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Chapter 10: Balance Training Concepts > MID-TERM STUDY GUIDE > Flashcards

MID-TERM STUDY GUIDE Flashcards

0
Q

3 Stages of Alarm Reaction?

A
  • Alarm Reaction
  • Resistance Development
  • Exhaustion
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1
Q
  • A term used to describe how the body responds and adapts to stress.
A

General Adaptation Syndrome

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2
Q
  • Initial reaction to stressor such as increased oxygen and blood supply to the necessary areas of the body.
A

Alarm Reaction

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3
Q
  • Increased functional capacity to adapt to stressor such as increasing motor unit recruitment.
A

Resistance Development

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4
Q
  • A prolonged intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury.
A

-Exhaustion

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5
Q

-Principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it.

A

Principle of Specificity or Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands (SAID principle)

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6
Q

What are the 3 main adaptations that occur from resistance training?

A
  • Stabilization
  • muscular endurance
  • hypertrophy
  • strength
  • power
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7
Q

-the human movement system’s ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements.

A

Stabilization

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8
Q

The ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time.

A

Muscular Endurance

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9
Q

Enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension.

A

Hypertrophy

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10
Q
  • the ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome as external load.
A

Strength

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11
Q

The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest time.

A

Power

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12
Q

What are some examples of Resistance Training Systems?

A
  • single-set
  • multiple-set
  • pyramid
  • superset
  • drop-sets
  • circuit training
  • Peripheral heart action
  • Split-routine
  • Vertical loading
  • Horizontal loading
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13
Q
  • Performing one set of each exercise
A

Single-set

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14
Q

Performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise

A

Multiple - set

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15
Q
  • Increasing (or decreasing) weight with each set
A

Pyramid

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16
Q
  • Performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest
A

Superset

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17
Q

-Performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set.

A

Drop-Sets

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18
Q

Performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest.

A

Circuit Training

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19
Q

-A variation of circuit training that uses different exercises (upper and lower body) for each set through the circuit.

A

Peripheral heart action.

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20
Q
  • A routine that trains different body parts on separate days
A

Split Routine

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21
Q

Performing exercises on the OPT template one after the other, in a vertical manner down the template.

A

Vertical Loading

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22
Q
  • Performing all sets of an exercise (or body parts) before moving on to the next exercise (or body part)
A

Horizontal loading

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23
Q

Give example of a portion of a Peripheral Heart Action Workout.

A

Stabilization Strength Power

  1. Ball dumbbell chest press 1.Bench press 1.Med. ball chest pass
  2. Ball squat 2.Barbell Squat 2. Squat Strength
  3. Single-leg cable row 3. Seated row 3.Soccer throw
  4. Step-up to balance 4. Roman dead lift 4.Power step-up
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24
Q

What would be the immediate progression of a single-leg dummbbell curl?

A

-single leg alternating arm

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25
Q

What are the 3 progressions, in order, for a ball-squat, curl to press?

A
  1. alternating arm
  2. one arm
  3. single leg
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26
Q

What is the ONE regression and TWO progressions for the Multiplanar Step-Up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press?

A

Regression -
1.Omit balance

Progression -

  1. Frontal plane
  2. Transverse plane
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27
Q

What are the 3 regressions and 3 progressions for the push up?

A

Regressions Progressions

  1. on knees 1. Lower extremities on ball
  2. hands on bench, feet on floor 2. Hands on med. balls
  3. hands on wall, feet on floor 3. Hands on stability balls
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28
Q

What are the 1 regression and 3 progressions of the single-leg dumbbell curl?

A

Regression Progression

  1. Two leg 1. Alternating arm
    2. Single arm
    3. Proprioceptive Modalities
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29
Q

What are the 1 regression and 2 progressions of the Prone Ball Dumbbell Triceps Extensions?

A

Regression Progression

  1. Standing with cable 1. Alternating- arms
    2. Single-arm
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30
Q

What are the 2 regressions and 1 progression of the Ball Squat?

A

Regression Progression

  1. Decrease Range of Motion 1. Squat w/out stability ball
  2. Holding on to a stable support
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31
Q

What are the 2 regressions and 2 progressions of the Multiplanar Step-Up to Balance?

A

Regression Progression

  1. Omit Balance 1. Frontal plane step-up
  2. Decrease step height 2. Transverse plane step-up
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32
Q

What kind of information is taken during a fitness assessment that includes learning the clients “general and medical history, occupation, lifestyle, medical and personal” information?

A

Subjective Information

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33
Q

What kind of information taken from a client during a fitness assessment includes information such as their “physiologic, body composition, cardioresporitory, static and dynamic postural, and performance” assessments?

A

Objective Information

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34
Q

What must a “participation health screening” include?

A
  1. Medical History Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
  2. Review of chronic disease risk factors and any sign or symptoms of disease.

After reviewing-Decide on Risk- Low, Moderate or High

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35
Q

Individuals who do not have any signs or symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary, or metabolic disease and have less than 1 cardiovascular disease risk factor.

A

Low Risk

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36
Q

Individuals who do not have any signs or symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary, or metabolic disease but have more than 2 cardiovascular disease risk factors.

A

Moderate Risk

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37
Q

Individuals who have one or more signs or symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary or metabolic disease.

A

High Risk

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38
Q

A questionnaire that has been designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercising for a client based on the answers to specific health history questions.

A

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

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39
Q

What are some sample questions that could be on the PAR-Q test?

A
  1. Has your Dr. said you have a heart condition and said you should only perform activities recommended by a dr?
  2. Do you feel pain in your chest when performing physical activity?
  3. In the past month, have you had chest pain when performing PA?
  4. Do you lose your balance b/c of dizziness or ever lost conciousness?
  5. Do you have a bone or joint problem that could be made worse by PA?
  6. Is your dr. currently prescribing any meds for BP or heart condition?
  7. Do you know of any other reason why you should not engage in PA?
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40
Q

What are some examples of questions that you would ask a client pertaining to their lifestyle, occupation and medical history?

A
  1. What is your occupation, does it require you to sit for long periods, repetitive movements, high heels, or cause anxiety?
  2. Do you do any recreational activities?
  3. What are your hobbies?
  4. Any past injuries, surgeries, chronic conditions, or taking any meds?
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41
Q

What is the purpose of each of the 3 “Target Heart Rate Training Zones”?

A

Zone 1: Builds aerobic base and aids in recovery - max HR x 65-75
Zone 2: Increases aerobic and anaerobic endurance - max HR x 76-85
Zone 3: Builds high-end work capacity - max HR x 86-95

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42
Q

How would you calculate the clients max HR and then their target HR using the “Straight Percentage Method”?

A

Max HR = (220-age)

Target Heart Rate = Max HR x intensity (65 -95%)

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43
Q
  • the relative percentage of body weight that is fat versus fat-free tissue.
A

Body Composition

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44
Q

What 3 methods are used to assess Body Composition?

A
  1. ) Skinfold - uses caliper to estimate the amt of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin.
  2. )Bioelectrical impedance - uses a portable instrument to conduct an electrical current thru the body to estimate fat.
  3. ) Underwater weighing (hydrostatic) - a person’s weight is compared with a person’s weight underwater to determine fat percentage.
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45
Q
  • a measure of the girth of body segments
A

Circumference Measurements

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46
Q
  • a rough assessment based on the concept that a person’s weight should be proportional to their height.
A

Body Mass Index (BMI)

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47
Q

What are 2 test that help a personal trainer identify safe and effective “starting” exercise intensities as well as appropriate modes of cardiorespiratory exercise for clients? explain

A

YMCA 3-minute Step Test - submaximal bout of stair climbing at a set pace for 3 minutes. 96 steps/min on 12 inch step for 3 minutes. “up, up, down, down”

Rockport Walk Test - record clients weight, have client walk 1 mile as fast as can be controlled, on treadmill. Record the time. immediately record HR at 1 mile mark.

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48
Q

If the gastrocnemius is short and the anterior tibialis in lengthened, what could be a possible injury?
(Pronation Distortion Syndrome)

A

Plantar fasciitis

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49
Q

If the soleus is short and the posterior tibialis is lengthened, what would the altered joint mechanics be and what would possible injury could it lead to? ( Pronation Distortion Syndrome)

A

altered joint mechanic - knee adduction

possible injury - posterior tibialis tendonitis ( shin splints)

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50
Q

If the adductors are short and the gluteus medius/Maximus is lengthened, what joint will be altered and what possible injuries could incur? (Pronation Distortion Syndrome)

A

Altered joint - foot pronation

Possible Injuries - Low back-pain

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51
Q

If the gastrocnemius is short and the anterior tibialis is lengthened, what could be the possible injury? (Lower Crossed Syndrome)

A
  • Hamstring complex strain
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52
Q

What are the 3 postural distortion patterns to be assessed during a static postural assement?

A
  1. ) Pronation Distortion Syndrome - foot pronation(flat feet) and adducted and internally rotated knees (knock knees).
  2. )Lower Crossed Syndrome - anterior tilt to the pelvis(arched lower back).
  3. )Upper Crossed Syndrome - forward head and rounded shoulders
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53
Q

an assessment designed to assess dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control.

A

Overhead Squat Assessment

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54
Q

Describe the position the client should be in while taking the overhead squat assessment.

A
  1. feet should-width apart and pointed straight ahead
    - foot and ankle in neutral position, shoes off
  2. arms raised overhead with elbows fully extended. Arms should bisect the torso.
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55
Q

Describe the movement a client should engage in while taking the overhead squat assessment.

A
  1. squat to chair height and return to start position

2. repeat movement for 5 reps, observing from both anterior and lateral positions.

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56
Q

Describe the different views you should observing while client is performing overhead squat assessment.

A
  1. feet, ankles, and knees from the front,anterior.
    * feet should remain straight with knees tracking in line with the foot(2nd and 3rd toes).
  2. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, shoulder, cervical complex from the side/lateral.
    * tibia should remain in line with the torso while the arms also stay in line with the torso.
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57
Q

What compensations can occur when performing the overhead squat assessment?

A

anterior
Feet- do the feet flatten or turn outward
Knees - do the knees move inward
lateral
Lumbo-Pelvic-Hip complex - does the low back arch
- does the torso lean forward excessively
Shoulder - do the arms fall forward

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58
Q

what are the 5 kinetic chain checkpoints?

A
  1. foot and ankle
  2. knee
  3. lumbo pelvic hip complex
  4. shoulders
  5. head and cervical spine
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59
Q

-the alignment and function of all parts of the kinetic chain

A

Posture

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60
Q

If you observe the knees are moving inward during an assement, what muscles are overactive and underactive?

A

Overactive -

      * adductor complex
      * Biceps Femoris (short head)
      * Vastus Lateralis
      * TFL

Underactive -

      * Gluteus medius/maximus
      * Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
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61
Q

What compensations can be observed during the “pushing assessment”?

A
  • low back - does the low back arch?
  • shoulders - do the shoulders elevate?
  • head - does the head migrate forward?
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62
Q

If the low back arches during the pushing assessment, what muscles are overactive and underactive?

A

Overactive: *hip flexors
*erector spinae

Underactive: * intrinsic core stabilizers

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63
Q

If the shoulders elevate, during the “pushing assessment”, what muscles may be overactive and underactive?

A

Overactive

    * upper trapezious
    * Sternocleidomastoid
    * Levator scapulae
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64
Q

If the client’s head migrates forward during a pushing assessment, what muscles may be overactive and underactive?

A

Overactive

     * Sternocleidomastoid
     * Upper trapezius 
     * levator scapulae

Underactive
* deep cervical flexors

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65
Q

an assessment that measure upper extremity agility and stabilization.
describe procedure and movement

A

Davies test

-push up position, perform alternating touching on each side for 15 seconds. Repeat for 3 trials.

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66
Q
  • assessment of lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control. Can be viewed as a progression from the single leg squat and may not be suitable for all individuals.
  • describe position and movement
A

Shark Skill Test

  • client on center box of a grid, with hands on hips and standing on one leg.
  • hop to each box in designated pattern, always returning to center box.
  • perform one practice run, then perform 2 times with each foot (4 total).
  • Keep track of time, record time, add .10 seconds for faults such as;
  • non hopping leg touches the ground
  • hands come off hips
  • foot goes into wrong square
  • foot does not return to center square
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67
Q
  • assessment designed to estimate the one-rep maximum on overall upper body strength of the pressing musculature. (advanced, may not be suitable for all clients)
  • describe procedure and movement
A

Upper Extremity Strength Assessment

  • on bench, lying on back, feet pointed straight ahead, low back neutral.
  • warm up with light weights for 8-10 reps
  • rest 1 min
  • add 10-20lbs or 5% of initial load and perfrom 3-5 reps
  • rest 2 min
  • repeat until client achieves failure btwn 2 and 10 reps
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68
Q
  • assessment designed to estimate the one repetition squat max and overall lower body strength.
  • describe procedure and movement
A

Lower Extremity Strength Assesment: Squat

  • feet shoulder width apart, pointed straight ahead
  • warm up light with 8-10 reps
  • rest 1 min
  • add 30-40 lbs or 10-20% of initial load and perfrom 3-5 reps.
  • rest 2 min
  • repeat until the client achieves failure between 2 and 10 reps
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69
Q

a term used to describe how the body responds and adapts to stress

A

General Adaptation Syndrom

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70
Q
  • When the body is in equilibrium and stationary, meaning no linear or angular movement.
A

Balance

71
Q

-the ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling.
(Strongly influenced by neuromuscular skills such as: speed, endurance, flexability, and strength)

A

Dynamic Balance

72
Q

What 3 kinetic imbalances can lead to altered balance and neuromuscular inefficiency?

A
  1. altered length tension relationships
  2. force-couple relationships
  3. arthrokinematics
73
Q

What are the order of effects of joint dysfunction?

A

Joint dysfunction - Muscle Inhibition - Joint Injury - Swelling - Altered proprioception

74
Q
  • Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.
A

Rate of Force Production

75
Q
  • Exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action.
A

Plyometric (reactive) Training

76
Q
  • To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically). Example ?
A

Integrated Performance Paradigm

-Rebounding a basketball-

77
Q

What are the 3 phases involved in plyometric training?

A
  1. eccentric or loading phase
  2. amortization phase or transition phase
  3. concentric or unloading phase
78
Q

The first stage of plyo movement can be classified as the eccentric phase, deceleration, loading, yielding, counter movement, or cocking phase. What happens during this phase?

A
  • muscle spindle activity increases by pre stretching the muscle before activation.
  • potential energy is stored the the elastic components of the muscle during this loading phase, much like stretching a rubber band.
79
Q

What happens during the 2nd phase of plyo movement called the Amortization phase (transition phase)?

A
  • this involves dynamic stabilization and is the time between the end of the eccentric muscle action (the loading or deceleration phase) and the initiation of the concentric contraction (the unloading or force production phase).
80
Q

What happens during the 3rd phase of the plyometric training called the Concentric (or unloading) Phase?

A
  • a concentric contraction, resulting in enhanced muscular performance after the eccentric phase of muscle contraction.
  • synonymous with releasing a rubber band after it was stretched*
81
Q
  • the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint.
A

Flexibility

82
Q
  • Capability to be elongated or stretched.
A

Extensibility

83
Q
  • the combination of flexibility and the nervous system’s ability to control this range of motion efficiently.
A

Dynamic Range of Motion

84
Q
  • the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonists, and stabilizers to work synergistically to produce, reduce and dynamically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes in motion.
A

Neuromuscular efficiency

85
Q
  • Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances.
A

Postural distortion patterns

86
Q
  • the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.
A

Relative Flexibility

87
Q
  • Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.
A

Muscle Imbalance

88
Q
  • The simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist to allow movement to take place.
A

Reciprocal Inhibition

89
Q
  • The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits it functional antagonist.
A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

90
Q
  • The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
A

Synergistic Dominance

91
Q
  • the motions of joints in the body.
A

Anthrokinetics

92
Q
  • Altered forces at the joint that result in abnormal muscular activity and impaired neuromuscular communication at the joint.
    (occurs when a joint is not working properly)
A

Arthrokinetic dysfunction

93
Q
  • the process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.
A

Autogenic Inhibition

94
Q

-consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body.

A

Pattern Overload

95
Q

-State’s that soft tissue models along the lines of stress.

A

Davis’s Law

96
Q

-the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds.

A

Static Stretching

97
Q
  • the process of using agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion.
A

Active-Isolated Stretch

98
Q
  • the active extension of a muscle, using force production and momentum to move the joint through the full available range of motion.
A

Dynamic stretch

99
Q

What are the 3 phases of flexibility within the OPT model and The Flexibility Contiuum?

A
  1. Corrective Flexibility - SMR, static stretchin
  2. Active-Isolated Flexibility - SMR, active- isolated stretching
  3. Functional Flexibility - SMR, dynamic stretching
100
Q

What would be some examples of what muscles would be stretched using flexibility training techniques if your client was in the corrective flexibility phase??

A
  • gastrocnemius/soleus
  • adductors
  • latissimus dorsi
101
Q

What would be some examples of what muscles would be stretched using the flexibility training continuum if your client was in the “functional flexibility”, “dynamic stretching phase”?

A
  • prisoner squat
  • multiplanar lunge
  • tube walking: side to side
  • medicine ball lift and chop
102
Q

What would be some examples of what muscles would be stretched if you client was in the “active flexibility”, “active-isolated stretching” phase of the “flexibility continuum”?

A

Active standing adductor stretch
active latissimus dorsi ball stretch
active pectoral wall stretch

103
Q

What 2 inhibitions occur during a static stretch? How many sets, how long do you hold? Examples?

A
  • Autogenic Inhibition
    -Reciprocal Inhibition
    -1-3 sets, hold for 30 seconds
    Example: Gastroc. stretch, kneeling hip flexor stretch, standing adductor stretch, pectoral wall stretch
104
Q

What inhibition occurs during “Active Isolated Stretching”? How many sets? How long do you hold each stretch? How many reps? Examples?

A

-Reciprocal Inhibition
-1-2 sets
-hold each stretch for 1-2 seconds
-5-10 reps
Examples: active supine biceps femoris stretch, active kneeling quad stretch, active standing adductor stretch, active pectoral wall stretch.

105
Q

-the ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen-rich blood to skeletal muscles during sustained physical activity.

A

Cardio-respiratory fitness

106
Q
  • Cardiorespiratory training programs that systematically progress clients through various stages to achieve optimal levels of physiologic, physical, and performance adaptations by placing stress on the cardiorespiratory system.
A

-Integrated Cardiorespiratory Training

107
Q
  • Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise that is to follow.
A

General Warm-Up

108
Q
  • Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise that is to follow.
A

Specific Warm-Up

109
Q
  • The number of training sessions in a given time-frame.
A

Frequency

110
Q
  • the level of demand that a given activity places on the body.
A

Intensity

111
Q
  • The highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion.
A
  • Maximal Oxygen Consumption (VO2 max)
112
Q
  • The difference between resting and maximal or peak oxygen consumption.
A

Oxygen Uptake Reserve (Vo2 R)

113
Q
  • The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production.
A

Ventilatory threshold (T vent)

114
Q
  • The length of time an individual is engaged in a given activity.
A

Time

115
Q
  • the type or mode of physical activity that an individual is engaged in.
A

Type

116
Q
  • The amount of pleasure derived from performing a physical activity.
A

Enjoyment

117
Q
  • excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training, resulting in fatigue (which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery).
A

Overtraining

118
Q
  • provides the body with a smooth transition from exercise back to a steady state of rest.
A

Cool- Down Phase

119
Q

What are some examples of a “general” warm-up?

A
  • walking on a treadmill
    -riding a stationary bike
    -
120
Q

What are some examples of a “specific” warm-up

A
  • performing body-weight squats and push ups before weight training.
121
Q

What are the benefits of Warm-Up?

A
  • Increased heart and respiratory rate
  • Increased tissue temperature
  • Increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise
122
Q

What are the 3 training zones? Give examples of each.

A

Zone 1: 65-75% - 12-13 -Walking or jogging
Zone 2: 76-85% - 14-16 -Group exercise classes, spinning
Zone 3: 86-95% - 17-19 -Sprinting

123
Q
  • the structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), including the lumbar spine, the pelvic girdle, abdomen, and the hip joint.
A

Core

124
Q
  • A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the navel in toward the spine.
A

Drawing-In Maneuver

125
Q
  • occurs when you have contracted both the abdominal, lower back, and buttock muscles at the same time.
A

Bracing

126
Q

What are the “local stabilizers” and what do they do?

A
  • transverse abdominis
  • internal obliques
  • multifidus
  • pelvic floor musculature
  • diaphram
  • they attach directly to the vertebrae and proved support from vertebrae to vertebrae.*
127
Q

What are the “Movement” system’s muscles and what do they do?

A
  • latissimus dorsi
  • hip flexors
  • hamstring complex
  • quadriceps
  • muscles that attach the spine and/or pelvis to the extremeties.*
128
Q

-The science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces.

A

Biomechanics

129
Q

-Positioned above a point of reference.

A

Superior

130
Q

-positioned below a point of reference.

A

Inferior

131
Q

-Positioned nearest the center of the body, or point of reference.

A

-Proximal

132
Q

-Positioned farthest from the center of the body, or point of reference.

A

Distal

133
Q

-on the front of the body.

A

Anterior (Distal)

134
Q
  • on the back of the body.
A

Posterior

135
Q
  • Positioned near the middle of the body.
A

Medial

136
Q

Positioned toward the outside of the body.

A

Lateral

137
Q

-positioned on the opposite side of the body.

A

Contralateral

138
Q

Positioned on the same side of the body.

A

Ipsilateral

139
Q
  • the position with the body erect with the arms at the sides and the palms forward. The anatomic position is of importance in anatomy because it is the position of reference for anatomic nomenclature. Anatomic terms such as anterior and posterior, medial and lateral, and abduction and adduction apply to the body when it is in the anatomic position.
A

Anatomic position

140
Q
  • an imaginary bisector that divides the body into left and right halves.
A

Saggital Plane

141
Q
  • A bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases.
A

Flexion

142
Q

-a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases.

A

Extension

143
Q
  • an imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves.
A

Fronal Planee

144
Q
  • a movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body.
A

Abduction

145
Q
  • a movement in the frontal plane back toward the midline of the body.
A

Adducction

146
Q
  • an imaginary bisector that divides the body into top and bottom halves.
A

Transverse Plane

147
Q
  • Rotation of the joint toward the middle of the body.
A

Internal Rotation

148
Q
  • Rotation of the joint away from the middle of the body.
A

External Rotation

149
Q
  • when a muscle develops tension while lengthening.
A

Eccentric Muscle Action

150
Q
  • When a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in shortening of the muscle.
A

Concentric Muscle Action

151
Q
  • when a muscle is exerting force equal to the force being placed on it leading to no visible change in the muscle length.
A

Isometric Muscle Action

152
Q
  • When a muscle shortens at a constant speed over the full range of motion.
A

Isokinetic Muscle Action

153
Q
  • an influence applied by one object to another, which results in an acceleration or deceleration of the second object.
A

Force

154
Q
  • muscle groups moving together to produce movement in a joint.
A

Force Couple

155
Q
  • a force that produces rotation. Measured in the Newton meter or NM
A

Torque

156
Q
  • groups of muscles that are recruited by the central nervous system to provide movement.
A

Muscle Synergies

157
Q
  • the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movement.
A

Proprioception

158
Q

In the “Frontal” plane, what sort of movements are there? Examples?

A

-side-to-side movements
-exercises involving abduction/adduction of the limbs
Example: side lunges, dumbbell raise, ice skater

159
Q

In the Saggital Plane, what sort of movements are there? Examples?

A
  • forward and backward movements.
    -movements involving pushing or pulling
    -movements involving flexion or extension of the joints
    Examples: biceps curl, front lunge, bench press, rows
160
Q

What movements are there in a “Transverse” Plane? Examples?

A

-Rotational movements
-Diagonal movements
Examples: rotation, wood-chop, medicine ball rotation chest pass

161
Q

-force is produced, muscle tension is developed, and movement occurs through a given range of motion.

A

Isotonic

162
Q
  • Moving in the same direction as the resistance. Decelerates or reduces force.
A

Eccentric

163
Q
  • Moving in the opposite direction of force. Accelerates or produces force.
A

Concentric

164
Q

-No visible movement with or against resistance. Dynamically stabilizes force.

A

Isometric

165
Q
  • The speed of movement is fixed, and resistance varies with the force exerted. (requires sophisticated running equipment often seen in rehab or exercise physiology labs.
A

Isokinetic

166
Q
  • the ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.
A

Speed

167
Q
  • The number of strides taken in a given amount of time (or distance).
A

Stride Rate

168
Q
  • The distance covered with each stride.
A

Stride Length

169
Q
  • Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.
A

Frontside Mechanics

170
Q

-Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and neutral pelvis.

A

Backside mechanics

171
Q

-The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly while maintaining proper posture.

A

Agility

172
Q
  • the ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities.
A

Quickness

173
Q

What are 2 important aspects of sprint mechanics and explain?

A

Frontside mechanics - triple flexion of the ankel, knee and hip in appropriate synchrony.

Backside Mechanics - triple extension of the ankle, knee and hip in appropriate synchrony.

174
Q

What is an easy way to identify a balance stabilization exercise?

A

-they involve little to no movement of the ankle, knee and hip of the stance leg.

175
Q

What is a good way to describe the “balance power” exercises?

A
  • performed by hopping on one leg and then holding the landing position on one leg for 3-5 seconds.
176
Q

What do plyometric stabilization exercises jump exercises feature?

A

A jump with a holding position.(3-5 second hold)

Chapter 10: Balance Training Concepts (4 decks)

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