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Human Anatomy > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

fossa

A

concavity

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2
Q

foramen

A

short passage (doorway)

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3
Q

fissure

A

deep groove

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4
Q

fenestration

A

small openings/ windows

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5
Q

true anatomical position

A

body erect
head facing forward
arms hanging down and lateral to trunk w palms facing forward
legs slightly apart w feet/toes facing forward
feet flat on the ground

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6
Q

body cavities

A

dorsal, ventral

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7
Q

what does the dorsal cavity contain?

A

CNS- brain and spinal cord

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8
Q

what does the ventral cavity contain?

A

thoracic
abdominal
pelvic

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9
Q

what does the serous membrane line?

A

body cavities and organs (viscera)

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10
Q

parietal layer

A

outer layer of serous membrane lining interior wall of body cavity

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11
Q

visceral layer

A

inner layer of serous membrane lining external surface of organs

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12
Q

serous cavity

A

thin layer containing a very small amount of fluid that acts as a surfactant to reduce friction between the two layers when they slide against each other

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13
Q

scanning electron microscopy (SEM)

A

offers 3D views that allow for study of surface features

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14
Q

transmission electron miscroscope

A

2D views through thin-cut sections
optimal for visualizing internal structures of cell or within an organelle

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15
Q

The maximum resolution of a light microscope is 0.2-0.5 um. Which of the following would you be able to visualize?
mitochondrion
nucleus
ribosome
lysosome
microfilaments/ intermediate filaments/ microtubules

A

nucleus, mitochondrion, lysosome

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16
Q

nonmembranous organelles

A

ribosome, centrosome/centriole, cilia/flagella, cytoskeleton, nucleolus

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17
Q

membranous organelles w 2 lipid bilayer membranes

A

nucleus, mitochondria

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18
Q

membranous organelles w 1 lipid bilayer membrane

A

lysosome, peroxisome, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi body, plasma membrane

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19
Q

Nuclear envelope

A

contains nuclear pores that allow molecules to pass btwn nucleus and cytoplasm

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20
Q

function of nucleus

A

stores and transmits genetic information [DNA], sends genetic info to cytoplasm where ribosomes read mRNA to code for AA to make protein

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21
Q

nucleolus

A

spherical, densely stained filamentous structure within nucleus

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22
Q

nucleolus function

A

Site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis
Assembles RNA and protein components of ribosomal subunits, which then move to the cytoplasm through nuclear pores

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23
Q

ribosomes

A

packages of rRNA and protein

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24
Q

free ribosomes

A

synthesize proteins for local use within cell from mature mRNA

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25
Q

membrane-bound ribosomes

A

attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum and synthesize protein needed for export or for use within the cell membrane (i.e., integral, peripheral proteins)

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26
Q

where can ribosomes be found?

A

cytosol, attached to rough ER, mitochondria

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27
Q

rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

continuous w nuclear envelope w attached ribosomes that synthesize, processes and packages proteins for export from cell or to cell membrane

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28
Q

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

synthesize phospholipids [plasma membrane], steroids [plasma membrane, cholesterol], and fats

functions in detoxifying harmful substances like alcohol

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29
Q

golgi apparatus/body form and location

A

Series of cup-shaped, closely apposed, flattened, membranous sacs with associated vesicles typically situated near the nucleus/rough ER

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30
Q

golgi body function

A

Concentrates, modifies, and sorts proteins arriving from the rough ER prior to their distribution via vesicles that will remain in the cell (lysosome) or to the outside of the cell via exocytosis

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31
Q

lysosomes

A

-“membranous vesicles”, “stomach of the cell”
-formed in golgi complex and filled w digestive enzymes
-pumps in H+ ions until internal pH reaches 5.0

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32
Q

lysosome function

A

Digest foreign substances (i.e., bacteria) or digest/recycle components of the cell’s organelles (autophagy) or in cases of cell destruction (autolysis)

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33
Q

peroxisomes

A

Vesicles smaller than lysosomes and contain enzymes (catalases) that oxidize toxic organic material (alcohol, aldehydes, hydrogen peroxide = H2O2)

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34
Q

crista

A

inner membrane of mitochondria

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35
Q

who does mitochondrial DNA come from and why?

