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Clinical Science > Microbiology Refresher - Bacteria > Flashcards

Microbiology Refresher - Bacteria Flashcards

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1
Q

Lobar bacteria is most likely what type of infection?

A

bacterial infection

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2
Q

What are the 3 questions to ask when identifying causative bacteria?

A
  1. what is the source of infection?
  2. which pathogenic organism(s) could be responsible?
  3. what do I know about the possible gram status of the responsible organism?
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3
Q

What type of cell has a cytoplasm, a nucleoid, but no membrane enclosed in a nucleus?

A

prokaryote (bacteria cell)

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4
Q

What contains a single-stranded DNA for reproductive purposes and a circular plasmid DNA?

A

prokaryote

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5
Q

There is enough difference between (1) of humans and bacteria that some antibiotics will impair function of (2) without killing the (3)

A
  1. ribosomes
  2. ribosomes
  3. host
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6
Q

What helps with locomotion is prokaryotes but is not present in all bacteria?

A

flagellum

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7
Q

What allows bacteria to adhere to surfaces such as teeth?

A

pili

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8
Q

What resides in the human microbiota and one or both organisms may benefit from this relationship?

A

commensal microorganism

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9
Q

If both human and commensal microorganism benefit in the relationship, what is it termed?

A

mutualistic relationship

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10
Q

What is a microorganism that is not typically a part of the human microbiota that may or may not not disease?

A

non-commensal microorganism

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11
Q

What can be commensal or non-commensal organisms that cause disease?

A

pathogen

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12
Q

What are the 4 different types of pathogen?

A
  • obligate pathogen
  • commensal pathogen
  • zoonotic pathogen
  • environmental pathogen
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13
Q

What type of pathogen needs to be transmitted to survive?

A

obligate pathogen

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14
Q

What type of pathogen may be part of the microbiota but can also cause regular disease and does not require presence of disease to survive?

A

commensal pathogen

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15
Q

What type of pathogen is transmitted to human from animals directly (animal products via an insect vector), and does not require presence of disease to survive?

A

zoonotic pathogen

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16
Q

What type of pathogen includes a pathogenic microorganism that is acquired through exposure in the environment, such as water or soil, and does not require the presence of disease to survive?

A

environmental pathogen

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17
Q

What type(s) of pathogen(s) do not need the presence of disease to survive?

A
  • commensal pathogen
  • zoonotic pathogen
  • environmental pathogen
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18
Q

What type of pathogen is Mycobacterium tuberculosis and why?

A

obligate pathogen
needs to be transmitted to others, typically through coughing, to survive

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19
Q

What type of pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus and why?

A

commensal pathogen
exists on skin, but can sometimes cause abscesses of the skin & does not require the presence of the abscess to exist or survive

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20
Q

What type of pathogen is Yersinia pestis and why?

A

zoonotic pathogen
was carried by fleas carried on rats that travelled throughout Europe and Asia, causing a plague pathogen

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21
Q

What type of pathogen is Legionella pneumophila and why?

A

environmental pathogen
resides in hot tubs and building water systems - does not require disease to survive

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22
Q

Describe obligate aerobes?

A

requires oxygen for growth

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23
Q

Describe obligate anaerobes?

A

cannot grow in presence of oxygen

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24
Q

Describe facultative anaerobes (aerobes)?

A

prefers oxygen for growth, but can grow in its absence

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25
Q

Describe aerotolerant anaerobes?

A

does not use oxygen to grow, but can tolerate it

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26
Q

Describe microaerophiles?

A

prefers reduced amounts of oxygen to grow

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27
Q

What type of infections can occur when bacteria are displaced from their natural body habitat - endogenous acquisition?

A

anaerobic infections

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28
Q

What type of infections can occur when a barrier is broken such as in trauma, infection, or tumor?

A

anaerobic infections

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29
Q

Oxygen may be excluded from the area is which cases?

A
  • obstruction
  • surgery
  • trauma with tissue damage
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30
Q

What loves dead tissue (non-oxygenated) and are happy to grow in damaged tissue?

A

anaerobes

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31
Q

If there are aerobes or facultative bacteria present simultaneously with anaerobes, anaerobes can further reduce oxygen level in affected area, resulting in (1)

A
  1. more anaerobic growth
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32
Q

What can also be acquired exogenously (outside the organism, such as soil)?

A

anaerobes

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33
Q

What are these symptoms of:
- putrid odor coming from wound/region
- tissue necrosis or gangrene (black discoloration)
- gas present in area of infection
- skin trauma where normal flora exists but skin barrier is broken (fights, bites, trauma, recent surgical incision)
- patient not improving & initial antibiotics had no coverage for this organism

A

anaerobic infection

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34
Q

What type of organisms tend to be more responsive to antibiotics?

A

gram-positive organisms

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35
Q

What has a thick peptidoglycan layer that acts as an easy target for antibiotics and allows for antibiotics to absorb well into it?

A

gram- positive organisms

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36
Q

What type of membrane do gram-positive organisms have?

A

phospholipid bilayer

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37
Q

What is a good example of medication that has typically been used against G+ organisms because it prevents cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains?

A

penicillin

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38
Q

Unlike gram-positive organisms, gram-negative bacteria have what type of cell walls?

A

thin cell walls

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39
Q

What are the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria composed of?

A

outer membrane (OM) of lipopolysaccharides (LPS) with porin channels connected to layer of peptidoglycan

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40
Q

What is a very selective barrier in gram-negative bacteria due to its lipid bilayer?

A

outer membrane (OM)

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41
Q

Because gram-negative bacteria have a selective outer membrane, what happens to antibiotics?

A

some antibiotics are blocked, so there will be no affect

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42
Q

What does this describe in gram-negative bacteria?
- allows diffusion of certain molecules based on size
- can block out some, but not all, antibiotics
- involved in inflammatory mediator release

A

porin channels

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43
Q

A large percentage of bacteria that develop resistance are (1)

A
  1. gram-negative bacteria
44
Q

Changes in (1) of gram-negative bacteria are key in resistance

A
  1. liposaccharide outer membrane
45
Q

What type of bacteria changes so frequently that treatment changes often as well?

A

gonorrhea

46
Q

What is a gram-negative bacterium that causes cervicitis in women or urethritis in men; patients can be asymptomatic or present with discharge, pelvic pain, and systemic symptoms like fever; and is becoming harder to treat?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

47
Q

Most gut bacteria is (1)

A
  1. gram-negative
48
Q

These organisms are what type of gram:
- staphylococcus
- streptococcus
- enterococcus
- peptostreptococcus

A

gram-positive

49
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are gut bacteria that are (1)

A

gram-negative

50
Q

What gram stain is staphylococcus?

A

gram-positive

51
Q

What gram stain is streptococcus?

A

gram-positive

52
Q

What gram stain is corynebacterium?

A

gram-positive

53
Q

What gram stain is mycobacterium?

A

gram-positive

54
Q

What gram stain is bacillus?

A

gram-positive

55
Q

What gram stain is clostridium?

A

gram-positive

56
Q

What are some other pathogenic features of bacteria?

A
  • toxins produced can have devastating effects (toxic-shock syndrome)
  • capsule or “slime layers”
  • spores/endospores
57
Q

What makes bacteria “slippery” and can be able to evade phagocytosis?

A

capsule or “slime layers”

58
Q

Where are spores primarily found in?

A

gram-positive bacteria

59
Q

What allows bacteria to be dormant and resistant to harsh conditions?

A

spores

60
Q

You may have to increase effort to kill when (1) are present?

A

spores

61
Q

What is defined as a collection of bacteria composed of 10 million to 10 billion cells per gram of dehydrated material?

A

biofilms

62
Q

Biofilms are covered in a matrix that the bacteria assembles as a way of:

A

attachment/adhesion
- on surface of teeth
protection
- “like-minded
- can withstand some antibitiocs
detachment
- if colony is weakened, it can detach and propagate elsewhere

63
Q

What are characteristics of atypical bacteria?

A
  • lack cell wall
  • not visible when gram-stained
  • not easy to culture organism
64
Q

What are these examples of?
- Mycoplasma
- Chlamydia
- Legionella

A

atypical bacteria

65
Q

What are treatable with antibiotics, such as macrolides and tetracyclines?

A

atypical bacteria

66
Q

What are big differences in skin colonization even between healthy individuals attributed to?

A
  • age
  • sex
  • immune system
  • genotype
  • hygiene
  • occupation
  • environment
  • underlying diseases
67
Q

What occur in various areas of the body covered by skin?

A

bacterial niches

68
Q

What are abundant in moist/humid areas, such as feet and antecubital fossa?

A

staphylococcus

69
Q

A lot of skin bacteria are what type of stain?

A

gram-positive

70
Q

Is staphylococcus aerobic, FA, or anaerobic?

A

facultative anaerobe

71
Q

Is streptococcus aerobic, FA, or anaerobic?

A

facultative anaerobe or anaerobe

72
Q

What describes when the microbiota is not doing the correct thing?

A

dysbiosis

73
Q

What is propionibacterium acnes associated with?

A

acne

74
Q

What is another name for atopic dermatitis?

A

eczema

75
Q

What appears to flare when there are increased quantities of Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staph aureus (but not sole cause)?

A

eczema (atopic dermatitis)

76
Q

What locations on the body does eczema favor?

A
  • inside of elbow
  • location varies with age
77
Q

The human has (1) types of bacteria in the mouth

A

many (70 different genera)

78
Q

What type of bacteria resides in the human mouth?

A

both gram positive and negative

79
Q

The oral cavity is dominated by abundant (1) species of many kinds

A

streptococcus gram positive bacteria

80
Q

Streptococcus species in the oral cavity have what type of function?

A
  • help metabolize carbohydrates
  • some can inhibit growth or more virulent, disease-causing strains
81
Q

What looks just like strep throat?

A

mono

82
Q

What part of the gut has transient bacteria from the mouth or stomach?

A

proximal esophagus

83
Q

What part of the gut is dominated by gram-positives (mostly streptococcus species) and also includes gram-negatives?

A

distal esophagus and stomach

84
Q

What part of the gut includes both gram positives (streptococcus and clostridium) and gram negatives (E. coli)?

A

small and large intestine

85
Q

What can change your microbiota for 6-12 months?

A

antibiotics

86
Q

What is located anterior nares to the larynx?

A

upper respiratory tract

87
Q

What is located from the larynx to alveoli?

A

lower respiratory tract

88
Q

Staphylococcus, streptococcus, and corynebacterium species can all be found where?

A

upper and lower respiratory tract

89
Q

The main source of microbes for the lungs appears to be the (1) in adults and the (2) and (3) in children?

A
  1. oropharynx
  2. nasopharynx
  3. oropharynx
90
Q

Which respiratory tract has more organisms?

A

upper respiratory tract

91
Q

What is found in the nares of 1/3 of the population and what can this result in?

A

staphylococcus aureus
- can result in infection of the bloodstream (sepsis) or skin around an infection

92
Q

The vaginal microbiota is predominantly what species?

A

Lactobacillus species

93
Q

What helps maintain healthy vaginal pH (<4.5) through the byproduct of lactic acid?

A

lactobacillus species

94
Q

What type of stain in lactobacillus?

A

gram-positive

95
Q

Is lactobacillus aerobic, FA, or anaerobic?

A

anaerobic

96
Q

What can having an adequate amount of lactobacillus protect against?

A
  • overgrowth of other anaerobes and the symptomatic infections that result
97
Q

What are some ways to diagnose a bacterial infection?

A
  1. rely on history and physical findings (80% of time, you’ll know what’s wrong)
  2. in some cases, blood tests (CBC and other inflammatory mediators elevated)
  3. sometimes we can send fluid out for analysis, culture and sensitivity (can take 24-48 hours to get results)
98
Q

What are some cultures we can use for bacterial infection analysis?

A
  • urine
  • sputum
  • blood
  • stool
  • pus
  • CSF or joint fluid
99
Q

What are different tests for susceptibility testing of bacterial infections?

A
  • agar dilution test
  • disk diffusion test
100
Q

What type of test does this describe:
antibiotic is mixed with agar and bacteria are plated on antibiotic specific agar (one plate can test 32-36 bacteria )
- results are read at lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits growth

A

agar dilution test

101
Q

What type of test does this describe:
bacteria is swabbed on agar plate, then filter discs are placed on top; after incubation, area around disks are measures (simple, reliable, and used frequently)?

A

disk diffusion test

102
Q

What is the result obtained on susceptibility tests?

A

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

103
Q

What gives the lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits growth of that bacteria?

A

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

104
Q

What are the results you can get from MIC?

A
  • S=susceptible
  • I=intermediate
  • R=resistant
105
Q

What can be performed on a patient presenting with prolonged diarrhea?

A

stool cultures

106
Q

What bacteria are true pathogens and if found in blood cultures, could mean patient is septic?

A
  • staphylococcus aureus
  • streptococcus pneumoniae
  • escherichia coli
  • pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • klebsiella pneumoniae
  • candida albicans

Clinical Science (18 decks)

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