecules in 3+ form

A

methaemoglobin
(unable to carry oxygen)

154
Q

Which species has the Hgb concentration affected by age

A

Swine

155
Q

normal RBC count

A

4.5-8 x 10^12

156
Q

What does MCH mean

A

mean corpuscular haemoglobin

157
Q

what does MCV mean

A

mean corpuscular volume

158
Q

what does MCHC mean

A

mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration

159
Q

in which species do reticulocytes only appear in bone marrow but not peripheral blood

A

horse, ruminants

160
Q

define regenerative anaemia

A

enough RBC are being produced to replace and reach normal RBC count quickly

161
Q

what are the different type of RBC sizes

A

macrocytosis
microcytosis
anisocytosis
poikylocytosis

162
Q

what is a reticulocyte

A

young but mature RBC without nucleus

163
Q

Spherocyte appears

A

sensitive RBC membrane

164
Q

Acanthocyte (Spur cell) appears

A

RBC membrane failure

165
Q

Schysocyte (RBC fragment) appears

A

traumatic or toxic damage

166
Q

Anulocyte appears

A

iron deficiency anaemia

167
Q

Codocyte (target cell) appears

A

regenerative process

168
Q

Echynocyte appears

A

lab error

169
Q

Sickle appears

A

RBC damage

170
Q

Example of infection

A

parasitic

171
Q

Example of inflammation

A

infection, imune mediated

172
Q

What kind of sample is used for white blood cell counting?

A

anticoagulated blood

173
Q

in WBC counting, scatters are detected by two light detectors what are they called?

A

forward and side scatter detector

174
Q

what does the forward scatter detect?

A

size of the cells

175
Q

what does the side scatter detect?

A

inner structure complexity

176
Q

define “gaiting”

A

when a cloud of points (obtained with the side and forward scatter values) is framed and counted, we then have the cell count of a similar cell type

177
Q

different pools of WBC in the body

A
  • bone marrow
  • blood vessels
  • circulating blood
  • tissue
178
Q

how can physiological leukocytosis develop?

A

acute or chronic stress

179
Q

when can we observe neutropenia

A

first period of inflammatory process, neutrophils are migrating to site of inflammation, decrease of WBC in blood.

180
Q

When can we observe neutrophilia

A

later phase of inflammation, stimulating WBC growth In bone marrow by G-GSF factors

181
Q

define regenerative left shift of WBC

A

increase of WBC count, neutrophilia and younger neutrophils.
sign of favourable prognosis

182
Q

define degenerative left shift of WBC

A

greater utilization of neutrophils in the tissue than regenerative capacity of bone marrow

183
Q

what does G-GSF and GM-CSF do?

A

growth factor that makes bone marrow produce more WBC (neutrophils)

184
Q

what is a leukemia reaction

A

increase in WBC

185
Q

What are Döhle-bodies, and in which species are they most common?

A

inclusion bodies in neutrophil granulocytes, in cats

186
Q

what does right shift mean in WBC count?

A

many segmented and hyperhsegmented are seen in the smear, and an increase of WBC. typical of chronic inflamation

187
Q

to what and how is the coagulation time correlated

A

coagulation time is inversely correlated to the concentration of fibrinogen and globulin in the blood

188
Q

what’s can cause an increase in erythrocytes sedimentation rate

A

lower albumin levels, higher globulin levels

189
Q

what are the body cavities?

A

abdominal
thoracic
pericardial

190
Q

causes of accumulation of fluid in different cavities

A

increased permeability of vessels
increased hydrostatic pressure
impeded lymphatic flow
hormonal effects

191
Q

what are the types of fluids

A

transudate
exudate
modified transudate
blood`lymph

192
Q

describe the transudate fluid

A

colour: bloody or yellow
odour: none
consistency: watery
slightly alkaline

193
Q

describe the modified transudate fluid

A

colour: bloody, opaque, grey-white, yellow
odour: sometimes
consistency: watery, slightly viscous

194
Q

describe the exudate fluid

A

colour: bloody, generally opaque, grey-white, yellow-white
odour: often
consistency: viscous
acidic

