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BOARDS > Microbiology/Pathology > Flashcards

Microbiology/Pathology Flashcards

1
Q 
Hepatitis A:
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Picornavirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Oral-anal
Disease: Hep A

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2
Q 
Hepatitis B:
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A 
Hepatitis B:
Family: Hepadnavirus
Genome: ds DNA
Transmission: Blood borne
Disease: Hep B
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3
Q 
Hepatitis C:
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A 
Hepatitis C:
Family: Flavivirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Blood borne
Disease: Hep C
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4
Q 
Hepatitis D:
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A 
Hepatitis D: 
Family: Deltavirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Blood borne
Disease: Hep D: but ONLY can infect cells that previously had been infected with Hep B
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5
Q 
Hepatitis E:
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A 
Hepatitis E:
Family: Calicivirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Oral-anal
Disease: Hep E
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6
Q 
Influenza
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Orthomyxovirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: respiratory droplets
Disease: Influenza

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7
Q 
Measles and Mumps
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Paramyxovirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: measles (rubeola) and mumps

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8
Q 
Rubella
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Togavirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: Rubella (German measles)

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9
Q 
Adenovirus
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Adenovirus
Genome: ds DNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: Pharyngitis, Pneumonia, Conjunctivitis

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10
Q 
Rhinovirus
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Picornavirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Respiratory Droplets
Disease: common cold

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11
Q 
HIV
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: retrovirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: blood borne, genital
Disease: AIDS

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12
Q 
Cytomegalovirus
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Herpes virus (HSV-5)
Genome: ds DNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: Mononucleosis syndrome

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13
Q 
EBV
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Herpesvirus (HSV-4)
Genome: ds DNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: infectious mononucleosis

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14
Q 
HSV-1
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Herpes virus
Genome: Ds DNA
Transmission: oral (saliva)
Disease: gingivostomatits, Herpes Labialis

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15
Q 
HSV-2
Family
Genome
Transmission
Disease
A

Family: Herpes Virus
Genome: ds DNA
Transmission: STD
Disease: Genital herpes

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16
Q

What are the RNA non-enveloped viruses?

A

Picornavirus (polio, coxsackie, Rhinovirus, Hep A)
reovirus
Caliciviruses (norovirus and sapovirus)

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17
Q

Which paramyxovirus commonly causes bronchitis and pneumonia in little infants?

A

RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)

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18
Q

Which virus is the only virus to obtain their envelope by budding at the NUCLEAR membrane instead of the plasma membrane?

A

herpesviruses

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19
Q

What are the DNA enveloped viruses?

A

herpesviruses
poxvirus
hepadnavirus

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20
Q

What is a viroid?

A

A circular RNA molecule without protein that can cause plant diseases, but NOT human

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21
Q

What is the most serious potential problem of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

dehydration (the child doesnt want to drink bc its too painful)

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22
Q

How can definitive diagnosis of HSV be made?

A

Tzank preparation

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23
Q

What is a prophage?

A

integrated viral DNA

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24
Q

What is phage T4?

A

it infects E.coli

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25
Q

What is transduction?

A

transfer of DNA from one cell to another using a bacteriophage

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26
Q

What is transformation?

A

A cell takes up naked DNA material from another cell

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27
Q

What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic?

A

lytic - a virus kills a cell by replication

lysogenic- a virus is incorporated into the cell’s DNA and doesnt kill the cell.

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28
Q

What is a provirus?

A

Virus DNA that is incorporated into the host cell DNA

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29
Q

What are the retroviruses?

A
  1. Lentivirus - HIV

2. Oncovirus - HTLV

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30
Q

Where does transcription happen in an RNA virus? what about a DNA virus?

A

RNA virus - cytoplasm (except for retroviruses)

DNA virus - nucleus (except for poxviruses)

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31
Q 
What are the sites of latency in the following viruses?
HSV-1
HSV-2
VZV
EBV
CMV
A 
HSV-1 : trigeminal ganglion
HSV-2: sacral ganglion
VZV: dorsal root and cranial nerve ganglia
EBV: Resting memory B cells
CMV: T cells and arterial wall cells
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32
Q

What is a capsid?

A

the wall of the virus. without an envelope, this is where the attachment site is of a virus to something else.

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33
Q

What is an envelope?

A

a viral membrane that has a lipid bilayer

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34
Q

What is a matrix protein?

A

it glues the capsid to the envelope

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35
Q

What family is poliovirus in?

A

picornovirus

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36
Q

What are the two vaccines for poliovirus?

A

salk vaccin - inactivated

Sabin vaccine - live attenuated

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37
Q

What is the largest and most complex DNA virus?

A

Poxvirus family

they include: smallpox, vaccinia virus, and MCV

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38
Q

Where do poxviruses replicate in the host cell?

A

cytoplasm (they are the exception to only RNA in the cytoplasm)

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39
Q

What diseases can be caused by coxsackievirus?

A

herpangia and hand-foot-and-mouth disease

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40
Q

What is another name for infectious mononucleosis?

A

glandular fever, also called kissing disease

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41
Q

What causes infectious mononucleosis?

A

EBV that infect B cells and epithelial cells of oropharynx

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42
Q

What are the lab findings of someone who has infectious mononucleosis?

A
  1. atypical lymphocytes
  2. positive heterophile antibody reaction (Monospot test)
  3. A lot of antibodies for the EBV antigens
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43
Q

What is the polarity of retroviruses?

A

positive sense

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44
Q

What is a good medication used for VZV?

A

Adenosine arabinoside

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45
Q

What is the variola virus?

A

smallpox

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46
Q

What is hemogglutinin?

A

a glycoprotein “spike” on a virus like influenza

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47
Q

What is neuraminadase?

A

An enzyme that viruses like influenza use to penetrate the cell wall.

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48
Q

Major symptoms of mumps

A

painful swelling of parotid gland

could also lead to orchitis and deafness

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49
Q

Major complication of influenza

A

Could include Reye’s syndrome

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50
Q

Major symptom of measles

A

Koplik’s spots

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51
Q

Major symptoms of rubella

A

lymphadenopathy, followed by rash on the entire body

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52
Q

What are the steps in the virus replication cycle?

A
  1. synthesis of early mRNA
  2. synthesis of nonstructural proteins (like enzymes)
  3. replication of viral genome
  4. synthesis of late viral mRNA
  5. post-translational modification
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53
Q

What are Lambda viruses?

A

a bacteriophage that infects E.coli

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54
Q

What is a satellite virus?

A

an incomplete defective DNA or RNA virus the requires a helper virus to help

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55
Q

What are the viruses that cause respiratory diseases in children?

A

RSV
parainfluenza virus
rhinovirus
adenovirus

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56
Q

What are the common viral causes of viral gastroenteritis?

A 
Rotavirus-in children
Norovirus
Sapovirus
Adenovirus
astrovirus
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57
Q

What are the viral causes of a common cold?

A

Rhinovirus
Coxsackievirus
Coronovirus
Adenovirus

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58
Q

What are the most common viral causes of aseptic meningitis?

A

Coxsackievirus
Echovirus
Mumps

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59
Q

What are the most common viral causes of pharyngitis

A

Coxsackievirus
Adenovirus
Orthomyxovirus
EBV

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60
Q

What are the viruses that can cross the placenta?

A

Rubella
Herpes
HIV
Cytomegalovirus

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61
Q

What are the most common pediatric viral diseases with a RASH?

A 
Measles
Rubella
Roseola
Erythema infectiosum
VZV
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62
Q

What are the only viruses that are double stranded RNA?

A

Reoviruses

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63
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in infants and children?

A

Rotavirus

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64
Q

What is the most common cause of mental retardation in the US?

A

CMV

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65
Q

Is Staph aureus coagulase positive or negative?

A

it is coagulase positive while all other staph species is coagulase negative

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66
Q

Which organism can cause gas gangrene?

