Microbiology - NBS Flashcards

1
Q

Neurtophils, monocytes and macrophages are all examples of ________

A

Phagocytes

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2
Q

________, ________ and ________ are all immune cells that release inflammatory mediators

A

Basophils, Mast Cells, Eosinophils

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3
Q

________ start as a monocyte and present antigens to T Cells

A

Macrophages

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4
Q

________ poduce cytokines, can activate helper and cytotoxic T cells and kill pathogen or tumor cells

A

Macrophages

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5
Q

________ ________ cells can inactivate pathogens

A

Natural Killer

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6
Q

Macrophages are considered part of our ________ Immune System

A

Innate

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7
Q

Killer-/Helper-/Regulatory-T Cells are all part of our ________ Immune System

A

Adaptive

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8
Q

The 3 main types of T cells are ________, ________ and ________

A

Helper T Cells
Killer T Cells
Regulatory T Cells

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9
Q

________ kill virus-infected cells with/without antibody by triggering target cell to “commit suicide”

A

Killer T Cells

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10
Q

________ help in antigen recognition and regulation, secrete cytokines (Interleukin 2 and Interferon Gamma), and activate helper and killer T cells and kill pathogen or tumor cell

A

Helper T Cells

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11
Q

________ help other T cells keep “under control”

A

Regulatory T Cells

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12
Q

Match the correct Type hypersensitivity reaction with its relative brief description
Type———————————-Description
I—————————————–Antibody mediated
II—————————————-T Cell mediated
III—————————————Immediate hypersensitivity
IV————————————–Immune complex mediated

A

Type———————————-Description
I—————————————–Immediate hypersensitivity
II—————————————-Antibody mediated
III—————————————Immune complex mediated
IV————————————–T Cell mediated

Remember the acronym "I AM IT"
I = "I"
II = "AM"
III = "I"
IV = "T"
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13
Q

Type ________ hypersensitivity is associated with IgE, mast cells, basophils, allergic mediators and anaphylaxis, hay fever and asthma

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

a. I

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14
Q

Type ________ hypersensitivity is associated with IgG, IgM, cause cell lysis and blood group incompatibility, pernicious anemia and myasthenia gravis

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

b. II

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15
Q

Type ________ hypersensitivity is associated with IgG, antibody-mediated inflammation and SLE, RA, serum sickness and rheumatic fever

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

c. III

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16
Q

Type ________ hypersensitivity is delayed and associated with infections, dermatitis, graft rejections, poison oak, and poison ivy

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

d. IV

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17
Q

Match the WHO report with the appropriate year
WHO Report——————————————-Year
SARS out break in China————————–2013
Avian flu outbreak Asia—————————-2012
Hantavirus in Yosemite State Park————2003
Meningitis + West Nile virus———————-2002
Pertusis————————————————–
Norovirus————————————————
Salmonella———————————————-
8.8 million new cases of TB———————-
1.4 million deaths from TB————————

A

WHO Report——————————————-Year
SARS out break in China————————–2002
Avian flu outbreak Asia—————————-2003
Hantavirus in Yosemite State Park————2012
Meningitis + West Nile virus———————-2012
Pertusis————————————————–2012
Norovirus————————————————2013
Salmonella———————————————-2013
8.8 million new cases of TB———————-2013
1.4 million deaths from TB————————2013

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18
Q

________ is where self-reactive lymphocytes are repeatedly stimulated and the result is swollen lymph nodes

a. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
b. Canale-Smith Syndrome
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Myasthenia gravis

A

b. Canale-Smith Syndrome

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19
Q

________ is where self-reactive antibodies bind to receptors for acetylcholine

a. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
b. Canale-Smith Syndrome
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Myasthenia gravis

A

d. Myasthenia gravis

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20
Q

________ is where self-reactive T cells destroy myelin sheaths

a. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
b. Canale-Smith Syndrome
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Myasthenia gravis

A

c. Multiple sclerosis

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21
Q

________ is a chronic inflammation of joints involving IgM-IgG activation of macrophages

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. DiGeorge Syndrome

A

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

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22
Q

________ can cause inflammation of the lungs, arthritis, kidney damage, hair loss, paralysis and convulsions and is caused by the breakdown of B and T cells that make IgG antibodies

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. DiGeorge Syndrome

A

b. Lupus erythematosus

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23
Q

________ can occur when the thymic tissue is missing, leading to no T cells, making the patient susceptible to life-threatening infections

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. DiGeorge Syndrome

A

d. DiGeorge Syndrome

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24
Q

________ is where there are no T or B cells

a. AIDS
b. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. DiGeorge Syndrome

A

b. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome

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25
________ is where helper T cells are targeted. Patient is susceptible to Pneumocystis carinii a. AIDS b. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome c. Multiple sclerosis d. DiGeorge Syndrome
a. AIDS
26
Match the following immunities to the detail Detail-----------------------------------------------Immunity Live (attenuated) or killed viruses--------Passive-active Mother's milk------------------------------------Active Immune globulins + vaccine---------------Passive
Detail-----------------------------------------------Immunity Live (attenuated) or killed viruses--------Active Mother's milk------------------------------------Passive Immune globulins + vaccine---------------Passive-active
27
Which type of vaccine is designed not to infect the recipient? a. Attenuated vaccines b. Carrier vaccines c. DNA vaccines d. Noninfectious vaccines
d. Noninfectious vaccines
28
Which type of vaccine is Salk an example of? a. Attenuated vaccines b. Carrier vaccines c. DNA vaccines d. Noninfectious vaccines
d. Noninfectious vaccines
29
Which type of vaccine is using a weakened form of a microbe an example of? a. Attenuated vaccines b. Carrier vaccines c. DNA vaccines d. Noninfectious vaccines
a. Attenuated vaccines
30
Which type of vaccine are most vaccines an example of? a. Attenuated vaccines b. Carrier vaccines c. DNA vaccines d. Noninfectious vaccines
a. Attenuated vaccines
31
Which type of vaccine is genetically engineered? a. Attenuated vaccines b. Carrier vaccines c. DNA vaccines d. Noninfectious vaccines
b. Carrier vaccines
32
Which type of vaccine is where a single gene from a pathogenic microbe is introduced into a virus and does not cause disease (called a "Trojan horse")? a. Attenuated vaccines b. Carrier vaccines c. DNA vaccines d. Noninfectious vaccines
b. Carrier vaccines
33
Which type of vaccine is where a piece of DNA which has the flu virus gene is injected? a. Attenuated vaccines b. Carrier vaccines c. DNA vaccines d. Noninfectious vaccines
c. DNA vaccines
34
Infections, dermatitis and graft rejections are examples of Type ________ hypersensitivity reactions
IV
35
SLE and RA are examples of Type ________ hypersensitivity reactions
III
36
Match the following acid-fast staining details to their appropriate counterpart Detail----------------------------------------------Counterpart Crystal Violet-----------------------------------Mordant Alcohol rinse-----------------------------------Counterstain Gram's iodine----------------------------------Purple Safranin------------------------------------------Red Gram (+)------------------------------------------Primary dye Gram (-)-------------------------------------------Decolorizer
Detail----------------------------------------------Counterpart Crystal Violet-----------------------------------Primary dye Alcohol rinse-----------------------------------Decolorizer Gram's iodine----------------------------------Mordant Safranin------------------------------------------Counterstain Gram (+)------------------------------------------Purple Gram (-)-------------------------------------------Red
37
ELISAs and Western Blot tests are used to test for a. MLS b. ALS c. MS d. HIV
d. HIV
38
________ presents antigen to T cell
Marophages
39
Anaphylaxis is an example of a Type ________ hypersensitivity reaction
I
40
SLE and RA are both examples of Type ________ hypersensitivity reactions
III
41
Infections and dermatitis are both examples of Type ________ hypersensitivity reactions
IV
42
________ inactivate pathogens
Natrual Killer Cells
43
An ________ is the part of the antigen recognized by the immune system
Epitope
44
The following agency/organization performs epidemiological studies a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry b. Center for Disease Control c. Nationally Priorities List d. U.S. Public Health Service e. World Health Organization
b. Center for Disease Control
45
The following agency/organization performs research in disease etiology/prevention a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry b. Center for Disease Control c. Nationally Priorities List d. U.S. Public Health Service e. World Health Organization
b. Center for Disease Control
46
The following agency/organization performs sets recommendations for immunization schedules a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry b. Center for Disease Control c. Nationally Priorities List d. U.S. Public Health Service e. World Health Organization
b. Center for Disease Control
47
The following agency/organization works with public health organizations of other countries a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry b. Center for Disease Control c. Nationally Priorities List d. U.S. Public Health Service e. World Health Organization
b. Center for Disease Control
48
The following agency/organization coordinates efforts to improve public health in the world a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry b. Center for Disease Control c. Nationally Priorities List d. U.S. Public Health Service e. World Health Organization
e. World Health Organization
49
The following agency/organization reviews reports of public health assessment before information is disclosed to the public a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry b. Center for Disease Control c. Nationally Priorities List d. U.S. Public Health Service e. World Health Organization
a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry
50
The following agency/organization is a special US EPA list of national hazardous waste sites a. Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry b. Center for Disease Control c. Nationally Priorities List d. U.S. Public Health Service e. World Health Organization
c. Nationally Priorities List
51
The following department is in charge of chiropractic (and other health modalities) licensure and other health related issues, infected meat, food products recalled a. Department of Environmental Protection b. Department of Health c. Public Health Department
b. Department of Health
52
The following department is in charge of protecting air, water and land a. Department of Environmental Protection b. Department of Health c. Public Health Department
a. Department of Environmental Protection
53
The following department is in charge of servicing healthneeds, especially underprivileged a. Department of Environmental Protection b. Department of Health c. Public Health Department
c. Public Health Department
54
________ is treated polio virus with formaldehyde to kill the virus
Salk
55
________ uses live and attenuated virus for this vaccine
Sabin
56
Match the following bacteria type with the appropriate adjective Type----------------------------------------Adjective Bacilli---------------------------------------Spherical Cocci---------------------------------------Rod-shaped Spirochete-------------------------------Spring Spirilla-------------------------------------Spiral
Type----------------------------------------Adjective Bacilli---------------------------------------Rod-shaped Cocci---------------------------------------Spherical Spirochete-------------------------------Spiral Spirilla-------------------------------------Spring
57
Match Living Situation----------Definition Symbiosis-----------------one benefits, other doesn't care Mutualism-----------------one benefits, other eaten Parasite--------------------both benefit Commensalism---------2 live together ok
Living Situation----------Definition Symbiosis-----------------2 live together ok Mutualism-----------------both benefit Parasite--------------------one benefits, other eaten Commensalism---------one benefits, other doesn't care
58
________ can be found in custard filled pastry, egg, tuna fish salad and occurs 2-4 hours after infection
Staph
59
________ can be found in improperly canned veges and smoked fish and occurs 18-26 hours after infection
Botulism
60
________ can be found in unpasteurized milk products, hot dogs, lunch meats and occurs up to 2 weeks after infection
Listeria
61
________ can be found in undercooked meat, vegetables, fruit exposed to fecal material and occurs 2 days after infection
E. coli
62
________ can be found in poultry, meats and eggs and occurs 12-48 hours after infection
Salmonella
63
________ can be found in foods and water and occurs 1-2 days after infection
Shigella
64
________ can be found in seafood and water and occurs 1-5 days after infection
Cholera
65
________ can be found in undercooked meat and occurs 3 hours to 3 weeks after infection
Francisella tularensis
66
________ can be found in raw milk, is associated with TB and occurs months to years after infection
Mycobacterium bovis
67
In ________ there is sudden fever, severe headache, seizures, coma and approximately 50% die a. Eastern Equine Encephalitis b. Western Equine Encephalitis c. West Nile d. Yellow Fever
a. Eastern Equine Encephalitis
68
In ________ there is fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting and approximately 3% die (mostly elderly + infants) a. Eastern Equine Encephalitis b. Western Equine Encephalitis c. West Nile d. Yellow Fever
b. Western Equine Encephalitis
69
In ________ there is fever, headache, abdominal pain and encephalitis a. Rift Valley Fever b. California Encephalitis c. West Nile d. Yellow Fever
b. California Encephalitis
70
In ________ there is bleeding and encephalitis a. Rift Valley Fever b. Dengue Fever c. Colorado Tick Fever d. Yellow Fever
a. Rift Valley Fever
71
________ occurred in Key West, FL in 2010 and is known to cause fever, rash, headache (known as dengue triangle) a. Rift Valley Fever b. Dengue Fever c. Colorado Tick Fever d. Yellow Fever
b. Dengue Fever
72
________ is known to cause fever, headache and nose bleeds a. Rift Valley Fever b. Dengue Fever c. Colorado Tick Fever d. Yellow Fever
d. Yellow Fever
73
________ is known to cause fever, headache, chills and eye pain a. Rift Valley Fever b. Dengue Fever c. Colorado Tick Fever d. Yellow Fever
c. Colorado Tick Fever
74
The following tick-spread disease causes fever, headache, chills and eye pain a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever b. Colorado Tick Fever c. Lyme Disease
c. Colorado Tick Fever
75
The following tick-spread disease has a classic sign of a bulls eye rash and has been attributed to migraines and joint pain for the rest of a person's life a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever b. Colorado Tick Fever c. Lyme Disease
c. Lyme Disease
76
The following tick-spread disease causes a rash on the hands and feet a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever b. Colorado Tick Fever c. Lyme Disease
a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
77
________, ________, ________ and ________ are all considered re-emerging diseases
TB, Small Pox, Malaria and Mumps
78
________ is a rabies-like virus that leads to death
Lyssa virus
79
________ (aka Tsutsugamushi fever) causes a maculopapular rash
Scrub Typhus
80
________ is a fatal disease carried by pigs and bats that can lead to encephalitis and respiratory issues
Nipah Fever
81
________, also known as H5N1, or bird flu, leads to flu-like symptoms and can lead to complications and death
Avian Influenza
82
________ comes from a mosquito bite and can lead to encephalitis, high fever, and death a. Lyssa virus b. Nipah Fever c. Chandipura virus d. Norovirus
c. Chandipura virus
83
________ (aka Norwalk virus) is common in salad, sandwiches, ice, cold cuts, raw/undercooked oysters and clams, has a 1-2 day incubation period, and is estimated to cause 2/3 of all known foodborne illness in the US.
Norovirus
84
Which of the following is not gram positive a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Listeria monocytogene c. Mycobacterium d. Haemophilus
d. Haemophilus Recall --> all bacteria that end in "US and UM" are gram positive except the one above
85
Which of the following is not gram negative a. Salmonella b. Listeria c. Yersinia d. Neisseria
b. Listeria Recall --> all bacteria that end in "A and IA" are gram negative except the one above
86
________ is known to cause flaccid paralysis a. Bacillus anthracis b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium tetani d. Listeria monocytogene
b. Clostridium botulinum
87
________ is known to cause spastic paralysis a. Bacillus anthracis b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium tetani d. Listeria monocytogene
c. Clostridium tetani
88
________ is aerobic and associated with Woolsorter's disease a. Bacillus anthracis b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium tetani d. Listeria monocytogene
a. Bacillus anthracis
89
________ is associated with milk and cheese a. Mycobacterium b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium tetani d. Listeria monocytogene
d. Listeria monocytogene
90
________ is associated with TB and Leprosy a. Mycobacterium b. Clostridium perfringens c. Corynebacterium diphtheria d. Listeria monocytogene
a. Mycobacterium
91
________ (aka C. Welchi) is associated with wounds, brown bubbles under the skin and gas gangrene a. Camphylobatcer jejuni b. Clostridium perfringens c. Corynebacterium diphtheria d. Clostridium tetani
b. Clostridium perfringens
92
________ is associated with Babes Ernst bodies, the Schick test, and a gray pseudomembrane a. Mycobacterium b. Clostridium perfringens c. Corynebacterium diphtheria d. Listeria monocytogene
c. Corynebacterium diphtheria
93
________ is associated with Rheumatic fever, a strawberry tongue and scarlet fever a. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A) b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B) c. Streptococcus viridans d. Streptococcus mutans
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
94
________ is associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis a. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A) b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B) c. Streptococcus viridans d. Streptococcus mutans
c. Streptococcus viridans
95
________ is associated with neonatal meningitis and can occur at birth a. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A) b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B) c. Streptococcus viridans d. Streptococcus mutans
b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
96
________ is associated with dental caries a. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A) b. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B) c. Streptococcus viridans d. Streptococcus mutans
d. Streptococcus mutans
97
Match the following Ricketts to their aka Rickettsia Type--------------------------------Aka Rickettsia rickettsia--------------------------Scrub Typhus Rickettsia prowazekii-----------------------Epidemic Typhus Rickettsia typhi--------------------------------Tick Typhus Rickettsia tsutsugamushi------------------Epidemic Typhus
Rickettsia Type--------------------------------Aka Rickettsia rickettsia--------------------------Tick Typhus Rickettsia prowazekii-----------------------Epidemic Typhus Rickettsia typhi--------------------------------Murine Typhus Rickettsia tsutsugamushi------------------Scrub Typhus
98
________ is the number 1 cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in the US a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Neisseria meningitides c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis
a. Neisseria gonorrhea
99
________ is the number 1 STD in the US a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Neisseria meningitides c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Chlamydia trachomatis
100
________ can be found in hot tubs and is associated with burn infections and blue/green pus a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Pseudomonal aeruginosa c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Pseudomonal aeruginosa
101
All of the following are associated with meningitis except a. Neisseria meeningitidis b. Haemophilus c. Strep agaliactiae (group B) d. Shigella
d. Shigella
102
________ is associated with Travelers diarrhea, metallic green sheen, UTI and the symptoms show up after 2 days a. Eschericia coli b. Shigella c. Salmonella d. Vibrio cholera
a. Eschericia coli
103
Match the pathogen to the poop Pathogen--------------------------Poop E. coli-------------------------------Bacillary dysentery, tenesmus Shigella----------------------------Pea soup diarrhea Salmonella-----------------------Rice water stools Vibrio cholera-------------------Traveler's diarrhea
Pathogen--------------------------Poop E. coli-------------------------------Traveler's diarrhea Shigella----------------------------Bacillary dysentery, tenesmus Salmonella-----------------------Pea soup diarrhea Vibrio cholera-------------------Rice water stools
104
________ is associated with the Bubonic Plague and rat fleas
Yersinia pestis
105
________ is the number 1 most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis and is associated with contaminated beverages and food
Camphylobacter jejuni
106
________ is associated with whooping cough and is protected against with the DPT vaccine
Bordetella pertussis
107
________ (aka Rabbit Fever) is potentially a dangerous biological terrorist threat
Francisella tularensis
108
________ is associated with Pontiac disease, like to hang out in water droplets, and can lead to a pneumonia that will kill a person
Legionella
109
________ is the number 1 most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis and is associated with meat, poultry and eggs
Salmonella
110
_______ (aka Friedlanders) is associated with "red currant jelly" sputum, pneumonia, and typically takes hold in the elderly or immunocompromised people
Klebsiella
111
________ is comma-shaped associated with rice water stools and death within 1-2 days but does not enter the blood stream
Vibrio cholera
112
Match the following pathogen with their vector Pathogen---------------------------------------Vector Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever--------Chiggers Yersinia pestis--------------------------------Flies Scrub Typhus---------------------------------Ixodid Ticks Shigella-----------------------------------------Mosquitos West Nile---------------------------------------Fleas
Pathogen---------------------------------------Vector Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever--------Ixodid Ticks Yersinia pestis--------------------------------Fleas Scrub Typhus---------------------------------Chiggers Shigella-----------------------------------------Flies West Nile---------------------------------------Mosquitos
113
Match the following pathogens to their fever Pathogen-----------------------------Fever Rochalimaea quintana-----------Q fever Coxiella burrnetii-------------------Rocky Mtn Spotted fever Ixodid-----------------------------------Trench fever
Pathogen-----------------------------Fever Rochalimaea quintana-----------Trench fever Coxiella burrnetii-------------------Q fever Ixodid-----------------------------------Rocky Mtn Spotted fever
114
________ is an ornithosis, from parrots and other birds and generates symptoms that are flu-like
Chlamydia psittaci
115
________ invades the lymph tissue of the genitalia and is the most common STD in the US
Chlamydia trachomatis
116
________ has a sudden acute onset with fever, headache and malaise, and can come from inhaling/drinking dry infected milk or ticks
Coxiella burnetii
117
________ causes syphilis
Treponema pallidum
118
________ causes yaws (ulcerations of the extremities)
Treponema pertenue
119
________ causes a relapsing fever, comes from lice, and is an infection via the mucous membranes a. Borrelia hermsii b. Borrelia recurrentis c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Leptospira interrogans
b. Borrelia recurrentis
120
________ comes from a squirrel or chipmunk tick and can be fatal a. Borrelia hermsii b. Borrelia recurrentis c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Leptospira interrogans
a. Borrelia hermsii
121
________ comes from a deer tick and can cause Lyme Disease a. Borrelia hermsii b. Borrelia recurrentis c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Leptospira interrogans
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
122
________ comes from rat urine and can lead to Weil's Syndrome a. Borrelia hermsii b. Borrelia recurrentis c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Leptospira interrogans
d. Leptospira interrogans
123
Match the following WBC with the pathogen they attack WBC------------------------------------------Pathogen Neutrophils--------------------------------Parasites Lymphocytes------------------------------Bacteria Eosinophils---------------------------------Viruses
WBC------------------------------------------Pathogen Neutrophils--------------------------------Bacteria Lymphocytes------------------------------Viruses Eosinophils---------------------------------Parasites
124
________ become active inside a cell, take over the cell, and have either DNA or RNA
Viruses
125
________ is a subunit of the protein coat of a virus particle
Capsomere
126
________ is the protein coat of a virus particle
Capsid
127
________ is made up of a trilamina lipid membrane
Viral Envelope
128
________ are infectious particles made up of only protiens, no nucleic acid and are more resistant than viruses
Prions
129
________ cause no immune response or inflammatory response (because your body doesn't even know they are present) but they can be inactivated by hypochlorite and autoclaving
Prions
130
________ can lead to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Prions
131
________ causes upper and lower respiratory tract infections, conjunctivitis and diarrhea a. Echovirus b. Rhinovirus c. Coxsackie virus d. Adenovirus
d. Adenovirus
132
________ causes upper lower respiratory tract infections, pharyngitis, a skin rash and heart disease a. Echovirus b. Rhinovirus c. Coxsackie virus d. Adenovirus
a. Echovirus
133
________ is the common cold a. Echovirus b. Rhinovirus c. Coxsackie virus d. Adenovirus
b. Rhinovirus
134
________ causes pain in the intercostal muscles due to pleural irritation (Devil's grip), herpangina (vesiculo-ulcerative lesions, myocarditis, pancreatitis and hand-foot-mouth disease and is considered very dangerous a. Echovirus b. Rhinovirus c. Coxsackie virus d. Adenovirus
c. Coxsackie virus
135
________ has an enteric reaction a. Influenza b. Coxsackie virus c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Norovirus
b. Coxsackie virus
136
________ is very prone to both antigenic shift and antigenic drift a. Influenza b. Coxsackie virus c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Norovirus
a. Influenza
137
________ is part of the Paramyxo family and can lead to bronchiolitis and pneumonia (in children) a. Influenza b. Coxsackie virus c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Norovirus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
138
________ is part of the Paramyxo family and can lead to parotidis and orchitis or oophoritis, leading to possible sterility a. Influenza b. Mumps c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Norovirus
b. Mumps
139
________ is associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain and lethargy a. Influenza b. Mumps c. Rotavirus d. Norovirus
d. Norovirus
140
________ is the most common cause of childhood diarrhea a. Influenza b. Mumps c. Rotavirus d. Norovirus
c. Rotavirus
141
________ the only hepatitis that does not have a sequela of liver cancer a. Hep A b. Hep B c. Hep C d. Hep D
a. Hep A
142
________ the only hepatitis that one does not have carry for the rest of their life if infected a. Hep A b. Hep B c. Hep C d. Hep D
a. Hep A
143
________ the only hepatitis is DNA a. Hep A b. Hep B c. Hep C d. Hep D
b. Hep B
144
________ is lethal in its acute phase and is an endemic in Asian culture (esp. Japanese and Chinese) a. Hep A b. Hep B c. Hep C d. Hep D
b. Hep B
145
________ (aka Dane particle) will only replicate in the presence of Hep B a. Hep A b. Hep B c. Hep C d. Hep D
d. Hep D
146
Match each hepatitis with its transmission Hep Type------------------------Transmission Hep A-----------------------------Fecal/Oral Hep B-----------------------------Sexual, IV drug user Hep C-----------------------------Tattoos, blood transfusions Hep D-----------------------------Co-infection w/Hep B
Hep Type------------------------Transmission Hep A-----------------------------Co-infection w/Hep B Hep B-----------------------------Tattoos, blood transfusions Hep C-----------------------------Fecal/Oral Hep D-----------------------------Sexual, IV drug user
147
________ often tends to be contracted by children (which is why they should wash hands) a. Hep A b. Hep B c. Hep C d. Hep D
a. Hep A
148
________ (aka Rubeola) leads to Koplik spots, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis and is associated with the 3 C's (Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivits) a. Measles virus b. Rubella virus c. Parvo virus d. EBV
a. Measles virus
149
________ (aka German Measles) is associated with infant limb malformation during the 1st trimester a. Measles virus b. Rubella virus c. Parvo virus d. EBV
b. Rubella virus
150
________ is associated with erythema infectiosum, aplastic anemia and slapped cheek disease a. Measles virus b. Rubella virus c. Parvo virus d. EBV
c. Parvo virus
151
All the following belong to the Picorna family except a. Echovirus b. Rhinovirus c. Coxsackie virus d. Ebstein-Barr virus
d. Ebstein-Barr virus
152
________ belongs to the Picorna family a. Mumps virus b. Hepatitis A virus c. Parvovirus d. Ebstein-Barr virus
b. Hepatitis A virus
153
________ is an eradicated, yet re-emerging pathogen responsible for Guarnieri bodies
Variola virus (small pox)
154
Variola virus and Vaccinia virus both belong to the ________ family
Pox
155
________ is responsible for cow pox, which leads to blisters on hands and was known as milk maid's
Vaccinia virus
156
Vericella zoster leads to ________ in children and ________ in adults and tends to hide in the ________
Chickenpox, Shingles, Dorsal root ganglia
157
All the following belong to the Herpes family except a. Vaccinia virus b. Varicella zoster c. Cytomegalovirus d. Epstein-Barr
a. Vaccinia virus
158
________ leads to cold sores and whitlow (found on thumb of children)
Herpes simplex virus I
159
________ is associated with genital herpes
Herpes simplex virus II
160
________ is associated with cytomegalic inclusion disease and causes disseminated disease
Cytomagalovirus
161
________ was called the kissing disease and is associated with extreme fatigue and an inflamed spleen
EBV
162
________ is tested for using ELISA and Western Blot tests
HIV
163
________ is associated with hemorrhagic fever and Walter Reed
Dengue virus
164
________ is associated with fever, nausea, Aedes Aegypti mosquito and Walter Reed
Yellow fever
165
________ is associated with fever, sore throat, headache, bleeding and death
Ebola virus
166
________ is associated with fever, cough, lungs filling with fluid and death and comes from rodent dust
Hanta virus
167
________ is associated with certain cervical cancers
Papillomavirus (HPV)
168
________ is associated with pink cauliflower lesions on female genitalia
Molluscum virus
169
________ is spread by fecal --> oral transmission and can affect the ventral horn...if it is the bulbar type, it can produce respiratory paralysis
Polio virus
170
________ is a bullet-shaped RNA-based virus that leads to Negri bodies hangs out in the nerves
Rabies virus
171
________ is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
JC virus
172
________ is associated with Eastern or Western equine, St. Louis, Venezuelan's or California group and the mosquito is its vector
Arborvirus (Arborviral encephalitis)
173
________ is associated with fever, headache, rash (20%-50% of the time), neck stiffness and comes from the mosquito
West Nile virus
174
________ is associated with bleeding, and encephalitis and comes from the mosquito
Rift Valley fever
175
________ is a negative reaction to aspirin and may cause fatty liver and encephalopathy
Reye's Syndrome
176
________ is associated with yeast infections (including thrush in children), and browning of nails
Candida albicans
177
________ is associated with epidermis, hair, and dermis attacks (dermatophytosis) and is also called tinea ringworm
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
178
________ is associated with pityriasis versicolor and affects the outer epidermis and resembles spaghetti when viewed under a microscope
Malassezia furfur
179
________ is associated with black piedra and affects the hair
Piedraia hortae
180
________ is associated with nodules beneath the skin, may invade the lymphatics and causes sporotrichosis...think "pricked by a rose thorn"
Sporothrix schenckii
181
________ is associated with large fungal tumors of limbs and extremities and causes mycetoma and Madura foot
Pseudallescharia boydii, Madurella mycetomatis
182
________ is associated with the SARS outbreak in China in 2002
Carona virus
183
________ is associated with coccidioidomycosis (San Joaquin Valley Fever) a. Blastomyces dermatitidis b. Coccidiodes immitis c. Cryptococcus Neoformans d. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Coccidiodes immitis
184
________ is associated with North American blastomycosis (Chicago disease) a. Blastomyces dermatitidis b. Coccidiodes immitis c. Cryptococcus Neoformans d. Histoplasma capsulatum
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
185
________ is associated with pigeon roosts and causes Cryptococcosis (torulosis) a. Blastomyces dermatitidis b. Coccidiodes immitis c. Cryptococcus Neoformans d. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus Neoformans
186
________ is associated with cleaning chicken coups and Ohio Valley Fever a. Blastomyces dermatitidis b. Coccidiodes immitis c. Cryptococcus Neoformans d. Histoplasma capsulatum
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
187
________ is associated with South American blastomycosis and affects the skin a. Blastomyces dermatitidis b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis c. Aspergillus fumigatus d. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
188
________ is associated with fungus balls in the lungs necrotic pneumonia and cause death a. Blastomyces dermatitidis b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis c. Aspergillus fumigatus d. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Aspergillus fumigatus
189
________ (aka Pinworms) is associated with the Scotch tape test a. Trichuris trichiura b. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Enterobius vermicularis d. Necator americanus
c. Enterobius vermicularis
190
________ (aka Whipworm) a. Trichuris trichiura b. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Enterobius vermicularis d. Necator americanus
a. Trichuris trichiura
191
________ (aka Hookworm) can travel through a bare foot in the sand a. Trichuris trichiura b. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Enterobius vermicularis d. Necator americanus
d. Necator americanus
192
Match the following Classification---------------------------Vector Wuchereria bancrofti----------------Mangrove/Deer flies Onchocerca volvulus----------------Cyclops in water Loa loa------------------------------------Mosquito (elephantitis)Dracunculus medinensis-----------Black fly (river blindness)
Classification---------------------------Vector Wuchereria bancrofti----------------Mosquito (elephantitis) Onchocerca volvulus----------------Black fly (river blindness) Loa loa------------------------------------Mangrove/Deer flies Dracunculus medinensis-----------Cyclops in water
193
All the following have a life cycle that requires both humans and snails and the vector is the ingestion of fresh water containing their larval stage except a. Schistosoma japonicum b. Schistosoma mansoni c. Schistosoma haematobium d. Opisthorchis sinensis
d. Opisthorchis sinensis
194
________ is associated with the consumption of crabs a. Paragonimus westermani b. Schistosoma mansoni c. Sporothrix schenckii d. Opisthorchis sinensis
d. Opisthorchis sinensis
195
If you pick a rose and your finger is injured from the thorn, which fungus should you be concerned about?
Sporothrix schenckii
196
Match the following Vector--------------------------------Classification Raw beef----------------------------Taenia Saginata Raw pork----------------------------Taenia Solium Undercooked meat--------------Hymenolepsis Nana Canine feces-----------------------Echinococcus granuloses Raw fish------------------------------Diphylobothrium latum
Vector--------------------------------Classification Raw beef----------------------------Echinococcus granuloses Raw pork----------------------------Diphylobothrium latum Undercooked meat--------------Taenia Solium Canine feces-----------------------Taenia Saginata Raw fish------------------------------Hymenolepsis Nana
197
________ is the longest tapeworm and can cause B12 deficiency
Diphyllobothrium latum
198
________ is associated with amebic dysentery a. Naegleria fowleri b. Giardia lamblia c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Balantidium coli
c. Entamoeba histolytica
199
________ is associated with colitis a. Naegleria fowleri b. Giardia lamblia c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Balantidium coli
d. Balantidium coli
200
________ is associated with primary acute meningoencephalitis a. Naegleria fowleri b. Giardia lamblia c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Balantidium coli
a. Naegleria fowleri
201
________ is a diarrheal disease associated with malabsorption and flagellates in stool a. Naegleria fowleri b. Giardia lamblia c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia lamblia
202
PPD Scratch Test is for ________
TB
203
________ is half an antigen
Hapten
204
________ is a trophozoite associated with urethritis and vaginitis
Trichomonas vaginalis
205
________ is a fungus that leads to an opportunistic (common in AIDS for example) lung infection
Pneumoncystis carinii
206
________ is associated with malignant tertian malaria and is carried by the anopheles mosquito
Plasmodium falciparum
207
________ is associated with baesiasis and is similar to malaria in symptoms and treatment
Babesia microti
208
________ is associated with African sleeping sickness, the tsetse fly, rhodesiense and is fast-moving and most fatal
Trypanosoma rhodesiense, gambiense, brucei
209
________ is associated with Chagas disease, the Reduviid (kissing) bug and affects the heart, esophagus and colon (by enlarging all of them)
Trypanosoma cruzi
210
________ is associated with Kala-azar, increased skin pigmentation, splenomegaly, decreases bone marrow, the sand fly and is fatal 75%-95% of the time if left untreated
Leishmania donovani
211
________ is associated with cutaneous and mucocutaneous leishmaniasis and the sand fly
Leishmania tropica, mexicana, brasiliensis
212
________ is associated with CNS dysfunction and cat feces and could be fatal to a fetus (since it is transplacental) which is why pregnant mothers are advised to stay away from a cat litter box
Toxoplasma gondi