195
Q

Which fluid would have the most positive response to the Rivalta test

A

exudate > modified transudate > transudate

196
Q

what can be an indicator of badder rupture

A

if creatinine level is higher in peritoneal fluid than in plasma

197
Q

what is an indication of duodenal perforation or gall bladder rupture

A

if alpha amylase concentration is higher in peritoneal cavity than in plasma

198
Q

high alpha amylase concentration in pleural cavity

A

ruptured oesophagus

199
Q

more triglycerol than cholesterol in fluid means

A

fluid is of lymphatic origin

200
Q

transudates causes of development

A

increased vessel permeability due to underlining causes
- increase of hydrostatic pressure of the blood
- decrease of plasma colloid oncotic pressure
- impeded lymphatic flow
- hormonal effects

201
Q

exudates causes of development

A

Increased permeability of vessels due to inflammatory causes bacterial
viral
parasitic
inflammatory mediators
 Increased migration of phagocites
 Increased proliferation of mesothelial cells
 Increased production of inflammatory proteins

202
Q

which spaces are used to sample CSF

A

occipital and lumbal zona

203
Q

examination of CSF colour

A

colour (red - fresh bleeding, yellow - bleeding in the past, opaque - in highly inflammatory or neoplastic conditions)

204
Q

define ileus

A

persistent inhibition of arboreal transmission of gastric or intestinal content

205
Q

increased parasympathomimetic effect on intestinal functions

A

increased smooth muscle contraction
increased intestinal metabolism causes increased gas formation and accumulation cranially to the effect

206
Q

what effects does atropin and scopolamin have?

A
  • inhibits effects of parasympathetic stimulant drugs
  • decrease intestinal spasm in order to be able to perform rectal examination in horses an cattle when colic
207
Q

what effects has an increased sympathomimetic

A

relaxing intestinal tissues

208
Q

what is a consequence of a distal ileus

A

metabolic acidosis

209
Q

what is a consequence of a proximal ileus

A

metabolic alkalosis at first then metabolic acidosis

210
Q

what happens during a distal ileus

A
  • empty stomach,
  • vomit contains small intestinal fluid (high pH)
  • dehydration
  • anaerobic glycolysis
  • lactic acid formation
211
Q

a lack of bile flow can lead to…

A

severe endotoxaemia (bile is an endotoxin inactivator)

212
Q

What happens to pancreatic enzymes

A

made in pancreas as proenzymes, activated in duodenum

213
Q

an hematological analysis of a pancreatitis will show?

A

polycythaemia
degradation of red blood cells
anaemia
leukocytosis
neutrophilia

214
Q

pancreatic enzymes in the plasma

A

alpha-amylase
lipase activity

215
Q

example of alpha amylase enzyme

A

S-amylase
P-amylase

216
Q

which organ excretes alpha amylase enzymes and lipase enzymes

A

kidney

217
Q

methode to measure alpha amylase

A

starch digestion test
(more stain will get free as alpha amylase is present in plasma sample)

218
Q

example of lipase isoenzyme

A

gastric lipase
intestinal lipase

219
Q

to diagnose a pancreatitis what should the measurements be

A

increased:
- urine/plasma amylase
- urine creatinin
=/+ plasma creatinin

220
Q

to diagnose a kidney failure what should be measured

A

increased:
- plasma amylase, plasma creatinin
decreased :
- urine amylase, urine creatinin

221
Q

What is the defense mechanism against active tyrosine enzymes

A

antiprotease molecules:
- alpha 1- antitrypsine
- alpha 2-macroglobulin

222
Q

Pancreatic acing atrophy mostly happens in which breed

A

German shepherd dogs

223
Q

what test is used to diagnose EPI

A

TLI- concentration < 2,5
BT-PABA (cannot be absorbed, needs to be broken up)

224
Q

A sudan III stain of faces allow us to see

A

undigested lipid particles

225
Q

giema stained smear allows us to see

A

undigested striated muscle

226
Q

lugol stained smear allows us to see

A

undigested starch (blue)

Lab Diagnostics (2 decks)

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