Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aubf Book Based TOMO EXAM > Microscopic > Flashcards

Microscopic Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Macroscopic screening of urine specimens is used to:
    A. Provide results as soon as possible
    B. Predict the type of urinary casts present
    C. Increase cost-effectiveness of urinalysis
    D. Decrease the need for polarized microscopy
A

C. Increase cost-effectiveness of urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Variations in the microscopic analysis of urine include all of the following except:
    A. Preparation of the urine sediment
    B. Amount of sediment analyzed
    C. Method of reporting
    D. Identification of formed elements
A

D. Identification of formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. All of the following can cause false-negative microscopic results except:
    A. Braking the centrifuge
    B. Failing to mix the specimen
    C. Diluting alkaline urine
    D. Using midstream clean-catch specimens
A

D. Using midstream clean-catch specimens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. The two factors that determine relative centrifugal force
    A. Radius of rotor head and RPM
    B. Radius of rotor head and time of centrifugation
    C. Diameter of rotor head and RPM
    D. RPM and time of centrifugation
A

C. Diameter of rotor head and RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. When using the glass-slide and cover-slip method, which of the following might be missed if the cover slip is overflowed?
    A. Casts
    B. RBCS
    C. WBCs
    D. Bacteria
A

A. Casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of:
    A. 4x
    B. 10x
    C. 40x
    D. 100x
A

C. 40x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in bright-field microscopy?
    A. Centering screws
    B. Aperture diaphragm
    C. Rheostat
    D. Condenser aperture diaphragm
A

C. Rheostat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following are reported as number per lpf?
    A. RBCS
    B. WBCs
    C. Crystals
    D. Casts
A

D. Casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. The Sternheimer-Malbin stain is added to urine sediments to do all of the following except:
    A. Increase visibility of sediment constituents
    B. Change the constituents’ refractive index
    C. Decrease precipitation of crystals
    D. Delineate constituent structures
A

C. Decrease precipitation of crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:
    A. Prussian blue
    B. Toluidine blue
    C. Acetic acid
    D. Both B and C
A

D. Both B. Toluidine blue and C. Acetic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which of the following lipids is/are stained by Sudan III?
    A. Cholesterol
    B. Neutral fats
    C. Triglycerides
    D. Both B and C
A

D. Both B. Neutral fats and C. Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which of the following lipids is/are capable of polarizing light?
    A. Cholesterol
    B. Neutral fats
    C. Triglycerides
    D. Both A and B
A

A. Cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:
    A. Neutrophils
    B. Renal tubular cells
    C. Eosinophils
    D. Monocytes
A

C. Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:
    A. Hyposthenuric
    B. Hypersthenuric
    C. Highly acidic
    D. Highly alkaline
A

B. Hypersthenuric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except:
    A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
    B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
    C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
    D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid
A

C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:
    A. Glomerular bleeding
    B. Renal calculi
    C. Traumatic injury
    D. Coagulation disorders
A

A. Glomerular bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Leukocytes that stain pale blue with Sternheimer-Malbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are:
    A. Indicative of pyelonephritis
    B. Basophils
    C. Mononuclear leukocytes
    D. Glitter cells
A

D. Glitter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Sometimes mononuclear leukocytes are mistaken for:
    A. Yeast cells
    B. Squamous epithelial cells
    C. Pollen grains
    D. Renal tubular cells
A

D. Renal tubular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. When pyuria is detected in a urine sediment, the slide should be checked carefully for the presence of:
    A. RBCS
    B. Bacteria
    C. Hyaline casts
    D. Mucus
A

B. Bacteria

20
Q
  1. Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the:
    A. Collecting duct
    B. Vagina
    C. Bladder
    D. Proximal convoluted tubule
A

C. Bladder

21
Q
  1. The largest cells in the urine sediment are:
    A. Squamous epithelial cells
    B. Urothelial pithelial cells
    C. Cuboidal epithelial cells
    D. Columnar epithelial cells
A

A. Squamous epithelial cells

22
Q
  1. A squamous epithel cell hat is cinicaly signilicant
    A. Cuboidal cell
    B. Clue cell
    C. Caudate cell
    D. Columnar cell
A

B. Clue cell

23
Q
  1. Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the following except:
    A. Spherical
    B. Caudate
    C. Convoluted
    D. Polyhedral
A

C. Convoluted

24
Q
  1. Increased transitional cells are indicative of:
    A. Catheterization
    B. Malignancy
    C. Pyelonephritis
    D. Both A and B
A

D. Both A. Catheterization and B. Malignancy

25
Q
  1. A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells is:
    A. Elongated structure
    B. Centrally located nucleus
    C. Spherical appearance
    D. Eccentrically located nucleus
A

D. Eccentrically located nucleus

26
Q
  1. After an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain:
    A. Bilirubin
    B. Hemosiderin granules
    C. Porphobilinogen
    D. Myoglobin
A

B. Hemosiderin granules

27
Q
  1. The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:
    A. Histiocyte
    B. Urothelial cell
    C. Monocyte
    D. Renal tubular cell
A

D. Renal tubular cell

28
Q
  1. A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a Maltese cross formation under polarized light but does not stain with Sudan III. The structure:
    A. Contains cholesterol
    B. Is not an oval fat body
    C. Contains neutral fats
    D. Is contaminated with immersion oil
A

A. Contains cholesterol

29
Q
  1. The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly associated with:
    A. Cystitis
    B. Diabetes mellitus
    C. Pyelonephritis
    D. Liver disorders
A

B. Diabetes mellitus

30
Q
  1. The primary component of urinary mucus is:
    A. Bence Jones protein
    B. Microalbumin
    C. Uromodulin
    D. Orthostatic protein
A

C. Uromodulin

31
Q
  1. The majority of casts are formed in the:
    A. Proximal convoluted tubules
    B. Ascending loop of Henle
    C. Distal convoluted tubules
    D. Collecting ducts
A

C. Distal convoluted tubules

32
Q
  1. Cylindruria refers to the presence of:
    A. Cylindrical renal tubular cells
    B. Mucus-resembling casts
    C. Hyaline and waxy casts
    D. All types of casts
A

D. All types of casts

33
Q
  1. A person submitting a urine specimen after a strenuous exercise routine normally can have all of the following in the sediment except:
    A. Hyaline casts
    B. Granular casts
    C. RBC casts
    D. WBC casts
A

D. WBC casts

34
Q
  1. Before identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed:
    A. Free-floating RBCs
    B. Intact RBCs in the cast matrix
    C. A positive reagent strip blood reaction
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

35
Q
  1. WBC casts are associated primarily with:
    A. Pyelonephritis
    B. Cystitis
    C. Glomerulonephritis
    D. Viral infections
A

A. Pyelonephritis

36
Q
  1. The shape of the RTE cell associated with RTE casts is primarily:
    A. Elongated
    B. Cuboidal
    C. Round
    D. Columnar
A

C. Round

37
Q
  1. When observing RTE casts, the cells are primarily:
    A. Embedded in a clear matrix
    B. Embedded in a granular matrix
    C. Attached to the surface of a matrix
    D. Stained by components of the urine filtrate
A

C. Attached to the surface of a matrix

38
Q
  1. The presence of fatty casts is associated with:
    A. Nephrotic syndrome
    B. Crush injuries
    C. Diabetes mellitus
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

39
Q
  1. Nonpathogenic granular casts contain:
    A. Cellular lysosomes
    B. Degenerated cells
    C. Protein aggregates
    D. Gram-positive cocci
A

A. Cellular lysosomes

40
Q
  1. All of the following are true about waxy casts except they:
    A. Represent extreme urine stasis
    B. May have a brittle consistency
    C. Require staining to be visualized
    D. Contain degenerated granules
A

C. Require staining to be visualized

41
Q
  1. Observation of broad casts represents:
    A. Destruction of tubular walls
    B. Dehydration and high fever
    C. Formation in the collecting ducts
    D. Both A and C
A

D. Both A. Destruction of tubular walls and C. Formation in the collecting ducts

42
Q
  1. All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except:
    A. Protein concentration
    B. pH
    C. Solute concentration
    D. Temperature
A

A. Protein concentration

43
Q
  1. The most valuable initial aid for identifying crystals in a urine specimen is:
    A. pH
    B. Solubility
    C. Staining
    D. Polarized microscopy
A

A. pH

44
Q
  1. Crystals associated with severe liver disease include all of the following except:
    A. Bilirubin
    B. Leucine
    C. Cystine
    D. Tyrosine
A

C. Cystine

45
Q
  1. All of the following crystals routinely polarize except:
    A. Uric acid
    B. Cholesterol
    C. Radiographic dye
    D. Cystine
A

D. Cystine

46
Q
  1. Casts and fibers usually can be differentiated using:
    A. Solubility characteristics
    B. Patient history
    C. Polarized light
    D. Fluorescent light
A

C. Polarized light

Aubf Book Based TOMO EXAM (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions