Microbiology - Part 2 (Fungi, Protozoa etc) Flashcards

1
Q

Why are fungi eukaryotic

A

Have a nuclear membrane

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2
Q

What is meant by fungi being heterotrophic

A

Get nutrients from what they are living on

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3
Q

How do fungi move/spread

A

By means of growth or spore release

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4
Q

Describe cell wall of fungi

A

Chitinous cell wall

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5
Q

Define yeast

A

Small single celled organisms that divide bu budding

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6
Q

What do moulds form from

A

Multicellular hyphae and spores

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7
Q

What are Dimorphic fungi

A

Fungi that exist as both yeasts and moulds, switching between the two when conditions suit

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8
Q

Give example of dimorphic fungi

A

Coccidioides immitis

  • grow as mould at ambient temperature
  • convert to yeast at body temperature after inhalation
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9
Q

Can fungi effect humans

A

Only a few fungal forms can actually infect humans.
Fungi have an inability to grow at 37 degrees
Fungi also can’t evade the adaptive/innate immune response

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10
Q

Describe the burden of fungal disease

A

Large as most people will have had at least one in lifetime e.g. nappy rash, tine pedis (athletes foot), fungal asthma
However life-threatening fungal infection is RARE in healthy hosts

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11
Q

What patients can suffer Invasive/life threatening fungal diseases

A

Immunocomprimised hosts
Post-surgical patients
(Healthy hosts)

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12
Q

What fungal infections are immuno-comprimised hosts at risk of?

A

Candida line infections
Pneumocystis
Invasive aspergillosis

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13
Q

What fungal infections are post-surgical patients at risk of?

A

Intra-abdominal infections

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14
Q

What fungal infections are healthy hosts at risk of?

A

Fungal asthma

Travel associated fungal infections e.g. dimorphic fungi

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15
Q

What is the aim of antimicrobial drug therapy?

A

To achieve inhibitory levels of agent at the site of infection without host cell toxicity

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16
Q

Why is selective toxicity harder to be achieved for fungi than bacteria

A

Fungi are eukaryotic and so more similar to human cells (and harder to differentiate)

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17
Q

What increases selective toxicity

A

Target does not exist in humans
Target is significantly different to human analogue
Drug is concentrated in organism cell with respect to humans
Organism has an increased permeability to the compound [used to target and treat it]

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18
Q

Give example of drug that targets fungal nucleus

A

Flucytosine

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19
Q

Give example of drug that targets fungal cells wall

A

Echinocandins

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20
Q

What does fungal cell wall contain

A

Mannoproteins
B 1,3-glucan
B 1,6-glucan
Chitin

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21
Q

What does fungal plasma membrane contain

A

Ergosterol

not cholesterol like in humans

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22
Q

Give examples of drugs that target fungal plasma membranes

A

Amphotericin
Azoles
Terbinafine

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23
Q

Define Amphoteric

A

A compound that is able to act as a base and an acid

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24
Q

What class of compounds does Amphotericin B belong to

A

Polyenes

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25
What is meant by polyenes being a fungicidal
Cause pore formation in ergosterol containing membranes
26
Why is Amphotericin B more selective for fungi than human cells?
As has 10 times lower affinity for cholesterol in mammalian membranes than ergosterol
27
Although Amphotericin B is more specific for fungi, what toxicity can it still cause to humans?
Nephrotoxicity (dose dependent and usually reversible) Distal Renal Tubular Acidosis (hypokalaemia) Can cause hyperkalaemia if infused rapidly resulting in cellular damage Also causes infusion related chills/rigors/hypotension and acute anaphylactoid reactions
28
What class of compounds does Terbinafine belong to
Allylamines
29
How does Terbinafine work?
Causes reversible inhibition of squalene epoxidase (an enzyme required for growth of the fungi). Inhibits ergosterol biosynthesis. Distributed extensively to poorly perfused sites such as skin and nail beds.
30
What is the bioavailability of Terinafine?
It is well absorbed by undergoes extensive first pass metabolism Therefore bioavailability is 45%
31
What fungi is Terinafine mainly used against?
Candida and Aspergillus | Superficial infections including onychomycosis
32
What are side effects of Terinafine?
Well-tolerated but results in: Taste disturbance Deranged liver function tests (LFT) Does also result in increased CYP450 metabolism (by multiple enzymes and is minimally inhibitory)
33
What class of drugs is Caspofungin, Anidulafungin and Micafungin from?
Echinocandin
34
How do Echinocandins work?
Inhibit formation of cell wall by inhibiting B-1,3-glucan synthase, preventing formation of glucan
35
Give examples of fungi resistant to Echinocandins and why
``` Some fungi don't have large amounts of glucan (1,3B) in their cell wall so are intrinsically resistant e.g.: Crytococcus Zygomycetes Trichosporon (Limited activity against Scedosporium) ```
36
What are potential side effects of Echinocandins
``` Limited drug toxicity: Rare type-1 hypersensitivity Hepatotoxicity Hypokalaemia (but has few drug interactions) ```
37
What are uses of echinocandins?
Systemic disease | Activity against mould but not yeast forms of dimorphics
38
Why are echinocandins only given IV
poor oral bioavailability
39
How do Azoles work?
Inhibit ergosterol biosynthesis
40
What class of drugs would you use for superficial infections (including onychomycosis)
Allylamines e.g. Terbinafine
41
Give examples of Echinocandins
Caspofungin Anidulafungin Micafungin
42
Give examples of Azoles
``` Clotrimazole Miconazole Ketonazole Fluconazole etc ```
43
Mechanism os Azoles
Inhibit ergosterol biosynthesis Dose dependent inhibitors of 14a-sterol demethylase (important intermediate in pathway of cholesterol and ergosterol production)
44
Give adverse effects of Azoles (relatively safe tho)
Transaminitis | GI side effects (more so with Itraconazole e.g. nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, rare life threatening liver failure)
45
Which Azoles have more pormenant drug interactions and with what
Itraconacole (potent CYP3A4 inhibitor) Interactions with statins, steroids, (same as fluconazole) Fluconazole (hydrophilic and excreted unchanged) Less significant interactions with Warfarin, Calcineurin inhibitors, Anxiolytics
46
Pyrimidine Class: | Give example, mechanism and uses
5-fluorocytosine Inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis Systemic disease
47
Grisan class: | Give example, mechanism, uses
Griseofulvin Inhibits microtubule assembly Topical disease
48
What is onychomycosis
fungal infection of the nail caused by dermatophyte moulds | treatment limited and low success rate
49
Describe pathogenesis of Pneumocystis
Infection of healthy people is frequent and occurs early in life. Disease develops with moderate-severe immuno-comprimisation (Especially those of HIV, transplant and steroids) Patient has hypoxia worse than is suggested in chest X-ray
50
Treatment of pneumocystis
Co-trimoxazole, Clindamycin, Pentamidine, Trimetrexate
51
Give examples of Mycobacteria
``` M. tuberculosis - TB/Tuberculosis M. leprae - Leprosy M. avian complex (MAC) - Disseminated infections in AIDS or patients with chronic lung disease M. kansasii - Chronic lung infection M. marinum - Fish tank granuloma M.ulcerans - Buruli ulcer ```
52
Why is it difficult for antibiotics to Taggert the division phase of mycobacteria?
Slow growth means it's difficult for antibiotics to target division phase M. tuberculosis generation time 15-20 hours (compared to 1 hour for common bacterial pathogens)
53
Describe microbiology of mycobacteria
``` Aerobic Resistance to staining by acid and alcohol May cause meningitis (TB meningitis) Can withstand phagolysosome killing Non-spore forming Non-motile Bacilli High content of high molecular weight lipid in cell wall Slow growing ```
54
What are key components of the cell wall?
Mycololic acids and liporabinomannan - make strong waxy cell wall that is hard for immune system to target/damage Weakly gram-positive or colourless (difficult to stain mycobacteria due to thick cell wall)
55
Who discovered TB
Robert Koch
56
*State what Koch postulated
Bacteria should be found in all people with disease Bacteria should be isolated from the infected lesions in people with the disease A pure culture inoculated into a susceptible person should produce symptoms of the disease The same bacteria should be isolated from the intentionally infected individual
57
What makes mycobacteria resistant to gram stain?
High lipid content with mycolic acids in call wall
58
What stain can be used to test for mycobacteria?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain | Pink/Red (positive for acid-fast)
59
What can be used to detect/analysis nucleic acid in mycobacteria
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Amplifies nucleic acid rapid diagnosis in TB endemic countries
60
Describe immunology of mycobacterial disease
Mycobacteria are acid-fast bacilli that are phagocytosed by macrophages and placed in macrophage's phagolysosome. Bacteria has adapted to intracellular environment, aims to withstand phagolysosomal killing and escape to cytosol with presence of thick waxy cell wall. Microbicidal molecules used by host to kill mycobacterium. Acidifaction aids digestion and degradation by proteases of the mycobacteria - results in antigens to present to T cells. CD4 T cells generate interferon gamma which helps activate intracellular killing in macrophage IL-12 release by macrophages further stimulates generation of T helper cells and thus interferon gamma release Granulomas arise in a response to try and contain and possibly starve the mycobacteria over time
61
What allows mycobacteria to withstand phagolysosomal killing
Thick waxy cell wall
62
What is function of IL-12 in mycobacterial immunology
Released by macrophages | Further stimulates the generation of T-helper cells and interferon gamma release
63
What is result win genetic defect in interferon gamma or IL-12 receptors or elements of their signalling pathways? (mycobacterial immunology)
Susceptibility to mycobacterial infection
64
How do CD4 T-cells help activate intracellular killing by macrophages
Generation of interferon gamma
65
What is done to try and contain mycobacteria
``` Granulomas formed to try and contain mycobacteria Macrophages become epithelioid cells and some macrophages fuse with each other to form giant multinucleate cells "Langerhans giant cells" T cells (incl cytotoxic CD8 T-cells) infiltrate granuloma ```
66
What happens to tissue infected by mycobacteria in granuloma formation
Central tissue may necroses and form a caveating granuloma | Granuloma prevents nutrients from entering thereby starving bacteria
67
What is equivalent of caveating granuloma in lung
Central tissue necrose | Formation of a CAVITY
68
What happens to TB in granuloma
TB will go into a dormant sate inside granuloma | Can be reactivated at some point in the future
69
The highly immunogenic nature of mycobacterial lipid stimulate T-cell responses, how long after exposure to M.tuberculosis
3-9 weeks
70
What are positive T-cell responses to M.tuberculosis exposure
Macrophage killing of mycobacteria Containment of infection Formation of tissue granuloma
71
What are negative T-cell responses to M.tuberculosis exposure
Hypersensitivity reactions (type 4) with skin lesions, eye lesions and swelling of joints
72
How can we measure reactivity in IGRAs
Reactivity can be measured in Tuberculin Skin Test (of IGRA) where intramural injection of purified protein derivatives induce skin swelling and redness.
73
Describe IGRAs
Interferon Gamma Release Assays Use antigens specific to M.tuberculosis e.g. ESAT-60 and CFP10 to distinguish between this and BCG vaccine or environmental mycobacteria. IGRAs demonstrate exposure to M.tuberculsosis but NOT ACTIVE INFECTION
74
State the principles of mycobacteria treatment
- Slowly replicating bacteria so need prolonged treatment - 6 months of antimicrobials - There are different populations of mycobacteria in particular locations intracellularly and extracellularly or in environments of differing pH - Resistance may emerge on treatment so use multi-drug combinations to ensure target all populations and mutants - Compliance is essential; directly observed treatment used for many patient groups to ensure success
75
*Give examples of anti-tuberculous drugs in standard therapy of mycobacteria
Isoniazid (INH) Rifampicin (RIF) Pyrazinamide (PZA) Ethambutol (ETH) for 2 months Isoniazid and Rifampicin for further 4 months
76
What is given for mycobacteria (anti-tuberculous drugs) if resistance develops to standard therapy
Fluroquinolones Injectable agents including Streptomycin, Cyclosporine, Capreomycin Prothionamide
77
Give examples of side effects from anti-tuberculous drugs
Hepatotoxicity - Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide Peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid - give vitamin B6 to protect against this Optic neuritis - ethambutol
78
What is given to protect against peripheral neuropathy from Isoniazid
Vitamin B6
79
What is a primary complex
Granuloma Lymphatics Lymph nodes
80
*Describe Primary Tuberculosis
Bacilli settle in apex (top part near shoulders) and granuloma forms Bacilli taken in lymphatics to hilarious lymph nodes In apex of lungs there is more air and less blood supply so fewer white cells to fight off infection Primary complex can form
81
Why does tuberculosis proliferate more in apex of lung
More air and less blood supply so fewer defending white cells to fight off infection
82
Describe Latent tuberculosis
Cell-mediated immune (CMI) response from T-cells Primary infection is contained but CMI persists No clinical disease (normal chest X-ray) Detectable CMI to TB on tuberculin skin test of IGRA
83
What chest X-ray would you see in latent tuberculosis
Normal chest X-ray
84
Describe Pulmonary Tuberculosis infection
Could occur immediately following primary disease (post-primary) or after latent reactivation Cell-mediated immune response from T-cells Necrosis in lesion Caseous material coughed up leaving cavity TB may spread in lung causing other lesions CMI and caseation in lesion results in cavity
85
(How and) where does TB spread beyond the lungs
Bacilli can spread from apex to hilar lymph nodes and then elsewhere causing: - TB meningitis - Miliary TB - Pleural TB - Bone and joint TB - Genitourinary TB
86
*What is military TB
widespread dissemination and tiny spotted lesions all over lungs and elsewhere
87
In worm infection, what is the Pre-Patent Period?
Interval between infection and the appearance of eggs in the stool
88
Describe features of worm-related disease
Rare in UK (usually cases are imported). Adult worms can NOT replicate inside body, so if can't get out it will eventually die. Although they can usually produce innumerable larvae or eggs, total worm burden can NOT increase without constant re-exposure to infection.
89
What % of the world are affected by Ascarius lumbricoides
25%
90
What are Ascarious Lumbricoides?
Large roundworm | Found world wide, mainly in tropics
91
What are 3 groups of worm?
Nematodes (roundworms) Trematodes (flatworms, flukes) Cestodes (tapeworms)
92
Give examples of different types of Nematodes
Intestinal Larva migrans Tissue (filaria)
93
Give examples of different places where you'd find Trematodes
Blood Liver Lung Intestinal
94
What are different types of Trematodes
Non-invasive | Invasive
95
Describe how Intestinal Nematodes spread
Soil-transmitted varieties All are transmitted from human to human via eggs or larvae Egg/Larvae is not usually infectious when first passed and has to undergo a period of development in the soil. Faecal-Oral spread therefore**
96
Ascarious Lumbricoides - what are effects on adults (or worms generally)?
Often asymptomatic Mainly mechanical issues (intestinal obstruction, biliary/pancreatic duct obstruction, appendicitis) Malnutrition Disrupt surgical anastomoses (connection between vessels) after intra-abdominal surgery
97
What is Loeffler's Syndrome (worms)?
Associates with larval migration through lungs | Occurs 10 to 14 days after infection commenced
98
What are symptoms of Loeffler's syndrome?
``` Cough Fever CXR infiltrates Wheeze Eosinophilia ```
99
What are treatment options for Ascarious Lumbricoides
Piperazine Pyrantel Mebendazole Levasimole
100
Give 2 examples of Hookworm
Ancyclostoma duodenale Necator americanus (small white worm 1 cm long, life expectancy 1-5 years)
101
What is the most common cause of iron-deficiency anaemia?
Hookworm
102
*How would you diagnose hookworm
stool microscopy for eggs
103
Give treatment for hookworm
Iron supplements: Pyrantel Mebendazole
104
**What is the only common helminth infection in the UK?
Enterobius vermicularis | Pinworm (or threadworm)
105
Describe life cycle of Enterobius vermicularis
- Adult is resident in the large bowel. - The female adult emerges from the anus at night to lay eggs on the perineum. - The eggs, which become infectious after 4 hours, are ingested by the next host. - There is no tissue migratory phase
106
Describe clinical presentation of pinworm/ Enterobius vermicularis
``` Pruritis ani Appendicitis Vaginal penetration (endometritis, salpingitis, infertility) (Paranasal sinuses?) Commonly affects whole families ```
107
**Describe diagnosis of Enterobius vermicularis
Microscopy of sellotape strip from perianal region
108
**Describe treatment of Enterobius vermicularis
Mebendazole Piperazine Pyrantel (treat whole family)
109
*Give examples of different Schistosomiasis
Schistosoma haematobium Schistosoma mansoni Schistosoma japonicum (adult fluke approx 12cm long)
110
Give examples of Tissue Nematodes (the filaria)
Wuchereria bancroftii (elephantiasis) Brugia malayi Loa loa Onchocerca volvulus
111
Give examples of Tapeworms
``` Taenia saginatum (beef tapeworm) Pok tapeworm (can cause neurocysticercosis) Echinococcus granulosus (dog tapeworm) Echinococcus multilocularis (artic fox ") Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm) ```
112
What is Katayama fever?
An initial immune-complex mediated illness 2-4 weeks after exposure (schistosomiasis)
113
Describe pathology to worm/egg on surface
T-cell mediated immune response to worm/egg surface leading to cytokine release IL-12 can suppress egg-induced pathology (mediated by interferon gamma) Granuloma develops Fibrosis if egg laying continues
114
Where can you get flukes?
``` Blood Liver Lung Bowel (they all have a snail as an intermediate host) ```
115
**Define Protozoa
Single-celled eukaryotic organisms with a definitive nucleus
116
What is main biological role of protozoa
Consumers of bacteria, algae and microfungi
117
Give examples of different protozoa
``` Mastigophora (flagellates) Sarcodina (Amoebae) Apicomplexa (Sporozoans) Ciliophora (Ciliates) Microsporidia ```
118
What is main locomotory organelle of Mastigophora (flagellates)
Flagellum | Usually reproduce by binary fission
119
Give examples of Mastigophora (flagellates)
Giardia lamblia (Intestinal flagellates) Trypanosoma spp. (Haemoflagellates) Trichomonas Vaginalis
120
Describe symptoms of Gardia lambia
Flatulence Abdominal cramps (Intestinal flagellates)
121
Describe clinical presentation of African Trypanosomiasis
Lesion develops 2 weeks after getting bitten on arm by insect 2 years later fever, lethargy and myalgia Excessive weight loss; Personality change; Irritability; Coma; Increased daytime tiredness
122
How does Sarcodina (Amoebae) move
By means of flowing cytoplasm and production of pseudopodia
123
Give example of Sarcodina (Amoebae)
Entamoeba histolytica
124
Describe presentation of amoebasis
Bloody diarrhoea upon abroad visit (e.g. rural Botswana) UK return get increasing right upper quadrant pain Liver abscess seen on CT
125
Describe features of Apicomplexa (Sporozoans)
No locomotory extensions All species are parasitic (most are intracellular) Reproduce by multiple fission
126
Give exampled of Apicomplexa (Sporozoans)
Plasmodium spp. Cryptosporidium spp. Toxoplasma gondii
127
Which Apicomplexa (Sporozoans) protozoa causes Malaria
Plasmodium spp.
128
Describe presentation of toxoplasmosis
Recent HIV positive diagnosis (low CD4) 2-week history of progressive left sided weakness Headaches and Visual Disturbances Commonly presents when people are immunosuppressed (chemo or HIV/AIDS)
129
Describe features of Ciliophora (Ciliates)
Have cilia that beat rhythmically at some stage in lifecycle 2 nuclei types (micronucleus and micronucleus) Very large group
130
Give example of Ciliophora (Ciliates)
(Protozoa) Balantidium coli - presents in those who are immunocompromised (causes severe diarrhoea and/or ulceration of colon)
131
Describe features of Microsporidia
Very small Production of resistant spores Causes diarrhoea in immunocompromised
132
Give example of Microsporidia
Enterocytozoon bieneusi
133
*What 4 species of Protozoa cause malaria and what is most common?
Plasmodia falciparum (most common) P. ovale P. vivax P. malariae
134
How is malaria transmitted?
Bite of Female Anopheles Mosquito
135
How many cases per year are there of Malaria
300-500 million cases per year (80% Africa)
136
How many deaths per year are there of Malaria
700,000 to 2.7 mil deaths a year
137
Why in there increasing incidence of malaria
- Increasing resistance of parasite to antimalarials - Increased resistance of mosquito to insecticides - Ecological & climate changes - means mosquitoes can be found in more countries - Increased travel to endemic areas
138
Describe the vector by which malaria spreads
Female Anopheles mosquito - mainly bites at night Worldwide distribution Infection is acquired during feeding from infected human Lifespan of female mosquito is 3-4 weeks Mosquito is infected for life
139
True or False: | Variation in lifecycle between different Plasmodia spp. results in different clinical manifestations
True
140
Describe the parasitology of malaria
Female anopheles mosquito becomes infected after taking a blood meal with gametocytes (sexual form of malarial parasite). Developmental cycle in mosquito usually takes 7-20 days (depends on temperature), culminating in the migration of infective sporozoites to insect's salivary glands. Sporozoites are inoculated into a new human host, which are rapidly taken up by liver (if not destroyed by the immune system). Sporozoites multiply in hepatocytes as merozoites - this is the pre-erythrocytic sporogeny. After afew days , infected hepatocytes rupture, releasing merozoites into the blood where they're taken up by erythrocytes. In erythrocytes, parasites again multiply changing from merozoites to trophozoites to schizont and finally appearing as 8-24 new malarials. Erythrocyte ruptures, releasing merozoites to infect further cells.
141
When do sporozoites become in hepatocytes (if not destroyed by immune system)
Merozoites | Pre-erythrocytic sporogeny
142
In malaria parasitology, what bacteria can have parasites that remain dormant in liver as hypnozoites?
P. vivax P. ovale These may reactivate at any time causing relapsing infection (therefore ask 2 year travel history to counter this)
143
What are hypnozoites?
Dormant merozoites (parasite from sporozoites) in liver. Due to dormancy, these will not be eradicated by anti-malarials
144
Summarise the stages of malaria parasite in body
``` Sporozoites Merozoites (liver) Trophozoites (erythrocyte) Schizonts (erythrocyte) Merozoites ```
145
What is the cycle of malaria parasite in body called
Erythrocytic schizogony
146
How long does Erythrocytic schizogony cycle take for each malaria species
48 hours in P. falciparum, P. vivax and P. ovale | 72 hours in P. malariae
147
What can merozoites develop into
Trophozoites | some into Gametocytes
148
What cells are mainly targeted by P.vivax and P.ovale
Reticulocytes | Young erythrocytes
149
What cells are mainly targeted by P.malariae
Older cells
150
Which malaria causing species will parasitise any stage of erythrocyte
P.falciparum
151
Describe pathogenesis of malaria
Relates to anaemia, cytokine release and widespread organ damage in P.falciparum
152
How does P.falciparum cause widespread organ damage
Impaired microcirculation Red cells contain Schizonts that adhere to lining of capillaries in brain, kidneys, gut, liver and other organs. Schizonts can also cause rupture, releasing toxins and stimulating further cytokine release.
153
What causes anaemia in malaria?
Haemolysis of infected red cells Haemolysis of non-infected red cells (Blackwater fever - dark urine) Splenomegaly Folate depletion
154
What is normal incubation period for someone with malaria
10-21 days
155
Describe clinical features of malaria (common to all 4 species)
``` Fever is common (not always present) Chills and sweats Headache Myalgia Fatigue Nausea and vomiting Diarrhoea ```
156
What is myalgia?
pain in muscle or group of muscles
157
What less common symptoms would you see in adult patient with malaria
``` Coma ARDS (adult resp distress syndrome) Anaemia Jaunice Hepato-splenomegaly Hypoglycaemia (parasites eat up glucose) Blackwater fever Renal failure Shock from bacterial sepsis ```
158
What less common symptoms would you see in child patient with malaria
``` Tachypnoea (rapid breathing) Anaemia Hypoglycaemia Cerebral malaria Raised intracranial pressure CONVULSIONS (60-80%) (rule out meningitis) Non specifc e.g. crying, eating etc ```
159
Describe clinical features specific to P.vivax or P.ovale
Relatively mild illness (P.vivax can occasionally cause severe disease) Slow developing anaemia May be tender hepatosplenomegaly Spontaneous recovery usually within 2-6 weeks HYPNOZOITES in liver can cause relapse for many years after infection (Repeated infections can lead to chronic ill health)
160
Describe clinical features specific to P.malariae
Relatively mild illness but tends to run a more chronic course Parasitaemia (parasites in blood) may persist for years with or without symptoms Nephrotic syndrome and Glomerulonephritis in children
161
Describe clinical features specific to P. falciparum
Around 75% of cases Unlikely to present more than 3 moths after exposure. Causes vast majority of deaths. Blackwater fever resulting from widespread intravascular haemolysis High parasitaemia Cerebral malaria - diminished consciousness, confusion and convulsions progressing to coma and death Rapid deterioration in patients
162
What causes cerebral malaria symptoms of diminished consciousness, confusion and convulsions in P.falciparum infection
``` Hypoxia to brain Reduced brain perfusion caused by schizonts adhering to the endothelial cells of capillaries ```
163
True or False: Malaria should be in the differential diagnosis of ANYONE who presents with FEBRILE ILLNESS in, or having recently left a malarious area
True
164
Give non-specific symptoms of malaria
Anaemia Low platelets Hyperbilirubinaemia Mildly raised transaminases (ALT, AST)
165
What physical tests can be used to diagnose malaria
Thick and Thin films (Done at least 12 hours apart to check for presence of parasite) 3 separate films should be examined before malaria is declared unlikely
166
Describe how thick and thin films are used in malaria diagnosis
Thick film: Sensitive but low resolution (difficult to interpret the parasite but have a higher yield). Tells you is malaria is present. Thin film: Identify morphological features and quantification of parasitaemia. Tells you type and parasite count, above 2% = severe. Identification of species on thin film - trophozoite most commonly used.
167
Describe treatment of complicated falciparum malaria
``` IV Artesunate IV Quinine (but can cause hypoglycaemia) ```
168
Describe treatment of uncomplicated falciparum malaria
Oral Riamet Oral Quinine (add doxycycline as 2nd agent to treat undiscovered/ untreated malaria)
169
Describe treatment of non-falciparum malaria
Oral Chloroquine
170
While oral chloroquine is used in treatment of non falciparum malaria, describe treatment of P.vivax & P.ovale malaria
PRIMAQUINE for hypnozoite clearance | Not suitable for those with G6PD deficiency and pregnancy status
171
Describe types of genetic immunity to malaria
Sickle cell trait protects you Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) - enzyme that is essential for assuring the normal life span for red blood cells, deficiency results in the sudden destruction of red blood cells and can lead to haemolytic anaemia - malaria parasites CANNOT SURVIVE in these red cells
172
Describe acquired immunity in malaria
Recurrent infection can result in semi-immunity but lost if not reinfected after a couple years Maternal transmission of antibodies across placenta (diminishes over time)
173
``` Which pair is correct? Pityriasis versicolor = bacterium Ringworm = helminth Aspergillus fumigatus = mycobacterium Falciparum malariae = fungal Giardia lamblia = protozoal ```
Giardia lamblia = protozoal Pityriasis versicolor is fungal Aspergillus fumigatus is fungal Falciparum malariae is parasitic protozoal Ringworm is caused by various fungi, not helminths
174
Mycobacteria. Which is not a feature? a) Resistance to destaining by acid and alcohol b) Cell wall contains lipoarabinomannan c) They only divide every 20 hours d) They cannot withstand phagolysosomal killing e) May cause meningitis
d) They cannot withstand phagolysosomal killing
175
What causes ringworm?
``` Various fungi (NOT a helminth) ```