Microbiology II - Exam 1 Chlamydia, Rickettsia, etc... Flashcards by Erin Polley

Is Chlamydia culturable?

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What species of Chlamydia cause human infection?

C. trachomatis
C. psittaci
C. pneumoniae

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Is Chlamydia an obligate intracellular bacteria?

Yes

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What species of Chlamydia cause animal infection?

C. abortus
C. pecorum

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Which Chlamydia species has a conserved amount of Major Outer Membrane Protein (MOMP)?

C. pneumoniae

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Which organisms of Chlamydia contain plasmid DNA?

C. trachomatis
C. psittaci

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Which Chlamydia species does NOT contain plasmid DNA?

C. pneumoniae - less pathogenic

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Chlamydia life cycle components:
Intracellular

Reticulate body (RB) - replicative

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Chlamydia life cycle components:
Extracellular

Elementary body (EB) - infective

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Elementary body size

0.25-0.35 microns - smaller than RB

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Reticulate body size

0.5-1 micron - larger than EB

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C. trachomatis has 18 serovars based on _____ antigenic differences?

MOMP

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True/False - Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the U.S.

True

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C. trachomatis forms of transmission

Major transmission
Vertical transmission
Oculogenital infections

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Vertical transmission presents as…

neonatal pneumonia or inclusion conjunctivitis

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Major transmission is from ____ contact.

direct (human to human)

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Oculogenital infections include…

GTI
Acute inclusion conjunctivitis in adults and newborns

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_____ is the preferred lab screening for chlamydia diagnosis.

Endocervix sample

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____ and ____ are other methods of screening for Chlamydia.

Urogenital swab and fresh urine sample

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Why should you keep possible chlamydia sample cold and transport ASAP?

Chlamydia is a labile bacteria

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Transport media for Chlamydia should include _______.

sucrose-phosphate transport medium with antbiotics.

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Why does the transport media for Chlamydia include antibiotics?

This is to kill off other bacteria that are extracellular to isolate chalmydia for testing.

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Chlamydia culture in cell lines has ____% specificity.

100

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Chlamydia culture in cell lines has ___-___% sensitivity.

70-90

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Chlamydia direct detection methods include____

Inclusion bodies Antigen detection Nucleic acid hybridization

Hybridization uses RNA probe to detect ____ in a sample.

DNA

C. psittaci is resistant to what?

Sulfonaminde

Diagnosis of psittacosis is almost always by _____

serology

C. pneumoniae may be the causative agent of _________.

atherosclerosis

C. pneumoniae is transmitted by ______.

aerosolize droplets

C. pneumoniae is diagnosed by a direct method known as _______.

NAAT (nucleic acid amplification test)

McCoy cell lines have multiple _____ passages

blind

Rickettsia is what type of organism?

Obligate intracellular Fastidious

Rickettsia multiply ______.

intracellularly

Rickettsia diseases are based on three groups dependent upon arthropod transmission. What are the 3 groups?

1. spotted fever group 2. typhus group 3. scrub typhus group

Rickettsia conorii has what type of vector?

tick

Disease caused by R. conorii

Indian or Kenya tick typhus and mediterranean or Israeli spotted fevers

Rickettsia prowazekii has what type of vector?

Lice

R. typhi has what type of vector?

flea

Ehrlichia chaffeensis infects _______.

monocytes

Anaplasma phagocytophilium infects _____.

bone marrow; primarily neutrophils

Anaplasmosis is caused by what vector?

black legged ticks

Sennetsu fever is predominately in what country?

SE Asia

Lab diagnosis of Ehrlichia, Anaplasma, and Neorickettsia sennetus is _______.

Giemsa stain of white blood cells Serodiagnosis: EIA, IFA, and DFA PCR

Coxiella burnettii causes _______.

Q fever

Coxiella burnettii can survive_______, but can only be grown in ______ cells.

extracellularly, lung

C. burnettii contains 2 antigenic states in their life cycle. What are they?

1. Large-cell variant form: highly infectious 2. Small-cell variant form: spore like, not infectious

C. burnetti is mostly seen in what type of animals?

cattle, sheep, and goats

Q-fever is _____ worldwide except in ____ ______.

endemic, New Zeleand

Culture for Coxiella burnettii requires what?

6-14 days at 37C in CO2 environment, direct IFA

Coxiellosis is considered acute or chronic?

chronic

Coxiellosis for how many years and what does it mask as?

1-20 years as endocarditis

Bartonella is what type of organism?

intracellular, fastidious, facultative anaerobic, and zoonotic

B. quintana causes what disease?

trench fever

B. quintana is transmitted by what vector?

lice

B. bacilliformis causes what disease?

Acute hemolytic bacteremia (Oroya fever) Chronic vasoproliferative diseases Can cause hemolysis which leads to anemia and increased bilirubin

Cat scratch disease is caused by _______.

B. henselae

Can you culture Tropheryma whippelii?

Arthalgia, diarrhea, hyperpigmentation, and lymphadenopathy are symptoms of ________.

Whipple's disease

Whipple's disease is caused mostly in _____.

middle-aged men

Name 3 human pathogens that are spirochetes.

1. Teponema 2. Leptospira 3. Borrelia

Spirochetes contain a ______ cell wall.

flexible

Spirochetes can move because they have _____.

axial filaments

Requires moist, dark environment to survive and causes venereal syphilis.

T. pallidum subspecies Pallidum

Painless chancre is in what stage of syphilis?

Primary

Infected person is very contagious and has fever, weight loss, and skin rash. What stage of syphillis is this?

Secondary

Stage that can last for the rest of a persons life and is not very contagious to others is what stage of syphillis?

Latent

What type of tumor can be associated with latent syphillis?

gummas

T. pallidum subspecies pertenue is associated with what?

Yaws

Yaws infects in mostly _____ climates, and mostly people under ____ years of age.

warm, 15

Initial bump (Mother yaw)

First stage of yaws

Crops of bumps

Secondary stage of yaws

Destroys skin, bone, and joints

Tertiary stage of yaws

Treatment for yaws

single shot of penicillin

Bejel is caused by _______.

T. pallidum subspecies endemicum

Bejel is considered an ______ non-venereal syphillis.

endemic

Bejel is transmitted by ______ transmission, from sharing ______.

mouth to mouth, utensils

Pinta is caused by ______.

T. carateum

Pinta infection results in large, scaly, red lesions, called ______.

pintids

Spirillium minus causes _______.

Rat-bite fever

Borrelia recurrentis causes ______.

Relapsing fever

Borrelia recurrentis is caused by what vector?

Louse - epidemic Tick - endemic

Why does the fever relapse in relapsing fever?

Because of the antigenic variation on the spirochetes surface proteins

If symptoms are present, Borrelia can be seen under a ____ _______.

light microscope.

Borrelia burgdorferi causes _____.

Lyme disease

Borrelia burgdorferi is caused by what vector?

Ixodes ticks

Most common vector borne diseases in the United States

Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorgeri

Erythema migrans can be seen in what stage of lyme disease?

The first stage

Confirming test for Lyme disease

Immunoblotting

Leptospira interrogans causes what disease?

leptospirosis - both Anicteric and icteric

Leptospira is excreted in the ______ of animals.

urine

Anicteric is more mild or severe?

mild

Icteric is more mild or severe?

severe

Icteric is known as ______.

Weil's disease

Self limiting, high fever and headaches 3-7 days, followed by immune stage (aseptic meningitis)

Anicteric leptospirosis

Liver, kidney or vascular dysfunction with pulmonary hemorrhage

Icteric

Non-treponemal test detects ____ Ab developed against lipids released from damaged cells.

reaginic

Examples of non-treponemal tests are

VDRL and RPR

RPR uses _____ to visualize.

charcoal

VDRL uses _____-______ antigen to detect reaginic antibodies

cardiolipin-cholesterol

Low RPR titer can be a sign of?

therapy completion early diseases biological false-positives

Biological false positive can be from

Tissue damage Cross-reactivity Autoimmune diseases Malignant tumors Infectious diseases such as mononucleosis

Treponemal tests are _____ for syphilis.

confirmatory

2 Treponemal tests are ______ and _______.

FTA-ABS MHA-TP

FTA-TP stands for

Fluorescent treponemal antibody - Treponemal pallidum

MHA-TP stands for

Microhemagglutination - Treponema pallidum

FTA-TP uses _______ strain mixed with patient serum (Ab).

Reiter

MHA-TP uses ______ coated with T. pallidum antigens.

RBCs