Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CLM > Microbiology II > Flashcards

Microbiology II Flashcards

1
Q

Protozoa

A

Eukaryotic (unicellular) organisms with organelles that function in nutrition or locomotion
Trophozoites (growing stage)- feed by engulfing particles and move by flagella, cilia, or pseudopodia
Cyst stage- is more resistant and typically is the form shed in stools and transmitted by the fecal-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Entamoeba histolytica

A

Asymptomatic colonization- diarrhea
Amebic colitis/dysentery
Extraintestinal abscess usually in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lab for entamoeba histolytica

A

Request ova and parasites

Serological tests available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tx for entamoeba histolytica

A 
Metronidazole
Iodoquinol (Yodoxin) if first line drug failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A 
Intracellular parasitic protozoan that causes toxoplalsmosis
30-50% of the pop has been infected
Flu-like sx in adults
Infected animals
Worry about IC (pregnant women)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Giardia lamblia

A

Water and person to person transmission

Diarrhea, abd cramps, bloating, flatulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lab for giardia lambia

A

Ova and parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tx for giardia lambia

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

STI
Common cause of vaginitis and urethritis
Burning, pain, itching, d/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lab for trichomonas vaginalis

A

Microscopy, culture, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tx for trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Viruses

A

Smallest known form of infectious disease causing agents

  • Cannot be seen with light microscope
  • Are composed of DNA or RNA
  • Replicate only in living cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Viral cultures

A

From either sterile or nonsterile sites
Dacron or rayon swab that must not dry out during transport and is usually placed in a modified Stuart transport medium
Some have abx to inhibit the growth of nl bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tissue cultures of viruses

A

Rabbit kidney
Monkey kidney
Human embryonic kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Parvoviridae

A

Parvovirus B19 is spread by close physical contact and causes erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Papillomavirdae

A

Human papillomavirus- warts, genital cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Adenoviridae

A

Adenovirus- nasopharyngitis, conjunctivitis, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hepadnaviridae

A

Hep B virus- parenteral route or sexual intercourse

HBsAg is present early in the disease, anti-HBsAg indicates immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Herpes simplex 1 (HSV-1)

A

Cold sores, diagnosed by Tzanck test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Herpes simplex 2 (HSV-2)

A

Genital lesions, frequently transmitted sexually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Varicella zoster virus

A

Chickenpox- mild, self-limiting

Shingles (zoster)- painful reactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Epstein-Barr virus

A

Causes infectious mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sx of Epstein-Barr virus

A

Severe fatigue, hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lab findings of EBV

A

Atypical lymphocytes
Hertophile antibodies (IgM)- Monospot test
Complications- Burkitt’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Herpes virus type 6

A

Causes sixth disease (rosacea infantum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Vaccinia

A

Variant of the variola virus, produces a mild disease

Used as the immunogen in the smallpox vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Variola

A

Causative agent of smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A

Small umbilicated lesions either on children or sexually transmitted (skin-skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Influenza viruses- A, B, C

A

Respiratory tract infections

Reye’s syndrome is associated with type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Lab for influenza viruses

A

Viral isolation or the hemagglutination inhibition test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tx for influenza viruses

A

Symptomatic +/- antivirals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Paramyxoviruses

A

Parainfluenza- croup in infants

Mumps- enlargement of parotid glands and orchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Morbillivirus

A

Measles- maculopapular rash, Koplik spots on buccal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pneumovirus

A

RSV- infant bronchiolitis and pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dengue virus

A

Transmitted by mosquitoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hep C

A

IV drug use, blood transfusions, hemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Yellow fever

A

Arbovirus transmitted by mosquitoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

West Nile virus

A

Transmitted by mosquitoes or contaminated blood products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Retroviridae

A

Contain a reverse transcriptase enzyme
HIV-1
HIV-2
Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV-1)

A

Neurologic degenerating disease
Transmission is the same as for HIV
Long-term effects include debilitation and paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Poliovirus

A

Spinal cord motor neurons are killed, results in flaccid paralysis
Lab: serologic testing or cultivation of the virus from throat cultures or feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hep A

A

Fecal-oral route of transmission

Diagnosed serologically by a rise in IgM as detected by ELISA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Rhinoviruses

A

Most frequent cause of the common cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Endocarditis

A

Endothelium heart layer infection
Subacute= low-grade or absent fever and more nonspecific signs (weight loss, malaise)
Mitral valve most frequently involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

RF of endocarditis

A

Diabetes
IV drug use
Immunosuppression
Tricuspid valve involved with IV drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Sx of endocarditis

A

Fever
Chills
Worsening of valve function
Septic embolic complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lab findings of endocarditis

A 
Blood cultures
Elevated ESR
Leukocytosis
Hamaturia
\+/- Bacteruria
48
Q

Pathogens of endocarditis

A

Staph aureus- acute

Streptococi viridans- subacute

49
Q

Sx of meninges and/or brain parenchyma

A

HA, stiff neck, fever

50
Q

Lab of meninges and/or brain parenchyma- bacteria

A 
CSF cytology and cultures
Increase neutrophils in CSF
Neonates- Group B streptococcus
Listeria monocytogenes- IC
HIb- unvaccinated
Staph, strep
51
Q

Lab of meninges and/or brain parenchyma- viral

A

Increased lymphocytes in CSF

HSV, CMV, HIV

52
Q

Ostoemyelitis- staph aureus

A

All ages, most frequent organism causing hematogenous osteomyelitis

53
Q

Osteomyelitis- salmonella species

A

Sickle cell disease pts

54
Q

Osteomyelitis- pseudomonas

A

IV drug users, puncture wound to foot, urinary catheters

55
Q

Osteomyelitis- streptococci

A

Aerobic- bites, UTI, diabetic foot infections

Anaerobic- prosthetic joints, foreign-body associated

56
Q

Joint infection- Staph aureus

A

MCC of septic arthritis, damaged joint, IV drug abuse

57
Q

Joint infection- Strep spp

A

2nd most common, DM

58
Q

Joint infection- N. gonorrhoeae

A

Young adults

59
Q

Joint infection- Gm neg bacilli

A

IC

60
Q

Joint infection- S. pneumoniae

A

Splenic dysfunction

61
Q

Joint infection- fungal

A

Alchoholism, Sporothix is the MCC of fungal arthritis

62
Q

Abscesses, infected wounds, cellulitis

A

Superficial folliculitis- Staph aureus
Hot tub folliculitis- Pseudomonas
Furuncle/carbuncle- Staph aureus

63
Q

Cellulitis and impetigo

A

GABHS and S. aureus

Pasturella in cat and dog bites

64
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis

A

Anaerobic (Bacteroides)

65
Q

Eyelid infections

A

Hordeolum/chalazion- Staph aureus

66
Q

Viral conjunctivitis

A

More common than bacterial

Adenovirus is most common

67
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis

A

N. gonorrhoeae, Staph aureus, Strep pneumoniae, H. influenzae (children)
Chlamydia- leading cause of blindness worldwide

68
Q

Otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas

69
Q

Otitis media

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis

70
Q

Orbital cellulitis

A

S. aureus, Strep pyogenes

71
Q

Acute sinusitis

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis and rhinoviruses

72
Q

Herpes labialis

A

Painful ulcerating vesicles

Herpes simplex virus

73
Q

Oral thrush

A

Creamy white patches

Candida albicans

74
Q

Streptococcal pharyngitis

A 
Strep pyogenes (GABHS)
Tx: pcn
75
Q

Diphtheria

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Tx: macrolide

76
Q

Community-acquired pneumonia

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis
Mycoplasma pneumonia- IgM and IgG tests
Legionella, staph, viruses

77
Q

Hospital-associated and ventilator pneumonia

A

K. pneumoniae
P. aerugionosa
MRSA

78
Q

Atypical pneumonia

A

Subacute in onset
Cough is nonproductive
Walking pneumonia

79
Q

Primary causes of atypical pneumonia

A

M. pneumoniae
C. pneumoniae
Resp viruses: Influenza, adenovirus, parainfluenza, RSV

80
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

Present in the respiratory tract and feces of about 5% of nl individuals
Can produce extensive hemorrhagic necrotizing consolidation of lung- “currant jelly” sputum
Occasionally causes UTI and bacteremia
Involved in hospital acquired infections
Urine catheters

81
Q

Rx for Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

Ampicillin + gentamycin

82
Q

Legionella pneumophilia

A

Atypical pneumonia, air conditioners, hyponatremia
C and S sputum; urinary antigen test is rapid and sensitive
Azithromycin IV, mortality 16-50%

83
Q

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

A

Acid-fast stain or culture
HIV
Tx: macrolide antibiotic

84
Q

TB

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Slow-growing acid-fast bacilli (AFB)

85
Q

Sx of TB

A 
Fever
Night sweats
Weight loss
Cough
Hemoptysis
86
Q

Lab of TB

A

+PPD, or interferon-gamma release assay

CXR: cavitary lung lesions

87
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

A

Pneumocystis spp.- single-cell organisms originally described as protozoans, but more appropriately classified with the fungi
Associated with HIV/AIDS

88
Q

Lab of pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

A

Cannot be cultured, + microscopy using special stains, PCR

89
Q

Tx for pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

A

Bactrim

90
Q

Adenovirus

A

Serotypes 3, 4, 7 frequent causes of acute resp disease among military recruits
Adenoviral culture from resp specimen
Rapid viral antigen detection
Serotypes 40 and 41 associated with infantile gastroenteritis

91
Q

RSV

A

May show interstitial infiltrates
Viral culture or rapid viral detection
Tx supportive

92
Q

Rotavirus

A

Watery diarrhea, fever, vomiting
Mostly in infants and young children in winter
Lab: direct antigen detection in stool specimens

93
Q

CMV

A

Culture

94
Q

Noroviruses

A

PCR

95
Q

E. coli

A

Watery or bloody diarrhea
Travellers diarrhea
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

96
Q

Salmonella sx

A

Fever, abd pain, diarrhea +/- blood

97
Q

Shigella

A

Dysentery with abd pain and bloody diarrhea

98
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

A

Acute enteritis with diarrhea +/- blood

Guillain-Barre syndrome

99
Q

Vibrio cholerae

A

Severe diarrhea, rice water stools

100
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica

A

Enterocolitis, diarrhea, reactive polyarthritis, erythema nodosum

101
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Abx associated diarrhea

102
Q

Food poisoning

A

N/V 1-8 hrs after eating caused by ingestion of bacterial toxins

103
Q

Sx of food poisoning

A

Diarrhea, abdominal cramps

104
Q

Causes of food poisoning

A

Staph aureus- #1, dairy and bakery products
Bacillus ceres- reheated fried rice
Salmonella

105
Q

UTI

A

Sx: dysuria, urgency, frequency
E. coli (80%), Proteus, Klebsiella, Staph saprophyticus
Lab: + UA, culture

106
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

Sx: fever, chills, N/V, abd pain
E. coli, Staph aureus, Candida spp.
Lab: Leukocytosis, WBC casts, + culture

107
Q

Syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

Lab: +RPR, VDRL, FTA-ABS, ELISA

108
Q

Gonorrhea

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Lab: + culture or DNA test from:
Urine, urethral exudate swab, anorectal and pharyngeal swab, conjunctival swab, blood and synovial fluid, endocervical canal swab

109
Q

Chlamydia

A

C. trachomatis

Lab: DNA PCR testing using NAAT assays > cultures, ELISA, serologic testing

110
Q

Lab for HSV

A

Tzanck smear, viral culture, direct fluorescent antibody prep, serologic assays, PCR (gold standard for CNS HSV)

111
Q

HPV

A

Cervical dysplasia and cancer

Lab: +Pap smear, + HSV testing

112
Q

Sx of sepsis

A

Fever
Tachycardia
Leukocytosis
Hypotension

113
Q

Dx of sepsis

A

Blood cultures (2-3 sets)
Aerobic and anaerobic cultures
Worry about contaminated nl skin flora
-S. aureus and strep that would only grow in 1 bottle

114
Q

Common gram pos organisms in sepsis

A

Staph aureus

Streptococi (beta-hemolytic or pneumoniae)

115
Q

Common gram neg organisms in sepsis

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae
Enterobacter
E. coli
Pseudomonas

116
Q

Common anaerobic organism in sepsis

A

Bacteroides fragilis

117
Q

Common yeast organisms in sepsis

A

Candida spp

Cryptococcus neoformans

CLM (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions