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BOARDS > Biochemistry/Physiology > Flashcards

Biochemistry/Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What makes a sugar a reducing sugar?

A

If the oxygen atom on the first carbon is not attached to anything, it can be reduced.

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2
Q

What is a GAG?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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3
Q

What are the most abundant GAGs?

A

chondroitin sulfate

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4
Q

What is the most heterogenous GAG

A

Keratan sulfate

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5
Q

What is the most abundant GAG in a joint?

A

hyluronate

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6
Q

What is maltose?

A

two glucose

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7
Q

What is lactose?

A

glucose and galactose

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8
Q

What is sucrose?

A

glucose and a fructose

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9
Q

Where does final digestion of carbohydrates occur?

A

small intestine

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10
Q

What type of bond connects the monosaccharides in sugars like maltose, lactose and maltose?

A

O-glycosidic bonds

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11
Q

What is D-glucose?

A

a monosaccharide and a aldohexose

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12
Q

What is the most common configuration of sugars?

A

The D form (as opposed to the L form)

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13
Q

What are the two major components of starch?

A

amylose and amylopectin

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14
Q

What are the linkages of starch?

A

unbranched: a -1,4 linkages
branched: a-1,6 linkages

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15
Q

What are the linkages in glycogen?

A

a-1,4 linkages

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16
Q

Where is chondroitin sulfate normally found?

A

cartilage, aorta, cell membranes, tendons and ligaments,

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17
Q

What in the freak is a Dextran?

A

a polysaccharide of glucose that is produced extracellularly by bacteria and yeast using the enzyme glucosyl transferase, which cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose and will link the glucose together, leaving a by product of fructose.

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18
Q

Which bacteria can produce dextrans?

A

strep mutans

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19
Q

What is the photopigment called that rods contain?

A

rhodopsin, which is retinal + opsin

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20
Q

What mineral is required to make rhodopsin?

A

vitamin A. This makes retinal, which is combined with opsin to make rhodopsin. Vit A deficiency can lead to night blindness.

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21
Q

Which part of the eye is like a shutter on a camera?

A

iris

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22
Q

Which part of the eye does the majority of bending of light for focusing an image?

A

the cornea (not the lens)

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23
Q

What part of the eye becomes “cloudy” in cataracts?

A

The lens

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24
Q

What things can cause conductive hearing loss?

A

stuff in the auditory canal
otosclerosis
anything in the middle ear

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25
Q

What things can cause sensorineural hearing loss?

A 
stuff in the inner ear
ototoxic drugs
Meniere disease
Acoustic neuroma
Presbycusis
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26
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

hearing loss with age

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27
Q

What is miosis?

A

constriction of pupil of eye

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28
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

Dilation of pupil of eye

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29
Q

What is myopia?

A

nearsightedness, far things are blurry and are focused in FRONT of the retina

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30
Q

What is hyperopia?

A

farsightedness, close things are blurry, but far things can also be blurry and are focused BEHIND the retina.

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31
Q

What is albumin and what is unique about it?

A

it is a blood protein. It is very compact, which means it doesnt really effect the viscosity of the blood.

it makes up 60% of the plasma proteins, but provides 80% of the colloid osmotic pressure because it is so hydrophilic.

Basically, water loves it, it is small, and there is a lot of it.

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32
Q

What does PTH do?

A

parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium. It increases absorption of calcium in the gut and osteoclast activity in the bones

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33
Q

What does Calcitonin do?

A

Decreases serum calcium. It increases osteoblast activity.

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34
Q

How much of plasma is water?

A

91%

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35
Q

What is syneresis?

A

liquid that separates from a gel that is solidifying.

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36
Q

What happens if there is trauma to a tissue as far as the clotting pathway?

A
  1. Tissue factor converts VII to VIIa
  2. VIIa activates factor X to Xa using calcium
  3. Xa combines with V to make prothrombin activator
  4. Prothrombin activator turns prothrombin into thrombin
  5. Thrombin turns fibrinogen into fibrin, which forms the clot
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37
Q

Where is iron absorbed in the GI?

A

duodenum

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38
Q

How is iron stored in the body?

A

forming complexes called ferritin and hemosiderin

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39
Q

How does iron get from your diet to a cell being stored?

A

it is absorbed in the duodenum, and combines with apotransferrin to form transferrin in the bloodstream. This is a loose binding though so as it travels through the bloodstream, it can disconnect and go into any tissue for storage.

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40
Q

What is hemochromatosis?

A

iron storage disease that results in iron-containing pigments in peripheral tissues. It causes bronzing of the skin, diabetes and weakness.

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41
Q

Type O is the universal ______

A

donor, because it has no AB antigens. These people have anti A and anti B antigens, so can only receive type O blood.

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42
Q

What is the universal receiver for blood transfusions?

A

Type AB because they lack anti-A and anti-B antibodies

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43
Q

What are the two forms of hemoglobin?

A

T and R (tense and relaxed). Tense hemoglobin has a weaker affinity for oxygen (in the capillaries)

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44
Q

A right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve indicates what?

A

a decrease in oxygen affinity to hemoglobin

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45
Q

What type of shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve happens during low pH?

A

right, so more oxygen gets released and more CO2 can get eliminated.

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46
Q

What type of shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve happens during increased temperature?

A

right

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47
Q

What type of shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve happens during decreased CO2?

A

left, so that co2 will not get eliminated as quickly.

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48
Q

What are the two major parts to a hemoglobin molecule?

A

the globin part: has 4 polypeptide chains (2 alpha and 2 beta)

the 4 ring-shaped heme molecules (non protein groups)

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49
Q

How many oxygen molecules can a hemoglobin hold?

A

4 molecules of O2

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50
Q

Where does the CO2 bind on a hemoglobin molecule? Where does the O2 bind?

A

CO2 binds to the protein part

O2 binds to the non-protein part

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51
Q

What are the types of Hemoglobin and what is each one?

A

MCASH

hemoglobin M: associated with methemoglobinemia
hemoglobin C: lysine instead of glutamic acid
hemoglobin A: 2 alpha and 2 beta (normal in humans)
hemoglobin S: valine replaced glutamic acid (sickle cell)
hemoglobin H: four beta chains (alpha-thalassemia)

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52
Q

Where is erythropoietin formed?

A

90% in the kidneys, the rest in the liver

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53
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

a ton of RBCs in the blood, making it really viscous

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54
Q

What do erythrocytes contain that aid in function of the RBC?

A

hemoglobin and carbonic anhydrase

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55
Q

What are the two important types of tubular glands in a stomach mucosa?

A

oxyntic glands and pyloric glands

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56
Q

Where are oxyntic glands located?

A

The proximal 80% of the stomach

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57
Q

Where are pyloric glands located?

A

the distal 20% of the stomach

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58
Q

What cells make up the oxyntic glands of the stomach and what do they do?

A

Mucous neck cells: secrete mucous
Chief cells: secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase
Parietal (or oxyntic) cells: secrete HCl and intrinsic factor

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59
Q

What is intrinsic factor?

A

it is a mucoprotein that is required to absorb vitamin B12. it is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach.

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60
Q

What are the cells that make up pyloric glands of the stomach and what do they do?

A

G cells: secrete gastrin

Mucous cells: secrete mucous, bicarbonate, and pepsinogen

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61
Q

What are the 3 functions of brunner’s glands?

A
  1. secrete alkaline mucous
  2. secrete bicarbonate
  3. inhibit parietal cells by secreting urgastrone
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62
Q

What three hormones cause pancreatic secretions?

A
  1. Ach: increases GI activity
  2. Cholecystokinin: for bile
  3. Secretin: helps with alkalinity
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63
Q

Pancreatic enzymes that are secreted in the duodenum are called what?

A

Zymogens and they are inactive until they get to the small intestine

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64
Q

What is cobalamin?

A

vitamin B12

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65
Q

What are the three processes that take place in the stomach before the food can move on to the intestines?

A

propulsion- moves food toward the pylorus
grinding - breaks food to <2mm
retropulsion - moves arge chunks away from pylorus

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66
Q

What are the three phases of gastric HCl secretion?

A

Cephalic phase - HCl is secreted at the sight and smell of food. 30% of HCl happen here.
Gastric phase: 60% of HCl happen here
intestinal phase: 10% happen here

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67
Q

What causes dissociation of the actin-myosin complex?

A

ATP binding to the myosin head.

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68
Q

The finer the movement, the ______ number of muscle spindle fibers in the muscle.

A

greater

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69
Q

What is the difference between the golgi tendon organ and the muscle spindle fiber?

A

golgi tendon organ is a protective reflex to protect the tendons. It INHIBITS alpha motor neurons.

The spindle fiber, when stretched, activated the alpha motor neurons.

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70
Q

What is the function of basal ganglia?

A

To control complex patterns of motor activity

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71
Q

What other structures do basal ganglia work with?

A

the cortex and corticospinal motor system

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72
Q

What are types of structures that are considered basal ganglia?

A

the striatum, globus pallidus, substantia nigra etc…

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73
Q

What brain structure is stimulated when there is a reduction in core body temperature and what action does this produce?

A

posterior hypothalamus will produce shivering

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74
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

It is the mass of nerve fibers that connect the two hemispheres of the brain.

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75
Q

Which has a higher blood flow per minute, aorta or capillaries?

A

They are the same

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76
Q

What is the diameter of an arteriole?

A

30-400 micrometers (NOT mm!)

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77
Q

HIV/AIDS has what enzyme that can effect DNA?

A

reverse transcriptase

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78
Q

How do ribosomes differ in bacterial vs human cells?

A

bacterial: 70s ribosomes (30 and 50)
human: 80s ribosomes (40 and 60)

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79
Q

What direction is DNA formed, from 3’ to 5’ or 5’ to 3’

A

DNA is read by a DNA polymerase from 3’ to 5’ and as it reads it, it makes a copy from 5’ to 3’. So the complimentary strand is formed from 5’ to 3’.

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80
Q

What is topoisomerase?

A

it uncoils “supercoiled” DNA when replicating

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81
Q

What is DNA gyrase?

A

It takes a strand of newly formed DNA and recoils it.

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82
Q

What is a helicase?

A

it unwinds and DNA helix for replication

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83
Q

What is the difference between a nucleotide and a nucleoside?

A

nucleotides have a nitrogen base, a ribose/deoxyribose and a phosphate group, but a nucleoside doesnt have the phosphate.

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84
Q

Eating a diet rich in purine bases leads to the accumulation of __________. Why?

A

Uric acid. purine bases in the diet are turned to uric acid by xanthine oxidase.

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85
Q

What is the start codon? What is another name for it?

A

AUG or “methionine”

86
Q

What are the stop codons?

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

87
Q

What is the first heart enzyme to appear in the bloodstream following an MI?

A

creatine kinase

88
Q

What are the 3 heart enzymes useful in a diagnostic test for MI’s?

A 
Creatine Kinase (CK)
Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)
Aspartate transaminase (AST)
89
Q

What is the coenzyme in transaminase reactions?

A

pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)

90
Q

What is an oxidative deamination reaction?

A

it is a reaction under aerobic conditions where an amino acid is converted to a keto acid for energy.

91
Q

What are the products of an oxidative deamination reaction of glutamate?

A

alpha ketoglutarate and free ammonia

92
Q

What is a key enzyme in the production of aqueous humor in the eye?

A

carbonic anhydrase

93
Q

What are the components of the electron transport chain?

A
  1. complex 1 (FMN): recieves electrons from NADH. transfers them via Fe-S to
  2. Coenzyme Q: receives e- from FMN and transports them to Complex 3. (skips complex 2)
  3. Complex 2: receives e- from FADH2 and transports them to complex 3
  4. Complex 3: has cytochromes a,b, and c.
  5. Cytochrome C transfers e- to complex 4.
  6. Complex 4 passes e- to oxygen.
  7. ATP synthetase
94
Q

What vitamin is complex 1 derived from?

A

riboflavin

95
Q

Which complex is a part of the krebs cycle?

A

complex II (succinate dehydrogenase)

96
Q

What is a proenzyme?

A

an inactive precursor of the enzyme

97
Q

what is an apoenzyme?

A

an inactive enzyme because a coenzyme was removed from it

98
Q

Which enzyme dissolves blood clots?

A

plasmin. it will cleave the peptide bond in fibrin to dissolve the clot

99
Q

How is a zymogen activated?

A

Zymogens are inactive due to a protein that is attached to it. So cleavage of that protein will activate the enzyme.

100
Q

What is another name for amylase?

A

ptyalin (amylase breaks down starches, just FYI)

101
Q

Which is faster, a-amylase or b-amylase?

A

a-amylase

102
Q

Which amylase will cleave a-1,6 glycosidic linkages?

A

gamma amylase

103
Q

What does glucose-6-phosphatase do?

A

it turns glucose-6-phosphate into glucose.

104
Q

What organs is glucose-6-phosphate present in?

A

liver and kidneys but NOT skeletal muscle!

105
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

making glucose from lactic acid or amino acids

106
Q

What is the substrate for glycogen synthesis?

A

UDP-glucose (the non-reducing end of glycogen is the other substrate)

107
Q

What is the difference between a non-competative and un-competitive inhibitor?

A

both bind to an allosteric site on an enzyme, but the uncompetitive inhibitor will ONLY bind to the enzyme IF a substrate is already attached.

108
Q

What converts Trypsinogen into its active form trypsin?

A

Trypsin itself, or enteropeptidases

109
Q

How is pepsinogen activated?

A

By the low pH in the stomach

110
Q

What else can trypsin activate other than trypsinogen?

A

ALL of the pancreatic enzymes

111
Q

What is the bone enzyme?

A

alkaline phosphatase

112
Q

What does the bone enzyme do as osteoblastic activity increases?

A

It increases in the blood serum

113
Q

What is alkaline phosphatase derived from?

A

osteoblasts

114
Q

What is an enzyme in the blood that is used in the diagnosis of organophosphate poisoning?

A

plasma cholinesterase

115
Q

What enzymes are used to diagnose liver disease?

A

alanine transaminase and aspartate transaminase

116
Q

What enzyme can help detect bile obstruction?

A

y-Glutamyl transferase

117
Q

what enzyme will be elevated in prostate cancer?

A

PSA (prostate-specific antigen) and Acid phosphatase (ACP)

118
Q

If an apoenzyme combines with a cofactor, what does it make?

A

A haloenzyme (the active form of an apoenzyme)

119
Q

Which enzyme is vital to tissue respiration and is a cofactor for the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase?

A

Thaimine pyrophosphate

120
Q

What is another name for growth hormone?

A

somatotrophic hormone

121
Q

What is growth hormones inhibitory effect?

A

It inhibits the action of insulin metabolism

122
Q

What cells in the body have both androgen and FSH receptors?

A

Sertoli cells

123
Q

What is the most important target of cAMP?

A

protein kinase A

124
Q

What degrades cAMP?

A

phosphodiesterases

125
Q

What is the best-known stimuli for increasing the rate of TSH?

A

exposure to cold

126
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus is oxytocin and ADH made?

A

ADH - supraoptic nuclei

Oxytocin - paraventricular nuclei

127
Q

What receptors does insulin bind to?

A

tyrosine-kinase receptors on skeletal muscles.

128
Q

What transporters work to bring glucose into the cell?

A

GLUT-4

129
Q

What stimulation could cause BOTH insulin and glucagon release into the bloodstream?

A

increased levels of amino acid

130
Q

What is the collective group of names for hormones secreted due to acid chyme in the duodenum that inhibit the stomach?

A

enterogastrins (like cholecystokinin and GIP)

131
Q

Where is aldosterone secreted?

A

in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex.

132
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

it acts on the distal tubule of the kidney to reabsorbe sodium and water, and excrete potassium.

133
Q

What is ANP and what does it do?

A

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide, causes sodium and water to be excreted in the urine (opposite of aldosterone)

134
Q

How do oral contraceptives work?

A

They prevent the rise in luteinizing hormone which prevents ovulation.

135
Q

What effect does TSH have on the body?

A
  1. normal growth and development (especially the brain)
  2. affects metabolic processes and rate of metabolism
  3. increases oxygen consumption and heat production
136
Q

What amino acid is a precursor to catecholamines?

A

tyrosine

137
Q

What does gastric inhibitory peptide do?

A

It is released into the upper small intestine by mucosa after a person eats a meal and begins increasing insulin in anticipation of increased blood glucose.

It also slows down the stomach when the upper small intestine is full.

It increases lipase activity in adipocytes

138
Q

Type II diabetics are not responsive to which hormone, other than insulin?

A

GIP

139
Q

What are the three zones of the adrenal gland cortex and what hormone is secreted at each zone?

A

Gooey Fart Rippers All Can’t Announce

Zona Glomerulosa - Aldosterone
Zona Fasciculata - Cortisol
Zona Reticularis - Androgens

140
Q

What is secreted in the adrenal gland medulla?

A

epi and norepi

141
Q

Mineralcorticoids have

A

an aldehyde group at C-18

142
Q

What is unique about estrogens structure?

A

ring A is aromatic

143
Q

What are the functions of cortisol?

A

promotes gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, breakdown of protein, glycogenolysis

144
Q

What disease can happen due to excessive cortisol release?

A

Cushing’s Syndrome

145
Q

What unique symptom is associated with Cushing’s Disease?

A

moon facies

146
Q

What is another name for somatostatin?

A

Growth hormone inhibitory hormone

147
Q

What functions do somatostatin have on the body?

A

They inhibit a bunch of stuff like:

Growth Hormone
Insulin
Glucagon
many other GI hormones
and more...
148
Q

What cell produces prolactin?

A

lactotropes

149
Q

What does phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase do? Where is this found?

A

it turns norepinephrine into epinephrine. it is ONLY found in the adrenal medulla

150
Q

What hormones is tyrosine a precursor to?

A

catecholamines and Thyroid Hormone

151
Q

Which hormone would cause increase in number of aquaporins in the kidney tubules?

A

ADH

152
Q

What is a neurilemma?

A

The sheath of schwann cells that wrap around axons in the PNS. These allow the nerves to regrow if damaged, but only in the PNS!

153
Q

What is another name for a nerve block caused by local anesthetics?

A

nondepolarizing nerve block

154
Q

What is the site of action for local anesthetics

A

the lipoprotein sheath of a nerve

155
Q

What is the difference between spatial summation and temporal summation?

A

spatial: multiple places of excitation at the same time
temporal: rapid succession of excitation at the same point

156
Q

What does an increase in diameter of a nerve fiber do to the speed of nerve conduction?

A

it increases it

157
Q

Is glycine excitatory or inhibitory?

A

inhibitory

158
Q

Is serotonin excitatory or inhibitory?

A

inhibitory

159
Q

What is monoamine oxidase?

A

an enzyme that aids in created excess neurotransmitters at postsynaptic sites.

160
Q

What two structures make up the striatum?

A

caudate nucleus and putamen

161
Q

What two structures make up the lentiform nucleus?

A

The putamen and globus pallidus

162
Q

Is the basal ganglia generally excitatory or inhibitory for motor movements?

A

inhibitory

163
Q

What is the system called that includes structures from the basal ganglia?

A

extrapyramidal system

164
Q

What are the receptors for Ach called?

A

nicotinic and muscarinic

165
Q

What is another name for the corticospinal tract?

A

pyramidal tract (as opposed to the extrapyramidal tract)

166
Q

What is the “tract” called that cranial nerves are a part of?

A

corticobulbar tract

167
Q

The corticospinal tract travels to the pyramids of the medulla and most of it decussates to run down the spinal cord. The part that decussates is called what? The part that remains ipsilateral is called what?

A

The part that decussates is called the lateral corticospinal tract or crossed pyramidal tract

The part that does not decussate is called the anterior corticospinal tract or direct pyramidal tract

168
Q

What is an exteroreceptor?

A

A sensory receptor that detects stimuli external to the body

169
Q

What is another name for a motor neuron?

A

“Final common pathway”

170
Q

What is adaptation in a sensory receptor?

A

a change in the way the receptor responds (like you get used to a smell because your receptors desensitize)

171
Q

What are meissner’s corpuscles?

A

sensory receptors to light pressure, fine touch, or low frequency vibration

172
Q

what are Krause’s corpuscles?

A

sensory receptors to touch, low frequency vibration, or cold

173
Q

What are Ruffini’s corpuscles?

A

sensory receptors to crude and persistant touch or heat

174
Q

What are Pacinian corpuscles?

A

sensory receptors to deep pressure, high frequency vibration or stretch

175
Q

What is an mEPP?

A

miniature end plate potentials. These are small depolarizations at the motor end plate of muscle. If enough of them occur, a full-fledged “End Plate Potential (EPP)” will occur and the muscle will contract.

176
Q

What is the rubrospinal tract deal with?

A

Its a motor tract in the spine that deals with coordination of body movements

177
Q

What is the vestibulospinal tract?

A

a motor tract that helps with balance

178
Q

what are funiculi?

A

The areas of the white matter in the spinal cord

179
Q 
Where do the following transporters reside?
GLUT-1
GLUT-2
GLUT-3
GLUT-4
GLUT-5
A 
GLUT-1: RBC's and blood brain barrier
GLUT-2: Liver and pancreas
GLUT-3: neurons
GLUT-4: muscle and adipose tissue
GLUT-5: intestine and testis
180
Q

What is massive, systemic edema called?

A

anasarca

181
Q

What percentage of sodium chloride is considered isotonic?

A

0.9% solution or 5% glucose solution

182
Q

What quality do inorganic salts give to bone?

A

They help the bone withstand compression

183
Q

What quality do collagen fibers give to bone?

A

They increase the tensile strength of bone

184
Q

What type of bond is a peptide bone?

A

A covalent bond

185
Q

How much of a body is made up of water?

How much of that water is intracellular vs extracellular?

A

60%
40% - intracellular
20% - extracellular

186
Q

What temperature does the skin need to be to start sweating?

A

37 degrees

187
Q

What is the first antibody present during an infection?

A

IgM

188
Q

What is the most common antibody in the body?

A

IgG

189
Q

What is the most important antibody to a secondary infection?

A

IgG

190
Q

Which antibody activates compliment?

A

IgM

191
Q

Which antibody is the second most abundant antibody?

A

IgA

192
Q

What is the main function of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

reabsorbs 2/3 of filtered salt and water and all filtered organic solutes like glucose etc…

193
Q

What is the main function of the descending limb of the loop of Henle?

A

it is permeable to water, but NOT to salt

194
Q

What is the main function of the ascending loop of Henle?

A

It is not permeable to water, and salt is actively pumped out of the urine to the interstitial fluid.

195
Q

What is the main function of the distal convoluted tubule?

A

Its mainly regulated by the endocrine system and will do what the hormones tell it to do.

196
Q

How does the kidney help regulate the body’s pH?

A

It secretes H+ and reabsorbs bicarbonate. It can secrete either acidic or alkaline urine.

197
Q

How is GFR increased?

A
  1. vasodilation of afferent arterioles (increase whats coming in)
  2. Vasoconstriction of efferent arterioles (decrease whats going out)
  3. decreased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s capsule
  4. Decrease plasma colloid osmotic pressure
198
Q

How much glomerular filtrate and urine excretion happen in one day?

A

150-250 L of glomerular filtrate

1-2 L of urine

199
Q

Where is the primary location for glutamine to be turned into ammonia?

A

kidneys

200
Q

Which enzyme directly catalyzes urea formation in a cell?

A

arginase

201
Q

How is the action potential different in cardiac muscles vs skeletal muscle.

A

It has a plateau, which makes it last 15 times longer in cardiac muscle

202
Q

What are the 2 reasons why there is a plateau in cardiac muscle action potentials?

A
  1. Cardiac muscle has an additional channel called the slow calcium channel. They remain open for longer before repolarization.
  2. The permeability for potassium is 5x lower during an action potential in cardiac muscle, making potassium take longer to enter the cell.
203
Q

How does the refractory period differ between atria and ventricles?

A

atria are only .15 seconds and ventricles are .25 to .30 seconds.

204
Q

How do the refractory periods differ in skeletal muscle vs cardiac muscle?

A

skeletal muscle is faster, and allows contractions to happen before the muscle has relaxed.

205
Q

The first heart sound is the closure of what valve?

What about the second heart sound?

A

first heart sound is the closure of the AV valves

The second is the closure of the semilunar valves

206
Q

What does a P wave represent in an ECG?

A

atrial depolarization

207
Q

What does a T wave represent in an ECG?

A

Ventricular repolarization

208
Q

What does a QRS complex represent in an ECG?

A

ventricular depolarization (and also atrial repolarization)

209
Q

What would you suspect if you see extra P waves before each QRS complex on a ECG?

A

partial heart block

210
Q

What results on an ECG would you see in a complete heart block?

A

P waves and QRS complexes each at there own rhythm

211
Q

What is the Bainbridge Reflex?

A

Also known as the atrial reflex. It’s a positive feedback mechanism in which you get an increased HR due to increased atrial pressure.

BOARDS (4 decks)

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