A

mother; sperm mitochondria broken off during fertilization and, therefore, fail to enter the egg cell

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36
Q

mitochondria function

A

ATP generators and can self-replicate if significant ATP is required by the cell to properly perform its functions

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37
Q

how much cell volume does cytosol take up?

A

55%

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38
Q

cytoskeleton

A

Network of protein filaments throughout the cytosol that are continuously reorganized that provides cell support and gives the cell its characteristic shape

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39
Q

types of filaments

A

microfilaments
intermediate filaments
microtubules

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40
Q

microfilaments

A

comprised of actin
locomotion and division

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41
Q

intermediate filaments

A

made up of multiple proteins
anchor organelles

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42
Q

microtubules

A

made of tubulin
flagella, cilia, and centrosomes

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43
Q

centrosome

A

found near nucleus
has 2 perpendicular centriols, 9 clusters of 3 (triplet) microtubules

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44
Q

centrosome function

A

Play vital role in formation of cilia & flagella basal bodies as well as development of the mitotic spindle during cell replication

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45
Q

cilia and flagella structure

A

shaft contains pairs of microtubules along with a central pair (9+2 array)

basal body derived from centriole, so microtubule arrangement is same (9+0)

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46
Q

what are the differences between cilia and flagella?

A

cilia- short, multiple projection from cell membrane, typically have coordinated mvmts

flagella- long, single, wavelike mvmts

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47
Q

cell membrane contents

A

phospholipids- 75%
cholesterol- 20%
glycolipids- 5%
proteins

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48
Q

cholesterol features and location

A

stiff steroid rings, within hydrophobic cell membrane around fatty acid tails of phospholipids

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49
Q

integral proteins

A

extend into or completely across cell membrane

function as channels, receptors, or interact w extracellular matrix

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50
Q

peripheral proteins

A

lie near intercellular side of membrane

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51
Q

are integral proteins hydrophobic, hydrophilic, or amphipathic

A

amphipathic

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52
Q

glycoproteins

A

sugar protein
faces extracellular fluid to form glycocalyx

53
Q

glycocalyx

A

found in cell membrane; protects cell from being digested, allows for tear film adherence

54
Q

molecules permeable in lipid bilayer

A

nonpolar, uncharged molecules
O2, CO2, steroids, small amount of water which flows through gaps that form in hydrophobic core of membrane

55
Q

molecules that go through transmembrane proteins

A

small and medium sized polar and charged particles

56
Q

total body water mostly ______ fluid

A

intracellular (67%)

57
Q

extracellular fluid is mostly ______

A

interstitial (26% of total body water, 75% of extracellular fluid)

58
Q

concentration higher intracellular

A

K+, ATP, proteins (amino acids)

59
Q

concentration higher extracellular

A

Na+, Cl-, Ca2+ (muscle contraction, neurotransmitter release), glucose

60
Q

hypertonic solution leads to

A

cell shrinkage

61
Q

hypotonic solution leads to

A

cell expansion; lysis/hemolysis of expansion is great enough

62
Q

The greater the difference in concentration, the ____ the rate of diffusion

A

faster

63
Q

the higher the temperature, the ____ the rate of diffusion

A

faster

64
Q

the larger the size of the diffusing substance, the _____ the rate of diffusion

A

slower

65
Q

an increase in surface area, ____ the rate of diffusion

A

increases

66
Q

increasing diffusion distance, ____ rate of diffusion

A

slows

67
Q

simple diffusion

A

small, nonpolar molecules

68
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

requires membrane protein transporter via ion channels or carrier protein

69
Q

types of facilitated diffusion channels

A

non-gated (leak) channels
chemical/ligand-gated
voltage-gated

70
Q

what passes through non-gated channels?

