Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ANSC 310 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are effectors?

A

They are responsible for body responses (ex. muscles and glands)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the definition of total body water

A

The volume of water contained in all compartments of the body – composed of water and dissolved material
- subdivisions are call body fluids and are located in compartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the definition of physiology

A

the science of body functions (the study of the normal functioning of a living organism and its component parts, including all its chemical and physical processes) – literally means “Study of nature”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Intracellular fluid

A

All fluid contained within cells – including plasma and tissue fluid (interstitial fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Extracellular fluid

A

Fluid outside the cells but within the body (considered the “internal environment”) – including plasma and tissue fluid (interstitial fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Interstitial fluid

A

Aka tissue fluid, the fluid surrounding other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are negative and positive feedback systems and how do they relate to homeostasis

A

Negative: a self correcting response when a regulated variable decreases, the system responds to make it increase (regulator) and vice versa (opposes og stimulus)
Positive: the response of the system goes in the same direction as the change that set it in motion (magnified so response occurs much faster) (ex. cattle running = increased panic – on and on)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 2 major principles in physiology

A

1) simplification through classification

2) realizing that body functions are integrated (everything works together and relies on one another)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

4 names of cells

A

1) purkinje
2) pyramidal
3) basket
4) stellate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the 6 levels of organization to form an organism

A

1) chemical
2) cell
3) tissue
4) organ
5) organ system
6) organism
Each forms the next step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do neurons do?

A

transmit electrical signals – receive info from receptors, transmit info from muscles to glands and can process info
- use branches to transmit or receive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are epithelial cells?

A

Also know as the epithelium, they line external body surfaces such as skin, hollow body tubes and organs. They act as a barrier and as a transport membrane. They also form glands (endocrine and exocrine) that secrete hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Exocrine glands

A

They secrete hormones through ducts into hollow tubes (exo = outside) ex. sweat and salivary glands
*note: inside of the gland is called the lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Endocrine glands

A

They secrete hormones without ducts into the blood system (endo = inside) ex. pituitary glands and adrenal glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is connective tissue?

A 
An extracellular matrix made of fibrous proteins called elastin (elasticity) and collagen (strength) -- all while supporting other structures such as organs in the body
ex.
- bones: support to all body structures
- tendons: anchors muscles to bones
- ligaments: connects bones together
- blood: delivers oxygen to the body
- lymph: returns leaked materials into the blood
- fat cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do organs do and what are they composed of

A

They are composed of at least 2 different types of tissues that work together in systems that perform coordinated large scale functions, like nourishing the body (digestive sys) or protecting the body from attack (immune sys)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the external environment and what is the order of exchange

A

the external side of the epithelial body barrier
ex. surrounds external to the skin, air in your lungs, food in the stomach, urine in the bladder

order of exchange: external - blood - tissue fluid - cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the body fluid compartments?

A

extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid – body is divided into compartements that are separated by epithelial cells whose membranes are semi permeable (transport occurs between cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a regulated variable

A

The variable that is maintained by the body in homeostasis (blood glucose, plasma levels, temp, etc.) – it is regulated but can still go up and down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the set point

A

The expected value of the regulated variable (pH, glucose, temp) – what is the norm basically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are receptors?

A

Sensors which detect internal or external stimuli

ex. thermoreceptors, chemoreceptors, baroreceptors (blood vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are integrating centers?

A

With many found in the brain, they orchestrate an appropriate response for the effector to respond to stimuli (located in the hypothalamus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do signals do?

A

allow components to communicate - inputs (receptor to integrating center) and outputs (integrating center to receptor)
- are chemical (hormones) or via neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between passive and active transport?

A

Passive: occurs spontaneously in a downhill movement (down the force/outward)
Active: occurs non-spontaneously in an uphill movement, requiring cell E (ATP/ADP) (against the force/inward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some factors that affect the rate of active transport?

A

the speed of individual carrier proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What affects the permeability of membranes by simple diffusion?

A

Cholesterol, lipid solubility of diffusing substance, size and shape of the diffusing particle, membrane SA, lipid bilayer composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the difference between carriers and ion channels?

A

Carrier: a transmembrane protein that binds to specific molecules and transports them by changing their shape/confirmation
Ion channel: a transmembrane protein that functions as a passageway/pore that is substance specific (only certain ions - leak and gated channels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary active transport?

A

Primary: requires E from ATP hydrolysis to directly transport molecules
Secondary: leeches off primary, uses the E of a concentration or electrochemical gradient from previous active transport by primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 4 general functions of the cell membrane

A
  1. physical isolation (acts as a barrier between intra and extra fluid)
  2. Regulation of exchange with the environment (controls entry and exits)
  3. Communication between the cell and the environment (contain proteins that react to environment)
  4. Structural support (maintain cell shape)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The magnitude of electrical driving force depends on what? (x2)

A
  1. strength of the membrane potential

2. the amount of charge on a particle (its valency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is equilibrium potential (Ex)?

A

when chemical = electrical driving forces (when electrochemical = 0)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do molecules move across membranes (physically and energetically)

A

Phys: by diffusion and by crossing with a membrane protein (transport protein)
E: passive (no E) and active (E) transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 3 types of passive transport?

A
  1. Simple diffusion: move in and out of the lipid bilayer, no E required
  2. Facilitated diffusion: needs protein carrier with a binding site, no E
  3. Diffusion through channels: needs protein carrier and E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is diffusion?

A

The movement of molecules based on their thermal motion (the E each molecule has) from high to low concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is active transport?

A

The movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane using a pump (membrane protein) into a region of higher concentration, assisted by enzymes and requiring energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 4 types of cells and tissues in the animal body

A

Cells: neurons, muscle cells, epithelial cells, connective tissue cells
Tissues: nerve tissue, muscle tissue, epithelial tissue (epithelium), connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Plasma

A

The fluid surrounding blood cells (liquid part of blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Internal environment composed of

A

Extracellular fluid (plasma and tissue fluid/interstitial fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Homeostasis – what is the importance?

A

The ability to maintain a relatively constant internal environment - a dynamic constant
Regulating: temperature (narrow limits), volume (of extracellular fluid), composition (of elements in the body)
- 9/10 organs contribute to homeostasis (not reproductive system - works to maintain species homeostasis)
- disruption is the basis for disease and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do muscle cells do and what are the 3 types

A

Contract both voluntarily or involuntarily creating mechanical force

  1. skeletal (voluntary)
  2. cardiac (involuntary)
  3. smooth (involuntary)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where is material exchanged between the internal and external environments?

A
  • lungs
  • gastrointestinal tract (through absorption and secretion)
  • kidneys (through filtration, reabsorption and secretion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is an error signal

A

The difference between the value of the set point and regulated variable (between expected value of regulated and regulated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 4 components that regulate and enable homeostasis

A
  1. receptors (sensor cells all over the body)
  2. integrating centers (aka hypothalamus, signals an effector to respond to stimuli)
  3. effectors
  4. signals (electrical, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the roles of chemical, electrical and electrochemical driving forces in passive transport?

A

Chemical: pushes particles “down” the gradient (from high to low concentration) across the membrane
Electrical: occurs when there’s an unequal distribution of charges across the membrane (ion: charged / anion: neg / cation: pos) giving the membrane a membrane potential (Vm - difference in electrical potential)
Electrochemical: a combo of chemical and electrical (the total force acting on particles)
- cells are negative inside and positive outside (charged)
- most cell’s voltage is -70 mV = Vm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some factors that affect the rate at which a substance can be passively transported across a membrane?

A

The concentration gradient and the membrane (how permeable is it?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

4 factors affecting the rate of simple diffusion

A

magnitude of driving force, membrane surface area, membrane permeability, membrane charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

Passive transport through a carrier (transmembrane protein) that has binding sites for particular particles and binds one side at a time (limit at a plateau whereas simple diffusion is a straight line - no limitations since theres no carriers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are some factors that affect the rate of transport for facilitated diffusion?

A

Carrier speed, number of carriers and the magnitude of the concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are auqaporins?

A

Channels that only water can pass through - most water passes through these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a pump in a membrane?

A
  • a type of membrane protein
  • functions as transport protein and enzyme
  • can use E from ATP to change its shape
  • contains specific binding sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do symport and antiport mean

A

Symport: same direction
Antiport: different directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 5 major functional classes of chemical messengers? (who releases and how do they get to the target cell)

A
  1. hormone – long range chemical messenger
  2. neurotransmitter – communicates among adjacent cells
  3. neuropeptide – protein sequence which acts as a hormone/neurotransmitter
  4. pheromone – a chemical factor that triggers a social response in members of same species
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How many cells are in a cow

A

370 trillion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 2 general mechanisms of intercellular communicaiton?

A
  1. Directly through gap junctions
  2. indirectly through chemical messengers
    - ligand gets made at the source then travels to the target
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How does a gap junction work?

A

Direct communication through connexions between the cytosol of 2 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do chemical messengers work?

A

Produced by a source cell, they travel indirectly through interstitial fluid to the receptor of a target cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a ligand

A

A chemical messenger released into interstitial fluid or blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are 3 ways to classify a chemical messenger

A
  1. by function
  2. chemical class
  3. solublility properties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the 3 messengers

A
  1. paracrines - chemical for nearby cell (subclass being autocrines, chemical for itself)
  2. neurotransmitters - a messenger produced by neurons
  3. hormones - produced by endocrine cells, secreted into the blood by interstitial fluid diffusion (subclass being neurohormone, produced by neurons and secreted into the blood through diffusion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Lipophobic ligand vs Lipophilic ligand

A

Lipophobic: likes water, not fat - doesn’t cross cell membrane easily, requiring a pump or channel
- target response is enzyme activation and membrane permeability changes to certain ions
Lipophilic: likes fat, not water - goes through lipid bilayer membrane easily
- target response is gene activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What 4 Amino acids function as messengers?

A
  1. glutamate
  2. aspartate
  3. glycine
  4. Gamma-aminobutyricacid (GAMA)
    - all are lipophobic and target receptors on the cell membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Characteristics of Amines and where do they come from

A
  • lipophobic (except thyroid hormones)
  • target receptors are on the cell membrane
  • made or derived from an amino acid and contain an amine group NH2
    ex. thyroiid hormones, histamine, serotonin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

characteristics of peptide/protein messengers, what are they made out of and where are the target receptors?

A
  • *-Most abundant type of ligand**
  • Lipophobic
  • Target receptors on the cell membrane
  • Made of chains of amino acids
  • -Peptide ligand (less than 50 amino acids)
  • -Protein ligand (more than 50 amino acids)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are steroid ligands, where are they derived from and what are their functions?

A
  • Lipophilic
  • All are derived from cholesterol
  • All steroid messengers (ligands) function as hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are Eicosanoid ligands and where are they derived from

A
  • Lipophilic
  • Intracellular target receptors
  • Most are derived from arachidonic acid, a cell membrane phospholipid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Lipophilic ligands characteristics and what are they released by

A
  • synthesized on demand
  • immediate release from source
  • release rate depends on synthesis (cannot be stored / contained since they permeate membranes)
  • released by exocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are amino acids made out of, where are they synthesized, where are they stored and how are they released

A
  • made from glucose, glutamate or 3-phosphoglycerate
  • synthesized within neurons
  • stored in vesicles then released by exocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where are amines produced, where are they released and what are some examples

A
  • produced in cytosol, stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis
    ex. tyrosine, dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where are peptides and proteins stored and how are they released

A

stored in secretory vesicles, released by exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where do steroids come from

A

They are derived from a cholesterol molecule (cannot be stored)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Where do eicosanoids come from and what are their 2 major synthetic pathways

A

Derived from arachadonic acid

  1. cyclooxygenae pathway
  2. lipoxygenase pathway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the difference between diffusion through interstitial fluid and blood-bourne transport

A

inter: source and target are close, quickly degraded
blood: source and target are at a distance
- lipophobic dissolve in plasma
- lipophilic bind to carrier protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is messenger half life?

A

time for a chemical to decrease its concentration by half

  • indicator for how long a hormone is active in the body
  • dissolved in plasma = short half life
  • bound to plasma protein = long half life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is signal transduction

A

The transfer of molecular signals from the exterior to the interior of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where do lipophilic/lipophobic ligands bind to a receptor

A

philic: within the cell
phobic: on the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does down regulation mean

A
  • reduces number of receptors
  • cell less sensitive to hormone and tolerance develops
  • happens with long-term exposure to high hormone concentrations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does up regulation mean

A

number of receptors is increased; sensitivity is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the 2 types of signal transduction?

A
  1. intracellular-mediated response

2. membrane-bound receptor-mediated response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Intracellular-Mediated response characteristics and how do their cells respond?

A

Characteristic of hydrophobic/lipophilic ligands
Receptors are in the cytosol or nucleus
Cell response is via gene activation or inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Membrane-Bound receptor-mediated response characteristics and where are its receptors?
3 examples

A

Used by hydrophilic/lipophobic ligands
Receptors on the cell surface of the plasma membrane
response due to the movement of ions or phosphorylation of enzymes
i.e
Channel-linked receptors
Enzyme-linked receptors
G protein-linked receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What happens during fast ligand-gated channels

A
  • Receptor and channel– same protein
  • Action is direct
  • Binding of ligand causes the channel to open or close
  • change in transport of ions through the channel causes the target response
  • ion movement down the concentration gradient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How do enzyme linked receptors participate in cell signaling

A

participate in cell signaling through extracellular ligand binding activates the enzyme - direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

G-protein linked receptors

A

slow ligand gated channels where the receptor and the channel are linked by a g protein
- when the ligand binds, it activates the g protein which in turn activates the channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are G proteins?

A

Regulatory proteins (molecular switches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the first and second messengers of g proteins

A
  1. ECF - extracellular fluid
  2. intracellular messenger (gets activated by the first messenger which activated amplifier which activates second messenger – signal amplification)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the most common type of second messenger system

A

Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the primary endocrine gland and which hormone is it associated with?

A

hypothalamus, pituitary, pineal, thymus, thyroid, parathyroids, pancreas, adrenal glands, ovaries, testes, placenta
- main function is to produce hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the secondary endocrine gland and which hormone is it associated with?

A

heart, liver, stomach, kidney, small intestine, skin, adipose tissue
- produces hormones but it isn’t their first priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the role of the infundibulum

A

It connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

Hormone produced by the neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus that stimulates water reabsorption from kidney tubule cells into the blood and vasoconstriction of arterioles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

oxytocin

A

A hormone released by the posterior pituitary that stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth and milk ejection during suckling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

tropic hormones

A

hormones that stimulate other glands to release their hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Prolactin Releasing Hormone (PRH)

A

stimulates release of prolactin (stimulates mammary gland development and milk secretion)

94
Q

Prolactin inhibiting hormone (PIH)

A

aka dopamine, Inhibits secretion of prolactin (PRL)

95
Q

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

A

a hypothalamic hormone that regulates the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary

96
Q

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

A

Promotes secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

- then releases hormones that deal with metabolism when the body is stressed

97
Q

Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

A

Promotes secretion of growth hormone (GH) and stimulates the secretion of insulin-like growth factors (IGF’s) by the liver

98
Q

Growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH)

A

(somatostatin) inhibits release of GH and decreases release of IGF by the liver

99
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

A

Promotes secretion of gonadotropins, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)

100
Q

short loop negative feedback

A

a pituitary hormone feeds back to decrease hormone secretion by the hypothalamus
- prevents buildup

101
Q

Pineal gland

A

secretes melatonin

- involved in circadian rhythms and production

102
Q

What 2 thyroid hormones does the thyroid gland produce

A

T4: tetraiodothyronine
T3: triiodothyronine
- both act to regulate body metabolism

103
Q

Calcitonin

A

Regulates and lowers blood calcium levels

104
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

regulates and increases calcium levels in the blood

- acts on the bones, kidneys and intestines

105
Q

What is the thymus and where is it located?

A

The thymus is the site of T cell maturation and regulates t cell (part of the immune function) function – located in the top part of the chest

106
Q

adrenal glands (suprarenal glands)

A

located on the superior surface of each kidney; the adrenal cortex secretes steroid hormones, and the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine

107
Q

What are the 3 layers of the adrenal glands

A

outer: zona glomerulosa
middle: zona fasciculata
inner: zona reticularis

108
Q

What do Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) do?

A

regulates sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion

- a mineral cortecoid

109
Q

What do Glucocorticoids (cortisol) do?

A

Regulates metabolism and bodys response to stress

- comes from the zonae fasciculata and reticularis

110
Q

What do Sex hormones (androgens) do?

A

regulates reproductive functions

111
Q

What are chromaffin cells and when do they respond?

A

the cells in the adrenal medulla that secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine
- responds during emergencies with a release of adrenaline into the blood circulation

112
Q

What are the Exocrine functions of the pancreas

A

acinar and duct cells secrete enzymes and fluid into the gastrointestinal tract

  • rich in bicarbonate
  • neutralizes fluid from the stomach into the duodenum
113
Q

What are the Endocrine functions of the pancreas

A

Islets of Langerhans: beta cells produce insulin, alpha cells release glucagon
- in preganant women, helps determine pregnancy (chorionic gonadotropin in humans through estrogens and progesterone)

114
Q

What do Delta cells secrete

A

secrete somatostatin (inhibits insulin and glucagon secretion)

115
Q

What do F cells secrete

A

secrete pancreatic polypeptide (inhibits gallbladder contraction and pancreatic exocrine secretion)

116
Q

Testes function

A

produce sperm, androstenedione and testosterone

117
Q

Ovaries function

A

Produce oocytes, estradiol, progesterone, estrogen

118
Q

What are the 3 factors that affect the concentration of a hormone in the blood?

A
  1. rate of hormone secretion
  2. amount of hormone bound to the plasma membrane
  3. the rate of hormone metabolism (degradation)
119
Q

Where is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) located and what is its function

A

A small brain structure that uses input from the retina to synchronize its own rhythm with the daily cycle of light and dark; the body’s way of monitoring the change from day to night.
- has to do with melatonin secretion

120
Q

circadian rhythm

A

the biological clock; regular bodily rhythms that occur on a 24-hour cycle
- responds to changes in the environment

121
Q

What are 3 sites of hormone metabolism (degradation)

A
  1. target cell
  2. blood (broken down by enzymes)
  3. liver (degraded by enzymes)
122
Q

What are the 2 parts of the nervous system?

A
  1. Central Nervous System
    - consists of the brain and spinal cord
    - receives and processes info from the sensory organs and viscera
    - makes decisions and determines the internal and externals environment state
    - site of learning, memory and emotions
  2. Peripheral Nervous System
    - consists of neurons that provide communication between the CNS and organs
    - afferent and efferent
123
Q

afferent vs efferent (PNS)

A

Afferent: transmits sensory and visceral info from the organs to the CNS (back)
- includes: somatic and special senses and visceral info
- mostly pseudo-unipolar neurons in a ganglion
Efferent: transmits information from the CNS to organs in the periphery (effector organs – muscles and glands) (there)
- somatic and autonomic

124
Q

somatic vs autonomic nervous system

A

Somatic: voluntary (SNS)
- motor neurons that regulate skeletal muscles
Autonomic: involuntary (ANS)
- neurons that regulate the function of internal organs
- parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems

125
Q

What is the Enteric nervous system and what does it communicate with

A

network of neurons in the walls of the digestive tract

- communicates with the autonomic / parasympathetic nervous systems

126
Q

Sympathetic vs Parasympathetic nervous system

A

The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for intense physical activity and is often referred to as the fight-or-flight response.
The parasympathetic nervous system has almost the exact opposite effect and relaxes the body and inhibits or slows many high energy functions.
- opperate in tandem to maintain homeostasis

127
Q

What is a neuron?

A

Building blocks of the nervous system, communicate by transmitting electrical impulses and signals called action potentials

  • excitable
  • primary class of cell found in the nervous system
128
Q

What is the soma made up of and what does it do? (soma = cell body)

A

contains: nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus and ribosomes
role: protein synthesis and cellular metabolism

129
Q

What are dendrites?

A

receives signals from other neurons at synapses

signal goes from dendrites to the axon terminal

130
Q

What is the axon’s role and what is it composed of?

A

role: to transmit electrical impulses called action potentials
beginning of the axon: axon hillock
- where it originates and where action potentials are initiated
End of the axon: axon terminal
- releases neurotransmitter

131
Q

Leak channels

A

channels that are always open and allow ions to move along their gradient
- for sodium and potassium

132
Q

ligand-gated channels

A

open in the presence of a specific binding substance, usually a hormone or neurotransmitter
- located in the dendrites and cell body

133
Q

voltage gated channels

A

open and close in response to changes in membrane potential

  • for sodium, potassium and calcium
  • located throughout neuron but mostly in the axon hillock for sodium and potassium and in the axon terminal for calcium
134
Q

Pseudo-unipolar neurons

A

have a single process extending from the cell body – mostly sensory neurons

135
Q

Bipolar neurons

A

A neuron that has only two projections (one axon/one dendrite) from the cell body
- only found in the retina of the eye and the olfactory (smell) epithelium

136
Q

multipolar neurons

A

neuron with one axon and many dendrites; most common type of neuron

137
Q

interneurons

A

neurons located only in the CNS and account for 99% of the neurons in the body
- perform all the functions if the CNS (process info, create and send commands, complex functions)

138
Q

What is the nuclei?

A

cluster of neuron cell bodies in CNS

139
Q

tract vs nerve

A

tract: bundle of axons in CNS
nerve: bundle of axons in PNS

140
Q

Commissures

A

axons travel together in bundles from one brain hemisphere to the other

141
Q

Nerve vs gangli

A

nerve: bundle of axons in PNS
ganglia: bundle of neurons in the PNS

142
Q

What are the 5 types of glial cells?

A
  1. Schwann Cells.
  2. Oligodendrocytes.
  3. Astrocytes.
  4. Microglia.
  5. Ependymal cells.
  • secondary class of cell found in the nervous system
  • provides structural integrity to the nervous system and chemical and anatomical support to neurons to carry on their functions
143
Q

What are oligodendrocytes?

A

A type of glial cell that forms insulating myelin sheaths around the axons of neurons in the central nervous system. (allows it to transmit action potentials easier and faster)

144
Q

What are schwann cells?

A

A type of glial cell that forms insulating myelin sheaths around the axons of neurons in the peripheral nervous system.

145
Q

What is the resting membrane potential?

A

-70mV (for neurons)
described as the potential inside the cell relative to that outside of the cell
- established by Na/K pump

146
Q

What 2 factors determine resting membrane potential?

A
  1. concentration gradients for sodium and potassium

2. membrane permeability to those ions

147
Q

What does equilibrium mean?

A

when there is no net force for an ion to move across a membrane
chemical force = negative electrical force = 0

148
Q

What is equilibrium for potassium and which way does it go in the cell?

A

61 mV x log (4mV/140mV)
= -94 mV
diffuses out of the cell
***membrane is much more permeable to potassium than it is to sodium and more potassium leaves the cell than sodium enters
located inside the cell with organic anions

149
Q

What is equilibrium for sodium and which way does it go in the cell?