A

clostridium perfringens

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67
Q

Which organism can cause tetanus?

A

Clostridium Tetani

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68
Q

Which organism can cause scarlet fever?

A

Strep pyogenes

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69
Q

Which organism has M protein? What about A protein?

A

strep pyogenes - M

Staph aureus - A

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70
Q

What is the major bacteria in the oral cavity?

A

streptococci and lactobacilli

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71
Q

What is the major bacteria in the stomach?

A

helicobacter pylori

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72
Q

Are staph catalase negative or positive? What about strep?

A

staph is catalase positive

strep is catalase negative

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73
Q

What are Lancefield groupings?

A

It groups bacteria by cell wall carbohydrate called substance C (an example is Group A Strep)

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74
Q

What type of hemolysis do oral streptococci have?

A

Alpha hemolysis

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75
Q

What component is vital to the function of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria?

A

LPS

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76
Q

What does the outer membrane of gram - bacteria make?

A

endotoxin

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77
Q

What must happen before an endotoxin is released from a gram negative bacteria?

A

The bacteria must die and the endotoxins are released as the cell membrane is broken down.

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78
Q

What does protein A on staph aureus bind to in the body?

A

The Fc receptor of IgG

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79
Q

What are the dyes called in an acid-fast stain?

A

Carbol-fuchsin and methylene blue

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80
Q

What is a major glycolipid that is in the Mycobacterium species?

A

mycolic acid

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81
Q

What is a good antimycobacterial medicine?

A

Isoniazid

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82
Q

What is the primary lesion in TB?

A

Ghon focus

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83
Q

What is a Ranke complex?

A

A TB Ghon focus lesion that has healed

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84
Q

What makes strep mutans able to bind to the tooth?

A

Its capsule

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85
Q

What are the major components of a gram-positive cell wall?

A

*its a thick, single layer
Thick murein
Teichoic acids

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86
Q

What are the major components of a gram-negative cell wall?

A

*it is multi-layered
thin murein
lipoproteins
LPS

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87
Q

How do the structure of archaeabacteria differ from other bacteria?

A

They do NOT have murein

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88
Q

What do lactobacilli do with glucose?

A

They ferment it into lactate

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89
Q

What are the two lactic acid bacterial species?

A

Lactobacillus and Streptococcus

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90
Q

What bacteria has been found to be a causative agent for root surface caries?

A

actinomyces

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91
Q

What are the two major organisms found in localized aggressive periodontitis?

A

aa and C.ochraceus

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92
Q

What are the two major organisms found in generalized periodontitis?

A

Prevotella intermedia and Eikenella corrodens

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93
Q

What is E.coli?

A

A gram negative facultative anaerobic rod

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94
Q

What are some major characteristic features of E.coli?

A 
Catalase-positive
Oxidase - negative
Ferment glucose and lactose
reduce nitrates to nitrites
positive reaction to methyl red
possess adhesins and exotoxins
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95
Q

What are the two forms of coagulase enzyme in staph aureus?

A

Cell-Bound: found with the slide coagulase test

Cell-free: found with the tube coagulase test

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96
Q

What major test can you do to distinguish strep pneumoniae from other strep species?

A

Bile solubility test: strep pneumoniae are bile soluble

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97
Q

What is a major test to differentiate major groups of gram-positive bacteria?

A

catalase test: staph is catalase positive, strep and enterococci are catalase negative

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98
Q

What is a test to detect presence of E.coli in the urine?

A

Indole test

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99
Q

What attaches to the Fab portion of an antibody? the Fc portion?

A

Fab- epitopes and antigen

Fc - macrophages and neutrophils

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100
Q

What are the smallest bacteria?

A

mycoplasma organisms

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101
Q

Which bacteria do not have a cell wall?

A

mycobacteria

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102
Q

What are the only prokaryotes that have sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane?

A

mycobacteria

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103
Q

What are the two main bacteria in ANUG?

A

prevotella and spirochetes

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104
Q

“punched out” gingiva is associated with?

A

NUG (necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis)

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105
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in the highest concentration in periodontal disease?

A

IgG

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106
Q

What do aerobic bacteria produce to help protect them from hydrogen peroxide and superoxide radicals?

A

catalase enzymes and superoxide dismutase

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107
Q

What type of bacteria make spores?

A

Some gram positive but NEVER gram negative

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108
Q

What is inside a spore?

A
  1. a copy of the DNA
  2. bare minimum of essential proteins
  3. High concentration of calcium bound to dipicolinic acid
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109
Q

traveller’s diarrhea is produced by which bacteria?

A

E.coli

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110
Q

The enterotoxin in E.coli can be detected by what test?

A

ELISA (this test can also be used for many enterotoxins of different bacteria)

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111
Q

What is the role of fimbriae in a bacterial cell?

A

Aids in attachement of bacteria to host surfaces

112
Q

What are Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Gram negative, aerobic rods. They are opportunistic pathogens that produce exotoxin A (ETA) and they are resistant to many antibiotics.

113
Q

What is mutualism?

A

two organisms benefit from each other

114
Q

What is commensalism?

A

One species is benefitted while the other is unaffected

115
Q

What is a syngeneic graft?

A

Same as an isogenous graft. tissue transferred from one identical twin to another

116
Q

What is an allogenic graft?

A

tissue between two members of the same species

117
Q

What is a xenogeneic graft?

A

tissue from a different species

118
Q

What is heterolysis?

A

destruction of a cell from the outside by enzymes

119
Q

What is Karyolysis?

A

gradual fading away of the nucleus

120
Q

What is Pyknosis?

A

the nucleus shrinks and becomes super dense

121
Q

What is Karyorrhexis?

A

The nucleus blows up into fragments and then disappears.

122
Q

What are interferons?

A

“early warning system” They are cytokines that are made in response to an infection. They are species-specific proteins, and are not virus specific, but host specific.

123
Q

What are defensins?

A

They bind to a bacterial membrane and degrade it.

124
Q

What are collectins?

A

They are receptors that can activate compliment and stuff when a ligand binds to it.

125
Q

What is arachodonic acid?

A

Part of a cell membrane. it can be split off and turned into different things, like prostaglandins and leukotrienes.

126
Q

What are things that arachodonic acid can be turned into and by what enzyme?

A

prostaglandins, prostacyclin, thromboxanes by cyclooxygenase

Leukotrienes by lipoxygenase

127
Q

What are the actions of serotonin?

A

It is released from platelets during the clotting cascade to increase permeability of blood vessels in the area as well as vasoconstrict them. Thus clotting and inflammation are linked.

It is also a neurotransmitter

128
Q

What is hemophilia and what causes it?

A

it is a bleeding disorder and it is caused by lack of factor VIII or factor IX in the clotting cascade.

129
Q

What is G6PD?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. it is used in the pentose phosphate shunt and produces NADPH.

130
Q

What is the most prevalent enzyme deficiency in humans?

A

G6PD deficiency. It is an X-linked disorder and can protect against malaria

131
Q

What is lactoferrin?

A

It is in secondary granules in neutrophils. It is bacteriostatic and chelates iron to deprive bacteria of iron needed for growth.

132
Q

What are the types of granules in a neutrophil? What do each of these granules do?

A
  1. Azurophilic granules: 30%, include defensins, lysozyme
  2. Secondary granules: 60% include lactoferrin and collagenase
  3. Tertiary granules: include gelatinase
  4. Secretory vesicles
133
Q

What does lysozyme degrade?

A

the glycan portion of peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls, which make them burst. It can also function as an opsonin.

134
Q

What are the functions of peroxisomes?

A
  1. They breakdown long chain fatty acids
  2. turn h2o2 into water and oxygen
  3. degrade alcohol
  4. make plasmalogen
135
Q

What is surface membrane immunoglobulin?

A

It is an antigen receptor on B cells

136
Q

What are the three organisms that can cause septic shock?

A

Staph aureus
Klebsiella
E.coli

137
Q

What are labile tissues?

A

have continuously dividing cells like in the bone marrow

138
Q

What are stable tissues?

A

They dont divide under normal circumstances, only if they need to. ex: liver and kidney

139
Q

What are reticulum cells of the lung?

A

dust cells (macrophages in the lung)

140
Q

What causes Tay-Sachs disease?

A

deficiency in hexosaminidase A

141
Q

What are the dermatophytic fungi? what does that even mean?!

A

fungi that can cause skin infections. They are

  1. microsporum
  2. trichophyton
  3. epidermophyton
142
Q

What is the most effective anti fungal for tinea infections?

A

griseofulvin (although it has to be taken as a pill and not a topical cream)

143
Q

Are fungi prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A

eukaryotic

144
Q

What are other characteristics of fungi in general?

A
  1. They are all gram positive
  2. They have DNA and RNA
  3. They have two types: molds and yeasts
145
Q

What is dimorphic fungi?

A

They form molds outside the body, but can form yeast inside the body.

146
Q

What are the major dimorphic fungi?

A

Blastomyces
Histoplasma
Coccidioides
Sporothrix

147
Q

What are the only fungi that are NOT septated?

A

zygomycetes

148
Q

What type of reaction happens from the body in a fungal infection?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

149
Q

What are the conidia called that are produced by budding yeasts?

A

blastospores

150
Q

What are the conidia called that are produced by hyphae?

A

arthrospores

151
Q

What are endemic mycoses? What are the major ones?

A

fungal infections that only happen in certain geographic areas.

They include:
Histoplasma
Blastomyces
Coccidioides immitis
Coccidioides posadasii
Paracoccodioides brasiliensis
152
Q

What causes Valley Fever?

A

Coccidioides immitis

153
Q

What causes Gilchrist’s disease?

A

Blastomyces dermatiditis

154
Q

What does H. capsulatum cause?

A

Histoplasmosis

155
Q

What 5 fungi are opportunistic?

A

ZAP CC

Zygomycosis
Aspergillus
Pneumocytosis
Candidiasis
Cryptococcosis
156
Q

What protozoan can cause malaria?

A

plasmodium

157
Q

What protozoan can cause amebic dystentery?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

158
Q

Which protozoan is an STD and is one of the most common infections worldwide?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

159
Q

Which protozoan is transmitted through cats?

A

Toxoplasmosis

160
Q

What are the largest internal human parasite?

A

helminths

161
Q

What is another name for roundworms? Flukes? tapeworms?

A

roundworms: nematodes
flukes: trematodes
tapeworms: cestodes

162
Q

What is the most common nephropathy?

A

Adult polycystic kidney disease

163
Q

What is the most susceptible organ in malignant hypertension?

A

Kidney

164
Q

What is nephrosclerosis

A

kidney disorder in which the smallest arteries of the kidney are damaged. There are three types.

165
Q

What is the most common type of kidney stone?

A

calcium stones

166
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome?

A

A condition where you get increase permeability of the glomerular capillaries, so you get proteinuria, edema etc… it is NOT a disease, just a symptom of something else

167
Q

What disease is mostly associated with nephrotic syndrome?

A

primary glomerulonephritis

168
Q

You have a 3 year old child that has edema in the ankles and around the eye, what syndrome could they likely have?

A

nephrotic syndrome, but it really could occur at ANY age, just edema shows mostly at younger ages.

169
Q

What is the difference of nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephrotic is massive proteinuria and nephritic is inflammation

170
Q

What causes nephritic disease mostly?

A

acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

171
Q

What is the most common cause of death in patients with cirrhosis?

A

bleeding esophageal varices which leads to coughing up blood.

172
Q

What is Iron deficiency anemia associated with? What else is this called?

A

esophageal webs

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

173
Q

What is ascites?

A

fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity

174
Q

What is hematemesis?

A

vomiting of blood

175
Q

What does splenomegaly indicate?

A

If you have splenomegaly, you probably have portal hypertension as well. This also causes esophageal varices as well.

176
Q

What is cholestasis?

A

when bile can’t flow to the duodenum from the liver. This often results in pruritis (itchiness) and jaundice

177
Q

What does bilirubin come from and how does it turn into bile?

A

It comes from a breakdown of old RBCs. A macrophage eats the RBC, and then secretes free bilirubin the the blood stream. This free bilirubin immediately binds to albumin and together they go to the liver, where they are turned into bile.

178
Q

What is unconjugated bilirubin?

A

Bilirubin that cannot dissociated with albumin and stays in the blood or whatever. It can’t be secreted in urine.

179
Q

What is the most common reason for liver transplants in the US?

A

Hepatitis C

180
Q

Which Hepatitis is transmitted via fecal-oral route?

A

Hep A

181
Q

How is Hep A diagnosed? How is immunity to Hep A found?

A

Anti-HAV IgM and immunity is conferred by Anti-HAV IgG

HAV means Hep A Virus

182
Q

Which Hepatitis is trasnmitted via needles?

A

Hep B

183
Q

How is Hep B diagnosed? How is immunity to Hep B found?

A

HBsAg - diagnosis

anti-HBsAb - immunity

184
Q

Which hepatitis is NOT associated with cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hep A

185
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?

A

alcohol use

186
Q

What is emphysema?

A

When the airway distal to terminal bronchioles enlarge and destroy some of the alveolar walls. They have air trapped in their lungs and can’t breath as well because they don’t have ELASTIC RECOIL in the lungs.

187
Q

What is a natural occuring substance in the lungs that protects against emphysema?

A

alpha1-antitrypsin

188
Q

What are the 4 types of emphysema?

A

centroacinar - upper lobes (most common)
panacinar - lower lobes (older people)
paraseptal- young adults
irregular - with scarring

189
Q

What is small airway disease?

A

Also known as bronchiolitis

It is a viral infection of small children/infants where the bronchioles undergo inflammation and are constricted, making harder to breath

190
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Where your bonchioles are permanently damaged, widened and thickened. This allows bacteria in easier and causes frequent infections.

191
Q

What is chronic bronchitis?

A

Mucous gland hypersecretion, which makes you cough a lot. Caused by smoking or air pollution

192
Q

What are the two types of asthma

A

atopic- caused by allergy

non-atopic - non allergy

193
Q

What type of IgE response happens in atopic asthma?

A

Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity

194
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

dyspnea while lying flat

195
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Incomplete expansion of lungs. Common in infants that do not secrete surfactant.

196
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

an inherited disease that affects mucous glands many in the lungs, GI, reproductive and other organs. it causes mucous to be thick and sticky, which obstructs passageways.

197
Q

Patients with cystic fibrosis often have a deficiency in what?

A

fat-soluble vitamins

198
Q

What is the most common fatal genetic disease in white children?

A

cystic fibrosis

199
Q

Which disease happens with prolonged inhalation of carbon dust?

A

anthracosis

200
Q

What are the 3 morpholical types of pneumonia?

A
  1. Lobar - Strep pneumonia
  2. Bronchopneumonia - patchy distribution of various organisms
  3. Interstitial - mycoplama or viruses
201
Q

What is the most common type of bacteria that results in lung abcesses?

A

strep and staph

202
Q

What are the types of melanoma?

A
  1. superficial spreading melanoma - radial growth predominates
  2. Nodular melanoma - vertical growth predominates
  3. lentigo melanoma - on sun exposed skin (called Hutchinson freckle)
  4. Acral-lentiginous - least common, on palm, sole or under nails
203
Q

What is pheochromocytoma?

A

composed of chromaffin cells, it is a tumor of the adrenal gland. This causes excess secretion of Epi and Norepi. These are associated with the rule of 10’s

204
Q

What is the rule of 10’s in pheochromocytoma?

A
  1. 10% are extra-adrenal (called paragangliomas)
  2. 10% are bilateral
  3. 10% are malignant
  4. 10% are NOT associated with hypertension
205
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor of childhood?

A

neuroblastoma - tumor in the adrenal medulla

206
Q

Where in the lung are adenocarcinomas usually located?

A

in the periphery

207
Q

What is epidermoid carcinoma?

A

also known as squamous cell carcinoma.

narise in the hilus and is closely related to smoking

208
Q

What is adenocarcinoma of the lung?

A

smaller and located in the periphery of the lungs. This is the most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers and women.

209
Q

What is small cell carcinoma?

A

Also called “oat carcinoma”, most aggressive and malignant. strongly related to smoking

210
Q

What is large cell carcinoma?

A

Also called “anaplastic” carcinoma. composed of large cells

211
Q

Which lymphoma usually involves abdominal organs and is linked to EBV?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma, which is a type of non-hodgkins lymphoma

212
Q

What is histological characteristics of non-hodgkins lymphomas?

A

starry sky

213
Q

Between Hodgkins and Non-Hodgkins lymphoma, which one is malignant and aggressive?

A

Non-hodgkins lymphoma

214
Q

What are the two forms of Burkitt’s Lymphoma and what are the areas that they begin?

A

African form: begin as a mass in the jaw

American form: begin as a mass in the abdomen

215
Q

What is the most common diagnosed cancer of the oral cavity?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

216
Q

Colorectal cancer is associated with increased serum concentration of what?

A

carcinoembryonic antigen

217
Q

What serum marker is elevated in prostate cancer?

A

acid phosphatase and PSA (prostate-specific antigen)

218
Q

What is the most common tumor in HIV/AIDS patients?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

219
Q

What type of Kaposi’s sarcoma can have oral manifestations?

A

Epidemic, or AIDS associated Kaposi’s Sarcoma

220
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

A plasma cell neoplasm derived from B cells. It involves the axial skeleton and has the following symptoms:

  1. bone lesions
  2. hypercalcemia
  3. anemia
  4. renal failure
  5. oral manifestations
  6. Bence-Jones proteins
221
Q

What are the oral manifestations of multiple myeloma?

A

dental pain, swelling, numbness, expansion of the jay and tooth mobility. (more common in mandible)

222
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

has many different types of tissues in it

223
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

when an area of tissue looks nothing like normal

224
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor in bone?

A

osteogenic sarcoma

225
Q

What is a choristoma?

A

a benign mass of tissue found in an organ in which it doesnt belong (like liver tissue in the intestine)

226
Q

What is a hamartoma?

A

A benign tumor-like overgrowth of cells that are regularly found in that tumor, like a hemangioma

227
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans?

A

cutaneous disorder where you have hyperkeratosis and pigmentation in various areas of the body

228
Q

What is a dermatofibroma?

A

benign neoplasm that appear as small red bumps that result from accumulation of fibroblasts

229
Q

What is acrochordon?

A

Skin tag

230
Q

What is actinic keratosis?

A

premalignant skin lesion caused by the sun. Common on elderly

231
Q

What is Seborrheic keratosis?

A

benign neoplasm common on older adults and look like warts

232
Q

What is keratoacanthoma?

A

malignant common skin tumor, but can transform into SCC. It can originate from pilosebaceous glands and grow quickly.

233
Q

What are the ABCDE of melanoma?

A 
asymmetry
Borders irregular
Color is pigmented
diameter greater than 6 mm
evolution or change has occurred (it grew)
234
Q

A schilling test is used to detect what?

A

pernicious anemia

235
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

an autoimmune disorder were you lack intrinsic factor, that is needed to absorb vitamin B12. RBCs are macrocytic

236
Q

What is the direction of growth in an arterial thrombus vs a venous thrombus?

A

arterial grows in retrograde direction, venous grows in the direction of blood flow. (both toward the heart)

237
Q

What is congestion?

A

Too much fluid in capillaries.

238
Q

What are the two types of congestion?

A

Active: arteriolar dilation
Passive: from obstruction

239
Q

What are the causes of microcytic anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

Thalassemias

240
Q

What are the causes of macrocytic anemia?

A

Liver disease

Vitamin B12 and Folate deficiency

241
Q

What is Warfarin?

A

an anticoagulant that interferes with Vitamin K. Also called Coumadin.

242
Q

What are 6 circumstances that will delay blood clotting in someone?

A
  1. heparin
  2. leukemia
  3. cirrhosis
  4. van Willebrand’s disease
  5. aspirin
  6. Bernard-Soulier disease
243
Q

What is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Basically its where you lack enzymes that can degrade vWF in the blood, meaning that you can have more vWF and start clotting in the bloodstream.

244
Q

What is the most common cause of bleeding disorders?

A

Thrombocytopenia - reduced number of platelets

245
Q

What is the most common hereditary anemia?

A

Sickle cell anemia

246
Q

What amino acid irregularity is present in sickle cell RBCs?

A

valine is replaced with glutamic acid

247
Q

What deficiency do you have with Hemophilia A, B and C

A

A- factor VIII
B- Factor IX
C- Factor XI

248
Q

Is hemophilia an extrinsic or intrinsic disease?

A

intrinsic (prolonged PTT)

249
Q

What is Albers-Schonberg disease?

A 
Also known as osteopetrosis, it manifests with reduced bone resorption due to impaired osteoclasts.
This leads to:
1. fractures
2. anemia (decreased marrow space)
3. blindness and deafness
250
Q

Primary pericarditis is almost always of what origin?

A

viral

251
Q

What is the most common viral cause of pericarditis?

A

coxsackie B virus

252
Q

What is the first cardiac marker to occur in the blood after an MI?

A

myoglobin, then troponin, then creatine kinase

253
Q

What is the most common pathogen to cause acute endocarditis? what about sub acute endocarditis?

A

acute: staph aureus
subacute: strep viridans

254
Q

Which bacteria has sulfur granules?

A

actinomyces

255
Q

What does the tetanus toxin inactive?

A

proteins that regulate glycine and GABA

256
Q

What does the botulism toxin inactive?

A

release of Ach

257
Q

What is eosinophilia?

A

high counts of eosinophils in the blood, often associated with parasitic infections

258
Q

What causes syphilis?

A

treponema pallidum

259
Q

What are the lesions associated with primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis?

A

primary - chancre
secondary - condyloma lata
tertiary - gumma

260
Q

encephalitis is most often caused by a ______ infection.

A

viral

261
Q

What population does leukemia occur in most frequently?

A

children under 15

262
Q

What is the most common cause of cancer death in children under the age of 15?

A

leukemia

263
Q

What is the form of leukemia that is most responsive to therapy? What is the form that is most malignant?

A

responsive- ALL (acute lymphoblastic leukemia)

malignant - AML (acute myeloid leukemia)

264
Q

Which type of leukemia has Philadelphia chromosome?

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia

265
Q

Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

266
Q

Which immunoglobulin is used to opsonize things?

A

IgG

267
Q

What is the difference between cellular immunity and humoral immunity?

A

cellular - T lymphocytes

Humoral - B lymphocytes

268
Q

Which is more potent and stable between C3a and C5a?

A

C5a

269
Q

What are the three major complement pathways?

A
  1. Classical - antibody
  2. alternative - no antibody
  3. Lectin - Mannose binding lectin
270
Q

What is adoptive immunity?

A

transferring lymphocytes from one person to another.

271
Q

Which compliment pathway is the first one that is activated?

A

alternative pathway

272
Q

What things are released into the bloodstream during anaphylactic shock?

A 
histamine
heparin
platelet activating factors
SRS-As - causes spasms in bronchioles
serotonin
273
Q

What type of IgA is secretory?

A

dimeric IgA

274
Q

What is an adjuvant in vaccinations?

A

They enhance inflammation and create a stronger immune response, thereby enhancing the vaccination effectiveness.

275
Q

What are the adjuvants approved for human use?

A

Alum and MF59

BOARDS (4 decks)

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