A

ions and water

71
Q

sodium channel function

A

-mediate fast depolarization of action potential and conduct electrical impulses throughout nerve, muscle, and heart
-slow rate and amplitude of initial, rapid depolarization of an action potential
-reduces cell excitability and conduction velocity

72
Q

sodium channel blockers

A

Class I antiarrhythmic medications, anesthetics, TTX/tetrodotoxin

73
Q

How does TTX/tetrodotoxin block Na+ channels?

A

irreversibly binds to binding site on Na+ channel, blocking ion influx into cell preventing depolarization
highly neurotoxic, found in pufferfish

74
Q

K+ channel function

A

K+ outflow from cell results in hyperpolarization during an action potential

75
Q

K+ channel blockers

A

-TEA (tetraethylammonium) previously used to treat heart arrythmias and HTN

-potassium chloride (KCl) used in lethal execution procedure (blocks repolarization that would allow for the initiation of another action potential

76
Q

Na+/K+ ATPase pump

A

used in primary active transport - pumps ions against concentration gradient
helps establish and maintain membrane potential of cell

77
Q

secondary active transport

A

uses electrochemical gradient across membrane via transporter ion (usually Na+)

78
Q

types of endocytosis

A

phagocytosis (cell eating), pinocytosis (cell drinking), receptor-mediated endocytosis (something binds to receptor on membrane)

79
Q

typical molecules using secondary active transport

A

polar: amino acids, glucose, some ions

80
Q

typical molecules using primary active transport

A

ions: Na+, K+, Ca2+, H+

81
Q

membrane potential

A

Represents the separation of electrical charges that exists across plasma membranes

82
Q

electrical charge (intracellularly and extracellularly)

A

intracellular- more negative adjacent to membrane
extracellular- more positive adjacent to membrane

83
Q

cells w excitable cell plasma membranes

A

muscle fibers and neurons

84
Q

typical resting membrane potential in neuron

A

-70 mV

85
Q

is resting membrane potentials same for other cell types?

A

no- cardiac muscle: -90mV, epithelial cells: -50mV

86
Q

graded potentials

A

Small deviations from resting potential of -70mV
occur in the receptive segment of the neuron (i.e., dendrites and soma)

87
Q

graded potential signal initiation

A

chemical (neurotransmitter, hormone) or mechanical stimulus via ligand-gated or mechanical-gated ion channels

88
Q

T/F: graded potentials signal propagation can travel long distances

A

limited to short distance (i.e. synapse to neuron cell body)

89
Q

neuron segments where action potential can occur

A

Initial segment (axon hillock)
Conductive segment (axon)- propagation
Transmissive segment

90
Q

membrane threshold

A

-55mV

91
Q

receptive segment of neuron

A

binding of neurotransmitter; produces graded potentials
dendrites and soma

92
Q

initial segment of neuron

A

axon hillock

summation of graded potentials
initiation of action potential

93
Q

conductive segment of neuron

A

axon

propagation of action potential

94
Q

transmissive segment of neuron

A

release of neurotransmitter

95
Q

depolarization triggered by

A

a stimulus from multiple graded potentials in the soma changes membrane charge at the axon hillock (initial segment) from -70mV up to the membrane threshold of -55mV

96
Q

As membrane reaches threshold, voltage-gated ___channels …

A

Na+; open and Na+ streams into the cell

97
Q

depolarization membrane potential

A

+30mV

98
Q

at full depolarization

A

voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated (remain open but no longer allow for passage of Na+ ions due to “gate” covering channel opening)

voltage-gated K+ channels slowly begin to open

99
Q

repolarization

A

outflow of K+ from cell returns membrane potential back to -70mV

100
Q

hyperpolarization

A

too much K+ leaves the cell, membrane potential reaches -90mV

returns to -70mV via ion leak channels and Na+/K+ ATPase pump

101
Q

refractory period

A

Time during an action potential when a neuron cannot generate another action potential

102
Q

absolute refractory period

A

Not even a strong stimulus will generate another action potential when the membrane potential is above the threshold of -55mV.

103
Q

relative refractory period

A

A strong-enough stimulus may generate another action potential even if the membrane potential has not yet returned to -70mV

104
Q

continuous conduction

A

Step-by-step depolarization of each portion along the entire length of the axolemma of unmyelinated axons

105
Q

saltatory conduction

A

Depolarization occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier of myelinated axons where there is a high density of voltage-gated ion channels

106
Q

is propagation speed of a nerve impulse related to stimulus strength

A

no

107
Q

A fibers

A

largest and provide fastest impulse propagation
are myelinated (somatic sensory + motor fibers)

108
Q

B fibers

A

medium-sized; somewhat myelinated
autonomic

109
Q

C fibers

A

smallest, slowest impulse propagation
unmyelinated
somatic sensory + autonomic fibers

110
Q

What type of axons allow for fastest conduction?

A

myelinated AND large-diameter

111
Q

what type of axons allow for slowest conduction of an impulse?

A

unmyelinated AND small-diameter

112
Q

synapse

A

locations where an axon of an upstream (presynaptic) neuron ‘connects’ with the dendrite(s) of a downstream (postsynaptic) neuron or effector (i.e., muscle, gland, etc.)

113
Q

mechanical synapses

A

Channels are pulled open by physical movement (cochlear hair cells, muscle spindles)

114
Q

electrical synapses

A

Currents (ions) pass through gap junctions rapidly between bound presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons (cardiac and smooth muscle, retina)

115
Q

chemical synapses

A

Most common type of synapse
presynaptic neuron contains synaptic vesicles (containing neurotransmitter), mitochondria, and the active zone
postsynaptic neuron is separated by the synaptic cleft and contains receptors that bind to a specific neurotransmitter

116
Q

where are neurotransmitters synthesized

A

axon terminal

117
Q

where are neurotransmitters stored?

A

clathrin- protein-coated membranous vesicles
formed by budding and pinching of cell membrane during endocytosis

118
Q

ways neurotransmitter can be removed

A
  1. reuptake- active transport back into presynaptic axon terminal
  2. transported to nearby glial cells for degradation
  3. diffuses down concentration gradient away from receptor site
  4. enzymatically degraded
119
Q

excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP)

A

result in greater influx of Na+ into the cell vs. outflow of K+
membrane potential becoming more positive/less negative than the resting membrane potential (depolarization)

120
Q

inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSP)

A

greater outflow of K+ and influx of Cl- vs. Na+ influx

net hyperpolarization of the cell (membrane potential becomes more negative than resting membrane potential)

121
Q

Spatial summation

A

Numerous EPSPs, IPSPs (or both) are initiated by different presynaptic neurons around the same time

122
Q

temporal summation

A

Numerous EPSPs, IPSPs (or both) are initiated by the same presynaptic neuron around the same time

123
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune disease where the body produces antibodies against the acetylcholine (Ach) receptor

124
Q

effects of myasthenia gravis on eye

A

dipolopia (double vision due to reduced ability for EOMs to move), ptosis

caused by damage to Ach receptor

125
Q

myasthenia gravis treatment

A

neostigmine (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)
allows more time for Ach to bind to still-functioning Ach postsynaptic receptors

126
Q

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

A

autoimmune disease that affects neurotransmission by producing antibodies against the myelin sheath of myelinated axons

plaques form in white matter of CNS

127
Q

effect of MS on eye

A

optic nerve can be affected bc it’s myelinated

color vision defects, blurred vision, peripheral vision defects

128
Q

what do botox injections do?

A

block synaptic release of neurotransmitter from presynaptic axon terminal which ultimately relaxes muscle (i.e., removes wrinkles, relieves eyelid spasms)

Human Anatomy (3 decks)

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