A

61 mV x log (145/15)
= +60 mV
diffuses into the cell
located outside of the cell with chloride (Cl)

150
Q

What are the properties of graded potentials

A
  • proportionate in amplitude to the size of the input stimulus
  • depolarizing or hyperpolarizing
  • temporal or spatial
  • don’t require voltage gated channels
151
Q

How do graded potentials in neurons trigger an action potential

A

Graded potentials bring the membrane to the threshold and act as a regenerative mechanism – membrane depolarization to threshold

152
Q

What is the ionic basis of an action potential

A

the action potential is triggered by a graded potential that causes the membrane to depolarize until it reaches the threshold for activation of voltage-gated sodium channels

153
Q

What are the gating mechanisms for voltage gated channels (4 steps)

A

activation, deactivation, inactivation and reactivation for Na and K channels

154
Q

Propagation of action potentials

A

goes from the soma to the axon terminal, depolarizing as it goes along

155
Q

What is the purpose of a graded potential?

A

they determine if an action potential will occur or not

156
Q

Excitatory vs Inhibitory graded potentials

A

Excitatory: depolarizing (bump goes up/positive)
- action potential
Inhibitory: hyperpolarizing (bump goes down/negative)
- no action potential

157
Q

Action Potentials

A

large changes of membrane potential (voltage), communicate over long distances and don’t decrease in size

  • travel along axons from the cell body to the axon terminal (afferent: from receptor to terminal)
  • excitable membranes can generate them
  • looks like a big bump on the diagram
158
Q

What does threshold mean?

A

the level of depolarization necessary to elicit an action potential

159
Q

What does temporal summation mean (graded potential)?

A

Repeated same stimulus close together in time (second one happens before the first is even over)
- triggered from one

160
Q

What does spatial summation mean (graded potential)?

A

When different stimulli overlap in time

- triggered from many close together

161
Q

Sub vs suprathreshold

A

Subthreshold: doesn’t generate an action potential (not quite enough)
- decreases in strength
Suprathreshold: generates an action potential

162
Q

Action Potentials

A

large changes of membrane potential (voltage), communicate over long distances and don’t decrease in size

  • travel along axons from the cell body to the axon terminal (afferent: from receptor to terminal)
  • excitable membranes can generate them
  • unidirectional
  • looks like a big bump on the diagram
163
Q

What is depolarization caused by?

A

by an increased Na+ permeability

164
Q

What happens with Na and K channels at the action potential (top of the hill)

A

Na channels close while K channels open

165
Q

What are the permeabilities for K and Na at resting

A

K is 25x stronger than Na

166
Q

What 2 gates are associated with Na

A
  1. Activation gate (always closed, positive feedback (cell is depolarized, activation gates remain open), opens at threshold and depolarization and is voltage dependent) – located at the axon hillock and axon
  2. Inactivation gate (voltage and time dependant, close during repolarization, open during depolarization)
167
Q

How do voltage gated potassium channels operate

A

they have one channel that is voltage and time dependent that runs on negative feedback

168
Q

What is the threshold

A

-55mV
the minimum depolarization necessary to induce the regenerative mechanism for the opening of Na channels
- supra and regular threshold will cause an action potential

169
Q

What is the refractory period?

A

the period of decreased excitability following an action potential

170
Q

Absolute vs relative refractory periods

A

Absolute: all of depolarization and most of repolarization phases, second action potential cannot be generated and sodium gates are inactivated

Relative: last part of the repolarization and hyperpolarization phases (longer than absolute)

  • a second AP can be generated with a stronger stimulus
  • due to the increased permeability to K+ that continues beyond the repolarization phases
171
Q

What is the all or none principle when it comes to refractory periods?

A
  • action potentials cannot sum
  • due to the absolute refractory period prevents an overlap of AP

*** states that the strength of a response is not dependent on the strength of the stimulus

172
Q

How is information about stimulus intensity stored?

A

Encoded by changes in the frequency of AP or the # of AP generated

173
Q

How are action potentials “transported” aka propagated

A

moves down from the axon hillock to the axon terminal
- flows to adjacent areas of the plasma membrane by electronic conduction (the passive spread of voltage changes along a neuron)

174
Q

How does transportation of AP through myelinated vs unmyelinated axons vary?

A

Myelinated: requires activation of voltage-gated sodium channels only in the nodal areas
Unmyelinated: requires activation of voltage-gated sodium channels along the entire length of the axon

175
Q

How does transportation of AP through myelinated vs unmyelinated axons vary?

