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Microbiology II - Exam 1 Material > Microbiology II - Exam 1 Chlamydia, Rickettsia, etc... > Flashcards

Microbiology II - Exam 1 Chlamydia, Rickettsia, etc... Flashcards

1
Q

Is Chlamydia culturable?

A

No

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2
Q

What species of Chlamydia cause human infection?

A

C. trachomatis
C. psittaci
C. pneumoniae

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3
Q

Is Chlamydia an obligate intracellular bacteria?

A

Yes

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4
Q

What species of Chlamydia cause animal infection?

A

C. abortus
C. pecorum

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5
Q

Which Chlamydia species has a conserved amount of Major Outer Membrane Protein (MOMP)?

A

C. pneumoniae

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6
Q

Which organisms of Chlamydia contain plasmid DNA?

A

C. trachomatis
C. psittaci

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7
Q

Which Chlamydia species does NOT contain plasmid DNA?

A

C. pneumoniae - less pathogenic

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8
Q

Chlamydia life cycle components:
Intracellular

A

Reticulate body (RB) - replicative

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9
Q

Chlamydia life cycle components:
Extracellular

A

Elementary body (EB) - infective

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10
Q

Elementary body size

A

0.25-0.35 microns - smaller than RB

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11
Q

Reticulate body size

A

0.5-1 micron - larger than EB

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12
Q

C. trachomatis has 18 serovars based on _____ antigenic differences?

A

MOMP

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13
Q

True/False - Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the U.S.

A

True

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14
Q

C. trachomatis forms of transmission

A

Major transmission
Vertical transmission
Oculogenital infections

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15
Q

Vertical transmission presents as…

A

neonatal pneumonia or inclusion conjunctivitis

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16
Q

Major transmission is from ____ contact.

A

direct (human to human)

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17
Q

Oculogenital infections include…

A

GTI
Acute inclusion conjunctivitis in adults and newborns

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18
Q

_____ is the preferred lab screening for chlamydia diagnosis.

A

Endocervix sample

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19
Q

____ and ____ are other methods of screening for Chlamydia.

A

Urogenital swab and fresh urine sample

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20
Q

Why should you keep possible chlamydia sample cold and transport ASAP?

A

Chlamydia is a labile bacteria

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21
Q

Transport media for Chlamydia should include _______.

A

sucrose-phosphate transport medium with antbiotics.

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22
Q

Why does the transport media for Chlamydia include antibiotics?

A

This is to kill off other bacteria that are extracellular to isolate chalmydia for testing.

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23
Q

Chlamydia culture in cell lines has ____% specificity.

A

100

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24
Q

Chlamydia culture in cell lines has ___-___% sensitivity.

A

70-90

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25
Q

Chlamydia direct detection methods include____

A

Inclusion bodies
Antigen detection
Nucleic acid hybridization

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26
Q

Hybridization uses RNA probe to detect ____ in a sample.

A

DNA

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27
Q

C. psittaci is resistant to what?

A

Sulfonaminde

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28
Q

Diagnosis of psittacosis is almost always by _____

A

serology

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29
Q

C. pneumoniae may be the causative agent of _________.

A

atherosclerosis

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30
Q

C. pneumoniae is transmitted by ______.

A

aerosolize droplets

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31
Q

C. pneumoniae is diagnosed by a direct method known as _______.

A

NAAT (nucleic acid amplification test)

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32
Q

McCoy cell lines have multiple _____ passages

A

blind

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33
Q

Rickettsia is what type of organism?

A

Obligate intracellular
Fastidious

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34
Q

Rickettsia multiply ______.

A

intracellularly

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35
Q

Rickettsia diseases are based on three groups dependent upon arthropod transmission. What are the 3 groups?

A
  1. spotted fever group
  2. typhus group
  3. scrub typhus group
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36
Q

Rickettsia conorii has what type of vector?

A

tick

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37
Q

Disease caused by R. conorii

A

Indian or Kenya tick typhus and mediterranean or Israeli spotted fevers

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38
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii has what type of vector?

A

Lice

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39
Q

R. typhi has what type of vector?

A

flea

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40
Q

Ehrlichia chaffeensis infects _______.

A

monocytes

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41
Q

Anaplasma phagocytophilium infects _____.

A

bone marrow; primarily neutrophils

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42
Q

Anaplasmosis is caused by what vector?

A

black legged ticks

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43
Q

Sennetsu fever is predominately in what country?

A

SE Asia

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44
Q

Lab diagnosis of Ehrlichia, Anaplasma, and Neorickettsia sennetus is _______.

A

Giemsa stain of white blood cells
Serodiagnosis: EIA, IFA, and DFA
PCR

45
Q

Coxiella burnettii causes _______.

46
Q

Coxiella burnettii can survive_______, but can only be grown in ______ cells.

A

extracellularly, lung

47
Q

C. burnettii contains 2 antigenic states in their life cycle. What are they?

A
  1. Large-cell variant form: highly infectious
  2. Small-cell variant form: spore like, not infectious
48
Q

C. burnetti is mostly seen in what type of animals?

A

cattle, sheep, and goats

49
Q

Q-fever is _____ worldwide except in ____ ______.

A

endemic, New Zeleand

50
Q

Culture for Coxiella burnettii requires what?

A

6-14 days at 37C in CO2 environment, direct IFA

51
Q

Coxiellosis is considered acute or chronic?

52
Q

Coxiellosis for how many years and what does it mask as?

A

1-20 years as endocarditis

53
Q

Bartonella is what type of organism?

A

intracellular, fastidious, facultative anaerobic, and zoonotic

54
Q

B. quintana causes what disease?

A

trench fever

55
Q

B. quintana is transmitted by what vector?

56
Q

B. bacilliformis causes what disease?

A

Acute hemolytic bacteremia (Oroya fever)
Chronic vasoproliferative diseases

Can cause hemolysis which leads to anemia and increased bilirubin

57
Q

Cat scratch disease is caused by _______.

A

B. henselae

58
Q

Can you culture Tropheryma whippelii?

59
Q

Arthalgia, diarrhea, hyperpigmentation, and lymphadenopathy are symptoms of ________.

A

Whipple’s disease

60
Q

Whipple’s disease is caused mostly in _____.

A

middle-aged men

61
Q

Name 3 human pathogens that are spirochetes.

A
  1. Teponema
  2. Leptospira
  3. Borrelia
62
Q

Spirochetes contain a ______ cell wall.

63
Q

Spirochetes can move because they have _____.

A

axial filaments

64
Q

Requires moist, dark environment to survive and causes venereal syphilis.

A

T. pallidum subspecies Pallidum

65
Q

Painless chancre is in what stage of syphilis?

66
Q

Infected person is very contagious and has fever, weight loss, and skin rash. What stage of syphillis is this?

67
Q

Stage that can last for the rest of a persons life and is not very contagious to others is what stage of syphillis?

68
Q

What type of tumor can be associated with latent syphillis?

69
Q

T. pallidum subspecies pertenue is associated with what?

70
Q

Yaws infects in mostly _____ climates, and mostly people under ____ years of age.

71
Q

Initial bump (Mother yaw)

A

First stage of yaws

72
Q

Crops of bumps

A

Secondary stage of yaws

73
Q

Destroys skin, bone, and joints

A

Tertiary stage of yaws

74
Q

Treatment for yaws

A

single shot of penicillin

75
Q

Bejel is caused by _______.

A

T. pallidum subspecies endemicum

76
Q

Bejel is considered an ______ non-venereal syphillis.

77
Q

Bejel is transmitted by ______ transmission, from sharing ______.

A

mouth to mouth, utensils

78
Q

Pinta is caused by ______.

A

T. carateum

79
Q

Pinta infection results in large, scaly, red lesions, called ______.

80
Q

Spirillium minus causes _______.

A

Rat-bite fever

81
Q

Borrelia recurrentis causes ______.

A

Relapsing fever

82
Q

Borrelia recurrentis is caused by what vector?

A

Louse - epidemic
Tick - endemic

83
Q

Why does the fever relapse in relapsing fever?

A

Because of the antigenic variation on the spirochetes surface proteins

84
Q

If symptoms are present, Borrelia can be seen under a ____ _______.

A

light microscope.

85
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi causes _____.

A

Lyme disease

86
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is caused by what vector?

A

Ixodes ticks

87
Q

Most common vector borne diseases in the United States

A

Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorgeri

88
Q

Erythema migrans can be seen in what stage of lyme disease?

A

The first stage

89
Q

Confirming test for Lyme disease

A

Immunoblotting

90
Q

Leptospira interrogans causes what disease?

A

leptospirosis - both Anicteric and icteric

91
Q

Leptospira is excreted in the ______ of animals.

92
Q

Anicteric is more mild or severe?

93
Q

Icteric is more mild or severe?

94
Q

Icteric is known as ______.

A

Weil’s disease

95
Q

Self limiting, high fever and headaches 3-7 days, followed by immune stage (aseptic meningitis)

A

Anicteric leptospirosis

96
Q

Liver, kidney or vascular dysfunction with pulmonary hemorrhage

97
Q

Non-treponemal test detects ____ Ab developed against lipids released from damaged cells.

98
Q

Examples of non-treponemal tests are

A

VDRL and RPR

99
Q

RPR uses _____ to visualize.

100
Q

VDRL uses _____-______ antigen to detect reaginic antibodies

A

cardiolipin-cholesterol

101
Q

Low RPR titer can be a sign of?

A

therapy completion
early diseases
biological false-positives

102
Q

Biological false positive can be from

A

Tissue damage
Cross-reactivity
Autoimmune diseases
Malignant tumors
Infectious diseases such as mononucleosis

103
Q

Treponemal tests are _____ for syphilis.

A

confirmatory

104
Q

2 Treponemal tests are ______ and _______.

A

FTA-ABS
MHA-TP

105
Q

FTA-TP stands for

A

Fluorescent treponemal antibody - Treponemal pallidum

106
Q

MHA-TP stands for

A

Microhemagglutination - Treponema pallidum

107
Q

FTA-TP uses _______ strain mixed with patient serum (Ab).

108
Q

MHA-TP uses ______ coated with T. pallidum antigens.

Microbiology II - Exam 1 Material (2 decks)

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