Mid Term #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Leading Causes of Death in the United States RELATED to food intake?

A
  • Heart Disease
  • Cancer
  • Stroke
  • Diabetes
  • Alzheimer’s Disease
  • Kidney Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In nutrition, the word essential means?

A

A nutrient that can be obtained from a diet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three energy-yielding foods?

A
  • Protein
  • Carbs
  • Fat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In the later part of her first year of college, Lisa is doing well, losing some of the weight she put on at the beginning of the school year. Her highest weight was 160 pounds and she now weighs 152 pounds. How many kilograms does Lisa now weigh?

A

69 kilograms

(A kilogram (kg) is equivalent to 2.2 pounds. If she weighs 152 pounds, divide this by 2.2 to find out that she weighs 69 kilograms.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lisa is trying to choose more low-fat foods in order to reduce her risk for cardiovascular disease. One low-fat cookie that she sees advertised in the grocery store has 22 grams of carbohydrate, 2 grams of protein, and 1 gram of fat per cookie. How many kilocalories are in one of these low-fat cookies?

A

105 kcal per cookie

(Carbohydrate has 4 kcal/g, protein has 4 kcal/g, and fat has 9 kcal/g. For this cookie:

22 g carbohydrate × 4 kcal/g =         88 kcal from carbohydrate
2 g of protein × 4 kcal/g =                  8 kcal from protein
1 g of fat × 9 kcal/g =                         9 kcal from fat
Total kcal per cookie =                   105 kcal per cookie)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bob was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. His dietitian recommended that Bob follow a 1,800-kcal meal plan for weight loss. She said he should also follow the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) recommendation of getting 45% to 65% of these calories from carbohydrates. This is equivalent to ______ grams of carbohydrates per day.

A

203 to 293

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Since beginning college, Lisa has put on about thirteen pounds. She is learning in her health science class that excess calories contribute to weight gain. One recommendation her instructor made for weight loss is to choose foods that have a low percentage of total calories coming from fat. If a 1/2-cup serving of her favorite ice cream has 310 kcal and 20 grams of fat, what percentage of total calories in the ice cream come from fat?

A

58% of calories in this food are from fat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Half of the subjects in a study are given a drink with extra whey protein and the other half are given a drink without whey protein and both groups’ muscle strength is monitored. The drink without the whey protein is called a(n)

A

Placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three roles of nutrients?

A
  • Energy
  • Growth and maintenance
  • Regulating body processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many kcals does carbs have?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many kcals does protein have?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many kcal does fat have?

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many kcal does alcohol have?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a placebo in an experiment?

A

Inactive medicine is given to those not getting the treatment in an experiment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a control group in an experiment?

A

Participants in an experiment not given the treatment are often given a placebo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is blinding in an experiment? Single? Double?

A
  • Blinding: subjects don’t know the treatment they’re getting so not to be influenced.
  • Single-blind: just subjects don’t know.
  • Double-blind: Participants don’t know until after the completion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a correlation in an experiment?

A

Simultaneous change of two factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some study limitations?

A
  • Muddy results
  • Sample size
  • Lack of control group,
  • Too many variables
  • Researcher bias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is anecdotal evidence in an experiment?

A

Unscientific info based on personal accounts, can lead to future research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a meta-analysis in an experiment?

A

Examining data from several independent studies on the same topic to find a dependent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a randomized controlled trial?

A

Experiment with researchers manipulating something and comparing the group given the treatment to the group given no treatment or another intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

Groups of people followed overtime to monitor the development of a disease and exposure to risk factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a case-control study?

A
  • Subjects with a disease/condition compared to similar subjects without a disease/condition
  • Helpful for studying rare diseases.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a cross-sectional study (observational)?

A
  • An observational study (researchers not manipulating) that looks at data from a group at a certain point in time
  • Often uses questionnaires or surveys
  • Can include calculations
  • Determines prevalence (#of people at a time)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many cm is in an inch?

A

1 inch = 2.54 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many teaspoons are in a tablespoon?

A

1 tablespoon = 3 teaspoons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many fl oz and tablespoons are in a cup?

A

1 cup = 8 fl oz or 16 tablespoons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How many cups are in a quart?

A

1 quart = 4 cups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many milliliters are in a liter?

A

1 liter = 1000 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many cups and quarts are in a gallon?

A

1 gallon = 16 cups or 4 quarts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many milligrams are in a gram?

A

1 gram = 1,000 milligrams (mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many micrograms are in a milligram?

A

1 mg = 1,000 micrograms (mcg orμg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How many ounces are in a pound?

A

1 pound (lb) = 16 oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many pounds are in a kilogram?

A

1 kg = 2.2 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is true about the dietary patterns to promote optimal nutritional status?

A

Choose a variety of options from each food group because no single food meets all human nutrient needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Examples of high nutrient foods:

A
  • Fat-free milk
  • Oranges
  • Black beans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Examples of low nutrient foods:

A
  • Cola
  • Cookies
  • Maple syrup
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is a purpose or possible benefit of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?

A

To decrease the incidence of chronic diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following groups in the USDA Eating Pattern (MyPlate) is a rich source of protein?

A

Dairy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which MyPlate food groups are most likely to provide fiber and potassium?

A

Fruits and vegetables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following food lists would be recommended by the USDA Eating Pattern (MyPlate)?

A

Soybean oil, mayonnaise, olives, avocado

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or false: Dietary supplements such as vitamin D and calcium can replace a healthy diet if someone finds it difficult to follow the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What fraction of the food plate are Fruits & Vegetables? + facts

A

Fruits and vegetables cover one-half of the plate. These foods are dense sources of nutrients and health-promoting phytochemicals, despite their low calorie contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What fraction is Grains apart of the food plate? +facts

A

Grains occupy slightly more than one-quarter of the plate. The message to make half your grains whole is stressed throughout accompanying consumer education materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What fraction does Protein occupy of the food plate? +facts

A

Protein foods occupy slightly less than one-quarter of the plate. Specifically, the Dietary Guidelines recommend leaner sources of protein and including plant proteins more often. To obtain healthy fats, the Dietary Guidelines recommend inclusion of fish twice a week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many cups of Dairy should we consume each day? + facts

A

A cup of dairy appears next to the plate. Depending on personalized calorie recommendations, consumers should have 2 to 3 cups per day of low-fat or fat-free dairy products or other rich sources of calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Estimated Energy Requirement (EER)?

A

An estimate of daily calorie needs based on the following:
- height
- weight
- sex
- age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)?

A

The recommended amount of nutrient intake that is sufficient to meet the needs of 97% to 98% of the individuals in a specific sex and life-stage group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Adequate Intake (AI)?

A

The recommended intake of a nutrient that is based on estimates of intakes that appear to maintain health for individuals in a specific sex and life-stage group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)?

A

The maximum chronic daily intake level of a nutrient that is unlikely to cause adverse health effects for individuals in a specific sex and life-stage group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Equations that calculate your Estimated Energy Requirement (EER; the amount of kcal you need to consume each day to maintain your current body weight) include several factors. From the following options, click to select five factors that are used in the EER equation.

A
  • Age
  • Activity level
  • Weight
  • Sex
  • Height
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do manufacturers determine how ingredients are listed on their products?

A

Descending order by weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A food item is considered high in a nutrient if it provides at least ______ % of the Daily Value for that nutrient.

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is considered a good source?

A

Provides at least 10%-19% of daily value of a particular nutrient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are portion sizes?

A

-Pay attention to the amount of food or beverage consumed at one eating occasion
-Pay attention to the label

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is nutrient density?

A
  • Measure of nutritional quality
  • Nutrient-dense foods have little or no added sugar, solid fats, or refined starch & sodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Examples of foods to limit?

A
  • Soda
  • Butter
  • Frosted shredded wheat
  • Canned beans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are examples of higher nutrient density?

A
  • Fresh or frozen fruits/veggies
  • Skinless chicken breast, 90% lean beef
    -Beans
  • Low-fat dairy
  • Tortillas, rice, pasta
  • Peanut butter
  • Oils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are examples of lower nutrient-density foods?

A
  • Canned fruits in sugar
  • Hot dogs, sausage, hamburger
  • Baked beans
  • Creamy, cheesy casseroles
  • Biscuits
  • Added sugars (honey, syrup, jam, etc.)
  • Sour cream, shortening, butter, cream cheese
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are refined grains?

A

Grain milled to remove parts of the grain for improved taste and shelf-life, loses nutrients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are enriched grains?

A

Nutrients lost in the milling process are added back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are fortified grains?

A

Adding nutrients to a food that weren’t originally present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Are refined grains nutrient dense?

A

yes (ex. white rice, pasta)

64
Q

What are considered fruits?

A
  • Any fruits
  • 100% fruit juice
  • Dried fruit
65
Q

What are considered vegetables?

A

Any vegetables including dark green, red and orange, beans/peas/lentils*, starchy, or other vegetables

66
Q

What are considered grains?

A

Rice, bread, tortillas, cereal, pasta, oatmeal

67
Q

What are considered proteins?

A
  • Meat, poultry, fish, eggs
  • Beans/peas/lentils*
  • Nuts/nut butters, seeds
  • Soy products
68
Q

What is considered dairy?

A

Cheese, yogurt, milk, cottage cheese
Soy, almond, or rice milk IF fortified with Calcium

*Cream cheese, sour cream, shortening, and butter are NOT in the dairy group, but are solid fats/foods to limit

69
Q

What is considered oil?

A
  • Vegetable oils (soybean, canola, corn, olive, etc.)
  • Fish, avocado, olives, nuts
  • Mayo, oil-based salad dressing, tub margarine
70
Q

What nutrients do grains have?

A

B vits like thiamin, iron, fiber*

71
Q

What nutrients do fruits & vegetables have?

A

Vits A and C, folate, potassium, fiber

72
Q

What nutrients do proteins have?

A

iron, zinc, B12 (animal products), protein

73
Q

What nutrients do dairy have?

A

calcium, Vits D and B12, protein

74
Q

Fruit equivalents:

A

https://www.myplate.gov/eat-healthy/fruits

75
Q

Vegetable equivalents:

A

https://www.myplate.gov/eat-healthy/vegetables

76
Q

Grain equivalents:

A

https://www.myplate.gov/eat-healthy/grains

77
Q

Protein equivalents:

A

https://www.myplate.gov/eat-healthy/protein-foods

78
Q

Dairy equivalents:

A

https://www.myplate.gov/eat-healthy/dairy

79
Q

What are listed in ounces?

A
  • Grains
  • Protein
80
Q

What are listed in cups?

A

-Fruits
-Vegetables
-Dairy

81
Q

What does AMDR stand for?

A

Distribution of macros

82
Q

What does it mean to have no ul?

A

There isnt sufficient data.

83
Q

What are some organs that food does not pass through?

A

Liver
Gallbladder
Pancreas

84
Q

What is digestion from start to end? (Part #1)

A
  • Mouth –> Chewing (starts to digest carbs)
  • Esophagus –> muscles push down food
  • Stomach –> Enzymes start to break down protein
85
Q

What is the digestion from start to end? part #2

A
  • Small Intestine: a primary site of digestion, and all macronutrients are digested/absorbed here.

Accessory organs:
- Liver: produces bile to help breakdown fat and stores excess carbs as glycogen
- Gall bladder: stores bile
- Pancreas: breaks down carbs, proteins, and fat in the small intestine and produces insulin/glucagon

86
Q

What is bile?

A
  • Breaks down fat
  • Produced by the liver
  • Stored in the gallbladder
87
Q

What does protein turn into after digestion?

A

Amino acids

88
Q

What do carbs turn into after digestion?

A

Simple sugars

89
Q

What three things do lipids turn into after digestion?

A
  • Fatty acids
  • Glycerol
  • Cholesterol
90
Q

What are stored carbs called?

A
  • Glycogen
  • Limited space
91
Q

Are proteins stored?

A

no

92
Q

How much fat can you store?

A

Unlimited amount

93
Q

What lives in your big intestine?

A

A community of bacteria.

94
Q

What is celiac disease?

A
  • Autoimmune response to gluten
  • Damages the small intestine villi
  • It affects the ability to absorb nutrients
  • Cause Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin rash, systemic
95
Q

What is the treatment for Celiac disease?

A
  • No grains derived from wheat, rye, barley, oats
96
Q

The organelles that are known as the power plants or the powerhouses of the cell are the

A

mitochondria.

97
Q

Where is bile produced?

A

Liver

98
Q

Where is bile stored?

A

Gallbladder

99
Q

Where are glucagon and insulin produced?

A

Pancreas

100
Q

Where does bicarbonate move from where?

A

Stomach –> Small intestine

101
Q

Where are carbs stored?

A
  • Muscles
  • Liver
102
Q

Where is fat stored?

A

Tissues

103
Q

Hydrochloric acid is secreted in the what?

A

Stomach

104
Q

Most nutrient absorption occurs in the what?

A

Small intestine

105
Q

Which organ secretes enzymes that break down all three energy-yielding nutrients?

A

Pancreas

106
Q

True or false: Glucose, protein, glycerol, and long-chain fatty acids are absorbed from the small intestine directly into the bloodstream.

A

False

107
Q

All absorbed nutrients eventually travel to the what?

A

Liver

108
Q

Which statement is accurate about chemical digestion?

A

Stomach acid and enzymes from the small intestine are used to digest protein.

109
Q

Can fiber be absorbed?

A

No

110
Q

Some foods contain probiotics; which are what?

A

Living microorganisms that provide health benefits for the host.

111
Q

For a person with celiac disease, exposure to dietary gluten results in damage to the what?

A

Small Intestine

112
Q

Sheila has celiac disease. She heard that the NDFS Cafe has some gluten-free options. Which of the following menu items can Sheila eat?

(Note: Assume that all ingredients were stored/prepared cleanly and not mixed.)

A

Roasted Chicken and Vegetable Kabob on Steamed Brown Rice

113
Q

What are the three disaccharides?

A
  • Maltose
  • Sucrose
  • Lactose
114
Q

What are the three monosaccharides?

A
  • Glucose
  • Fructose
  • Galactose
115
Q

What are the three polysaccharides?

A
  • Starch
  • Fibers
  • Glycogen
116
Q

Where is starch found?

A

plants

117
Q

Where is glycogen found?

A

humans

118
Q

What is fiber?

A

Polysaccharide

119
Q

What are the benefits of fiber?

A
  • Improved GI health: decreases constipation, hemorrhoids, diverticulitis
  • Lowers cholesterol and risk of heart disease and cancer
  • Better weight management and blood glucose control
120
Q

What are problems with too much fiber?

A
  • Gas
  • Diarrhea
  • Bloating
  • It can bind to some minerals such as iron and calcium, and block them from being absorbed
121
Q

Is fiber digested?

A

No

122
Q

Where are galactose and fructose converted into glucose?

A

Liver

123
Q

What does glucose do?

A

Provide energy

124
Q

What is ketosis?

A

When the body is out of carbs, it converts fat into ketone bodies for energy.

125
Q

What are excesses carbs converted to?

A

In the liver, they are converted to glycogen and fat.

126
Q

What is lactose intolerance?

A

Not enough enzymes to digest milk sugar.

127
Q

What can you do to solve the lactose problem?

A

Deal with it or treat it.

128
Q

What is insulin?

A

It gets glucose into cells to decrease blood sugar.

129
Q

What is glycogen?

A

When broken down, it releases glucose into the bloodstream to increase blood sugar.

130
Q

What are some signs of diabetes?

A
  • Always thirsty
  • Always hungry
  • Always urinating
131
Q

What are the aspects/effects of type 1 diabetes?

A
  • No insulin produced!

Cause:
- Genetics
- A person’s immune system attacks insulin-producing pancreas cells

Treatment:
- injections

132
Q

What are the aspects/treatments of type 2 diabetes?

A
  • Insulin resistance (cells no longer respond to insulin)

Cause:
- Obesity
- Genetics
- Age

Treatment:
- Weight loss
- Healthy diet
- Oral medications

133
Q

Which is recommended about carbohydrate intake?

A

Consume 45-65% of your total calories from carbohydrate.

134
Q

Examples of whole grains:

A
  • Plain spaghetti
  • 100% whole wheat bread
  • Brown rice
135
Q

Which of the following would be the best way for a college student to increase his or her intake of dietary fiber?

A

When preparing a recipe for tacos, replace some of the beef with black beans.

136
Q

Excessive sugar intake is related to the development of dental caries because…

A

Oral bacteria produce acids that dissolve tooth enamel when they metabolize sugars.

137
Q

What are the three organs that digest carbs?

A
  • Mouth
  • Pancreas
  • Small intestine
138
Q

The liver is important in carbohydrate metabolism as it processes the monosaccharides galactose and fructose into glucose. What happens to this glucose once it is done being processed in the liver?

A
  • If glucose is present in excess, some can be turned into fat.
  • If glucose is present in excess, some can be stored as glycogen.
  • The liver can release the glucose directly into the bloodstream for transport to organs.
139
Q

When too little carbohydrate is consumed in a person’s diet, ______ are used to make glucose.

A

Amino acids

140
Q

When too little dietary carbohydrate is available to meet energy needs, ______ arise as byproducts of partial fat metabolism.

A

ketones

141
Q

Dietary fiber is

A

Fermented by bacteria in the colon to form gas and fatty acids.

142
Q

When is glucagon released?

A

When blood sugar is low.

143
Q

When is epinephrine released?

A

When the body is stressed.

144
Q

When is insulin released?

A

When blood sugar is to high.

145
Q

Sophia’s parents are obese and have type 2 diabetes. What should they do, to improve blood sugar control?

A

Balance carbohydrate intake with medications and exercise.

146
Q

What type of carbohydrate is likely causing the problems that Myeshia experiences after drinking milk?

A

lactose

147
Q

What are some ways to help lactose intolerance?

A
  • Pills
  • Drink lactaid
  • Eat hard cheeses
  • Drink calcium-fortified soy milk
148
Q

Sophia is not an early riser, and her first class isn’t until 10 a.m. Every day she grabs breakfast to go from Burger King: a sausage biscuit (2 oz sausage on a medium biscuit) and 12 oz 100% orange juice. Mid-afternoon she stops by the vending machines to get a snack: usually 2 oatmeal cookies and a 12 ounce soda pop. For dinner every day she has a box of macaroni and cheese, made according to the package directions. She adds a hot dog (2 oz) to make it more filling. Each night she has a snack of one hard-cooked egg and 3-4 slices of wheat bread toast and jam. She figures as long as she feels full, she’s probably getting all the nutrition she needs. After all, she doesn’t crave any particular foods.

Question: How many equivalents from the protein foods group did she eat?

A

5 oz

149
Q

Here is a reminder of what Sophia eats to answer this question. Every day she grabs breakfast to go from Burger King: a sausage biscuit (2 oz sausage on a medium biscuit) and 12 oz 100% orange juice. Mid-afternoon she stops by the vending machines to get a snack: usually 2 oatmeal cookies and a 12 ounce soda pop. For dinner every day she has a box of macaroni and cheese, made according to the package directions. She adds a hot dog (2 oz) to make it more filling. Each night she has a snack of one hard-cooked egg and 3-4 slices of wheat bread toast and jam.

How many equivalents from the fruit group did Sophia eat?

A

1 1/2 cups

150
Q

Because Sophia doesn’t drink milk or eat ice cream, she makes a point of taking 4 calcium-&-vitamin D tablets each day, since she wants to be sure she is getting enough. Each tablet contains 650 mg calcium and 50 µg (micrograms) of vitamin D.

How appropriate is the calcium-vitamin D supplement for Sophia? (The DRI table will be included in the exam.)

A

Excessive

151
Q

Which two USDA food groups are most likely to supply iron?

A

protein & grain

152
Q

On a food label, ingredients are listed in descending order by what measure?

A

weight

153
Q

Sophia is mildly curious about the whole process of digestion. Which is (are) accurate about where chemical digestion occurs?

A

Protein: stomach & small intestine

154
Q

Which of the following lists contains all monosaccharides?

A

Fructose, glucose, and galactose

155
Q

Which is NOT a likely complication of uncontrolled blood sugar for Sophia’s parents?

A

Anemia

156
Q

Read the abstract then answer the question:

Beyond Ramen: Investigating Methods to Improve Food Agency among College Students.

Pope L, Alpaugh M, Trubek A, Skelly J, Harvey J. Nutrients. 2021;13(5):1674.

Many college students struggle to cook frequently, which has implications for their diet quality and health. Students’ ability to plan, procure, and prepare food (food agency) may be an important target for shifting the college student diet away from instant and inexpensive staples like packaged ramen. The randomized intervention study included two sequential cooking interventions: (1) six weeks of cooking classes based in food agency pedagogy held once per week, and (2) six weekly home delivered meal kits (3 meals per kit) to improve food agency, diet quality, and at home cooking frequency of college students. Based on availability and subsequent randomization, participants were assigned to one of four conditions that included active cooking classes, meal kit provision, or no intervention. Participants who took part in the cooking intervention had significant improvement in food agency immediately following the intervention period. Participants who did not participate in cooking classes and only received meal kits experienced significant, though less pronounced, improvement in food agency scores following the meal kit provision. Neither intervention improved diet quality or routinely improved cooking frequency. Active cooking classes may improve food agency of college students, though further research is needed to determine how this may translate into improved diet quality and increased cooking frequency.

Question: What kind of study was this?

A

Randomized controlled trial