A

Myelinated: requires activation of voltage-gated sodium channels only in the nodal areas (nodes of ranvier)
Unmyelinated: requires activation of voltage-gated sodium channels along the entire length of the axon

176
Q

What are 3 factors that’ll affect propagation (aka AP transportation)

A
  1. the refractory period
  2. axon diameter
  3. myelination
177
Q

Absolute vs relative refractory periods

A

Absolute: all of depolarization and most of repolarization phases, second action potential cannot be generated and sodium gates are inactivated
- caused by the inactivation of sodium channel that were originally opened to depolarize the membrane

Relative: interval of time during which a second action potential can be initiated (requiring a greater stimulus than before)

  • last part of the repolarization and hyperpolarization phases (longer than absolute)
  • a second AP can be generated with a stronger stimulus
  • due to the increased permeability to K+ that continues beyond the repolarization phases
  • caused by the inactivation gate of the Na+ channel
178
Q

How does communication occur across chemical synapses?

A

At a chemical synapse, an action potential triggers the presynaptic neuron to release neurotransmitters.
- communicate via action potentials and neurotransmitters

179
Q

How are neurotransmitters released in synapses?

A

nerve impulse arrives at the presynaptic terminals causing movement towards the presynaptic membrane or synaptic vesicles, which fuse with the membrane and release a neurotransmitter.

180
Q

Fast vs. Slow responses (at synapses)

A

Fast: electrical
Slow: chemical

181
Q

What is neural integration? what does the axon hillock do in this process

A

a way of opening up the communication pathways in the brain that may have become blocked or shut down because of stress
- axon hillock is the manager, sums the total inhibitory and excitatory signals

182
Q

What is a synapse?

A

A structure that allows a neuron or nerve cell to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron or effector organ (muscle/gland)
- connects presynaptic and postsynaptic cells together

183
Q

What are the 2 parts of a synapse?

A
  1. axon terminal of the presynaptic cell

2. membrane of the postsynaptic cell

184
Q

What type of cells are postsynaptic

A

neurons or nonneuronal cells

185
Q

What are electrical synapses?

A

two neurons that are linked together by gap junctions

  • mechanical and electrically conductive link
  • bidirectional
186
Q

Where are electrical synapses located?

A
  • retina. ofthe eye
  • certain areas of the cortex
  • areas of the brainstem that regulate breathing
  • hypothalamic neurons
187
Q

Where are electrical synapses located?

A
  • retina of the eye
  • certain areas of the cortex
  • areas of the brainstem that regulate breathing
  • hypothalamic neurons
188
Q

What is a synapse?

A

A structure that allows a neuron or nerve cell to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron or effector organ (muscle/gland)

  • connects presynaptic and postsynaptic cells together
  • most are chemical
189
Q

What are electrical synapses?

A

two neurons that are linked together by gap junctions

  • pass an electrical signal / current from the cytoplasm of one cell to another through gap junction pores
  • mechanical and electrically conductive link
  • bidirectional
190
Q

What is the synaptic cleft?

A

the area between a presynaptic and postsynaptic cell (small space with fluid)

191
Q

What are the 4 types of neuron to neuron synapses?

A
  1. axodendritic
  2. axosomatic
  3. axoaxonic
  4. dendro-dendritic
192
Q

Why do synaptic delays occur?

A

caused by changes in calcium and the release of the neutrotransmitter
- takes time to open, enter and trigger release of the neurotransmitter from vesicles

193
Q

What are channel linked receptors? aka ligand gated ion channels

A

aka ionotropic receptors

  • have the receptor and transducing functions as part of the same protein molecule
  • fast and direct responses
194
Q

What are g-protein linked receptors?

A

largest family of cell surface receptors

  • aka metabotrophic receptors
  • slow acting responses
  • mediate responses to signal molecules
195
Q

What does a fast response in a postsynaptic neuron mean?

A

occurs when a neurotransmitter binds to a channel link receptor
- always related to the opening of ion channels

196
Q

What is a postsynaptic potential?

A

aka a graded potential - a fast response resulting in a change in membrane potential (electricity) in response to receptor-neurotransmitter binding

197
Q

What does a slow response in a postsynaptic neuron mean?

A

G-protein receptor response

  • can trigger the opening/closing of ion channels
  • can also trigger the activation/inhibition of a second messenger system
198
Q

What are the 3 G-proteins?

A

alpha, beta and gamma

199
Q

What are ionotropic receptors?

A

membrane-bound receptor proteins that respond to ligand binding by opening an ion channel and allowing ions to flow into the cell, either increasing or decreasing the likelihood that an action potential will fire

200
Q

What are the 2 types of postsynaptic potentials and how do they affect synapses?

A

Excitatory: depolarizing – more likely to produce an action potential
Inhibitory: hyperpolarizing – less likely to produce an action potential (membrane stabilization)

201
Q

What does depolarizing a postsynaptic cell do?

A

brings the membrane potential closer to the threshold (-55mV)

202
Q

What are the concentrations during a fast EPSP?

A

sodium electrochemical forces are stronger than potassium, meaning more sodium moves in than potassium moves out (negative inside - depolarization)

203
Q

What is divergence?

A

It allows a neuron to communicate with multiple others in a network
* think diverges out

204
Q

What is convergence?

A

it allows a neuron to receive communication from multiple other neurons
* think converges in

205
Q

What 2 things determine if an AP is generated or not?

A

the axon hillock and threshold

206
Q

What is neural integration?

A

the summing of input from various synapses at the axon hillock of the postsynaptic neuron to determine if it’ll generate AP’s

207
Q

What is summation and what are the 2 types?

A

adding effects of action potentials

  • to create an AP
    1. temporal (one synapse releases NT over a period of time – AA creates it)
    2. spatial (several presynaptic neurons release NT at the same time – AB creates it)
208
Q

What are neurotransmitters

A

chemical messengers of neurons

209
Q

What are 4 of the most common neurotransmitters?

A
  1. Acetylcholine (choline derivative)
  2. Biogenic Amines (dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine, serotonin, histamine)
  3. Amino acid neurotransmitters (glutamate, aspartate, glycine, GABA)
  4. Neuropeptides (TRH, Vasopressin, oxytocin, endorphins, etc.)
210
Q

What is the most abundant neurotransmitter and where is it found

A

located in the PNS and CNS however it is most abundant in the PNS
- found in efferent neurons of both somatic and autonomic branches

211
Q

Where is acetylcholine synthesized and what enzyme is used?

A

in the cytosol of the axon terminal – uses choline acetyl transferase (CAT)
acetyl CoA + choline = acetylcholine + CoA

212
Q

Where is acetylcholine degraded and what enzyme is used?

A

occurs in the synaptic cleft – uses acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
acetylcholine = acetate + choline

213
Q

What is a cholinergic synapse?

A

a synapse using acetylcholine

214
Q

What are the 2 types of cholinergic receptors?

A
  1. nicotinic cholinergic receptors (ionotropic – 2 binding sites – nicotine binds to it)
  2. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors (metabotropic – muscarine binds to it)
215
Q

Where are nicotinic receptors located? (x3)

A
  1. skeletal muscles
  2. ANS
  3. CNS
216
Q

Where are muscarinic receptors located? (x3)

A
  1. smooth and cardiac muscles
  2. endo and exocrine glands
  3. CNS
217
Q

What are biogenic amines?

A

Products of amino acids (NH2)

218
Q

what are the 3 catecholamines, where do they come from and why?

A

they are a group of substances released into the blood in response to physical or emotional stress

  • derived from tyrosine
    1. dopamine
    2. norepinephrine
    3. epinephrine

1 - CNS
2/3 - smooth/caridac muscle cells and CNS

219
Q

Where is serotonin derived from and where is its receptor?

A

derived from tryptophan, CNS

220
Q

Where is histamine derived from and where is its receptor?

A

from histidine, CNS

221
Q

What 2 enzymes degrade biogenic amines?

A
  1. monoamine oxidase (MAO)
    - found in synaptic cleft, mitochondria of the axon terminal and glial cells
  2. catechol-o-methyltransferase (COMT)
    - found in synaptic cleft
222
Q

What are the 3 steps of synthesis of biogenic amines

A
  1. begins in the cytosol of the axon terminal
  2. packaged into synaptic vessels
  3. released
223
Q

Beta 2 has an affinity for what?

A

epinephrine

224
Q

Alpha 1/2 and Beta 1 have affinity for what?

A

norepinephrine

225
Q

Beta 3 has an affinity for what?

A

equal amounts for epinephrine and norepinephrine

226
Q

Where is serotonin located and what are its primary functions?

A

located in the brainstem, functions in sleep regulation and as a mood stabalizer

227
Q

Where is histamine located and what are its primary functions?

A

located in the hypothalamus, gets released when the immune system is defending against a potential allergen
(paracrine actions)

228
Q

What amino acid neurotransmitters are excitatory and which are inhibitory?

A

excitatory: aspartate and glutamate
inhibitory: glycine and GABA

229
Q

What are neuropeptides?

A

short chains of amino acids, also known as hormones

  • modulate responses caused by other neutrotransmitters
  • synthesized in the cell body and transported by vesicles to the axon terminal
    ex. opium (inhibitory), TRH, endorphins, oxytocin, vasopressin, substance p
230
Q

What is the difference between neuropeptides and neurotransmitters?

A

peptides: large, slow acting, prolonged action
transmitters: small, fast acting, short term response

231
Q

What hormone does alpha cells secrete?

A

glucagon – controls blood sugar levels

232
Q

What hormone does beta cells secrete?

A

Insulin – allows the body to use glucose for energy

ANSC 310 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions